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180 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Project |
A project is a work effort made over a finite period of time with a start and a finish to create a unique product, service, or result. Because a project has a start and an end, it is also called a temporary effort or endeavor.
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Organization
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An organization is a group of individuals organized to work for some purpose or mission.
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Project Stakeholder
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A project stakeholder is an individual or an organization that can be positively or negatively affected by the project execution.
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Process
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A process is a set of related tasks performed to manage a certain aspect of a project, such as cost. Each process belongs to a knowledge area.
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Knowledge Area
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A knowledge area in project management is defined by its knowledge requirements related to managing a specific aspect of a project, such as cost, by using a set of processes. PMI recognizes a total of nine knowledge areas, such as cost management and human resource management.
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Performing Organization
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The performing organization is the organization that is performing the project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 3. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=24 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Project Management
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Project management is the usage of knowledge, skills, and tools to manage a project from start to finish with the goal of meeting the project requirements. It involves using the appropriate processes.
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Program
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A program is a set of related projects managed in a coordinated fashion to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness. For example, a program could be delivering a product (or service) that consists of sub-products (or service components) delivered by the constituent projects. Also, a program might include related work that is not included in the scope of the constituent projects.
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Program Management
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Program management is the centralized, coordinated management of a specific program to achieve its strategic goals, objectives, and benefits.
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Program Management Office
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Program management office (or project management office) refers to an entity in an organization who is responsible for providing centralized coordinated management for programs— that is, projects in the organization.
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Project Lifecycle
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The project lifecycle consists of five stages: initiating, planning, executing, monitoring/controlling, and closing. Each of these stages is called a process group due to the set of processes that is performed in the stage.
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Knowledge Areas (list)
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The project processes that are performed to manage projects constitute nine project management knowledge areas: communication management, cost management, human resource management, integration management, procurement management, quality management, risk management, scope management, and time management.
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Project Manager Authority (functional, matrix, projectized)
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A project manager has none to low authority in a functional organization, low to high authority in a matrix organization, and high to full authority in a projectized organization.
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Which two of the following are the essential characteristics that make a group of activities a project? (Choose two.) A. It takes multiple individuals to perform these activities. B. The work is managed by a project manager. C. The group has a budget. D. The group has a start date and a finish date. E. The group’s outcome will be a new product.
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Answer: D and E D and E are the correct answers because the defining characteristics of a project are that it must be temporary (with a start and finish date), and it must produce a unique (new) product. A and B are incorrect because it’s possible to have a project that will involve only one person, and there could be a project without an individual called the project manager. The only two defining characteristics of a project are that it is temporary and unique. C is incorrect because an operation can have a budget too.
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Which of the following is a project? A. Running a donut shop B. Building another library in your area C. Keeping a network up and running in a university department D. Running a warehouse
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because building a library is temporary— that is, it will have a start and a finish date, and it will be new library. A, C, and D are incorrect because running a donut shop, keeping a network up and running, and running a warehouse are all ongoing operations.
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Which of the following is not a process group? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Implementing D. Controlling E. Closing
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because there is no process group in project management called implementing. The five process groups representing the five stages of the project lifecycle are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring/controlling, and closing. A, B, D, and E are incorrect because the five process groups representing the five stages of the project lifecycle are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring/controlling, and closing.
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Which of the following is not a project management knowledge area? A. Project procurement management B. Project risk management C. Project quality management D. Project team management E. Project time management
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Answer: D D is the correct answer because team management is part of the knowledge area called human resource management. A, B, C, and E are incorrect because all these are four of the nine project management knowledge areas.
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Which of the following is the best definition of progressive elaboration? A. Taking the project from concept to project management plan B. Taking the project from conception to completion C. Taking the project from initiating to closing D. Decomposing the project objectives into smaller, more manageable work pieces
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Answer: A A is the correct and the best answer because the project plan is developed starting from the concept and going through progressive elaboration. B and C are incorrect because B includes project lifecycle and C is the lifecycle. Progressive elaboration does not include the lifecycle of the project; its goal is to plan the project. Because the project planning can develop (or change) throughout the project lifecycle, progressive elaboration can continue through the project lifecycle, but it does not include the work of the lifecycle. D is incorrect because decomposing the project into smaller, more manageable work pieces is a technique used in creating the WBS.
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In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have the greatest authority? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Leveled
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because the matrix organization provides the greatest authority for the project manager. A and B are incorrect because the authority of the project manager is none to low in a functional organization and low to high in a matrix organization. D is incorrect because there is no organizational structure called leveled.
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In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have the least authority? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Leveled
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Answer: A A is the correct answer because the authority of the project manager is none to low in a functional organization. B and C are incorrect because the authority of the project manager is high to full in a projectized organization and low to high in a matrix organization. D is incorrect because there is no organizational structure called leveled.
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Project Origination (source and reasons)
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A project can originate inside the performing organization or outside of it, in order to meet business requirements, take on an opportunity, or offer a solution to a problem.
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What does the project charter do?
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The project charter names the project manager and determines authority level of the project manager.
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What does the preliminary project scope statement do?
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The preliminary project scope statement takes the project understanding to the next level by specifying the project scope and the project change control, and thereby helps to get the stakeholders on the same page.
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What are the three categories of methods used to select from proposed projects?
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The first type of method is the benefit measurement method, which evaluates the benefits from the projects. Constrained optimization methods focus on the probability of completing the projects successfully, and expert judgment relies on expert advice.
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What are the two output items of the initiation process group?
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The two output items of the initiation process group are the project charter, which names and authorizes the project manager, and the preliminary scope statement, which outlines the scope of the project.
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What types of algorithms do constrained optimization methods use for project selection?
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linear, nonlinear, dynamic, integer, and multiple objective programming.
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What tools and techniques are used in developing both the project charter and preliminary scope statement?
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expert judgment, project management information systems, and project management methodology.
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What input items are used to develop both the project charter and the preliminary scope statement?
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statement of work, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
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Assumption
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A factor that you consider to be true without any proof or verification. Assumptions can appear in both the input and the output of various processes.
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Constraint
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A restriction (or a limitation) that can affect the performance of the project. Assumptions can appear in both the input and the output of various processes.
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enterprise environmental factors
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The environmental factors internal or external to the performing organization that can influence the project’s success, such as the organization’s culture, infrastructure, existing skill set, market conditions, and project management software. These are input to both the project charter and the preliminary project scope statement.
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initiating process group
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A process group that contains two processes: develop project charter and develop preliminary project scope statement.
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methodology
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A system of practices, procedures, rules, and techniques used in a specific discipline.
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organizational process assets
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The assets that can be used to perform the project successfully, such as templates, guidelines, knowledge base, and policies and procedures.
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preliminary project scope statement
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The document that specifies the project scope during the initiation stage.
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project charter
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A document issued by the project initiator or the project sponsor that, when signed by an appropriate person in the performing organization, authorizes the project by naming the project manager and specifying the authority level of the project manager.
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Project Management Information System (PMIS)
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An information system that consists of tools used to store, integrate, and retrieve the outputs of the project management processes. This can be used to support all stages of the project from initiating to closing.
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project scope
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The work that must be performed to deliver a product, service, or results with the specified features. The project scope draws the boundaries around the project: what is included and what is not.
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Statement of Work (SOW)
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A document that describes the products or services to be delivered by the project. It is an input to developing the project charter and the preliminary project scope statement.
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Which of the following issues the project charter document? A. The performing organization’s higher management B. Any stakeholder C. The customer D. The project manager
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Answer: A A is correct because the management of the performing organization issues the project charter. B is incorrect because issuing a project charter is the responsibility of the performing organization, and a stakeholder does not have to be even a member of the performing organization. C is incorrect because issuing a project charter is the responsibility of the performing organization, and a customer does not have to be even a member of the performing organization. D is incorrect because the charter authorizes the project manager and not vice versa.
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What document is the result of the project initiation process group? A. Statement of work B. Project charter C. Scope plan document D. Preliminary scope statement
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Answer: B and D B and D are correct because the project charter and preliminary statement of work are two documents that are the output of the initiation process group. A is incorrect because the statement of work is an input to the initiation process group and not a result (output) of it. C is incorrect because the scope plan document does not belong to the initiation phase.
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The project charter is important for which of the following reasons? A. It authorizes the sponsor. B. It names the project manager. C. It authorizes the project manager to use the organization’s resources. D. It identifies all the stakeholders. E. It identifies the project team members.
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Answer: B and C B and C are correct because the project charter names the project manger and provides the project manager the authority to use organizational resources to run the project. A is incorrect because the sponsor is not authorized by the project charter; the opposite might be true. D is incorrect because it will be your responsibility to identify all the stakeholders. E is incorrect because the project team is not formed in the initiation phase.
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Which of the following is not included in the project charter? A. The purpose of the project B. High-level product requirements C. A summary of the high-level schedule D. Initial defined risks E. The budget summary
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Answer: D D is correct because the initial defined risks item is part of the preliminary project statement, not a part of the project charter. A, B, C, and E are incorrect because all these items may be included in the project charter.
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Which of the following is not included in the preliminary scope statement? A. Project objectives B. The product requirements C. Project deliverables D. Initial defined risks E. Initial project team F. Statement of work
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Answer: F F is correct because the statement of work is an input into developing the preliminary project statement, not a part of it. A, B, C, D, and E are incorrect because all these items may be included in the preliminary project scope statement.
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Which of the following lists the documents in the order they are written? A. Statement of work, project charter, preliminary project scope statement B. Project charter, statement of work, preliminary project scope statement C. Preliminary project scope statement, project charter, statement of work D. Statement of work, preliminary project scope statement, project charter
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Answer: A A is correct because the statement of work is an input to the project charter and the preliminary scope statement, and the project charter is an input to the preliminary scope statement. B is incorrect because the statement of work is an input to the project charter, so it must be available before the project charter. C is incorrect because both the statement of work and the project charter are input to the preliminary scope statement, so they must be developed before the scope statement can be. D is incorrect because the project charter is an input to the preliminary scope statement and not vice versa.
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You have been named the project manager for a project in your company codenamed Thank You Mr. Glad. The project must complete before Thanksgiving Day this year. This represents which of the following project characteristics? A. Assumption B. Constraint C. Schedule D. Crashing
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Answer: B B is correct because a hard deadline imposed on a project is an example of a constraint. A is incorrect because an assumption is a factor that you believe to be true; it is not a condition such as a hard deadline. C is incorrect because a hard deadline tells very little about the actual schedule. D is incorrect because crashing is the process of assigning more resources to finish a project by a given deadline. Just because a deadline is given does not necessarily mean that you need crashing.
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Which of the following is true about assumptions in the project planning? A. Because assumptions are a part of the project charter that you did not write, you don’t need to validate them. Just assume the assumptions are true, and if the project fails, it’s not your fault. B. Because assumptions represent risk, you must validate them at various stages of the project. C. An assumption is a condition that has been verified to be true, so you don’t need to validate it. D. You must not start a project until all the assumptions have been proven to be true.
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Answer: B B is correct because assumptions represent uncertainty and hence risk. Assumptions must be validated and analyzed as part of the risk management at various stages of the project. A is incorrect because assumptions by definition represent uncertainty, and as a project manager, it is your responsibility to validate the assumptions at various stages of the project. C is incorrect because it is not the correct definition of assumption. D is incorrect because you can start the project with the assumptions. All you have to do is validate them at various stages of the project and analyze them as part of the risk management.
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Which of the following is not an example of a project selection method? A. Expert judgment B. Scoring models C. Benefit cost ratio D. Constrained optimization methods E. Enterprise environmental factors
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Answer: E E is correct because enterprise environmental factors are an input to the project charter and the preliminary project statement, not a project selection method. A, B, C, and D are incorrect because expert judgment, scoring models, benefit cost ratio, and constrained optimization methods are all project selection methods.
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Answer: A A is correct because adding parental guide notices is a business (legal) requirement. B is incorrect because adding these notices is not an opportunity to make revenues; it is a requirement that must be met to keep the Web site up without offending the customers or the legal system. C and D are incorrect because the project at hand does not solve any organizational problem and is not launched to meet any internal organizational need.
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Answer: A A is correct because adding parental guide notices is a business (legal) requirement. B is incorrect because adding these notices is not an opportunity to make revenues; it is a requirement that must be met to keep the Web site up without offending the customers or the legal system. C and D are incorrect because the project at hand does not solve any organizational problem and is not launched to meet any internal organizational need.
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What does the scope management plan do?
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Which of the following is not included in the preliminary scope statement? A. Project objectives B. The product requirements C. Project deliverables D. Initial defined risks E. Initial project team F. Statement of work
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What are inputs to the project scope statement?
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The scope management plan, along with the project charter and the preliminary project scope statement from the initiation stage, becomes the input to developing the detailed project scope statement, which is a document that states what needs to be accomplished by the project.
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What is the WBS?
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The project scope statement is an input item to create the work breakdown structure (WBS), which is a breakdown of project deliverables into manageable pieces called work packages. The WBS is supported by another document called the WBS dictionary, which offers details for the WBS components.
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What does the project scope statement include?
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The project scope statement includes these elements: project objectives, project deliverables, project requirements, product description, assumptions and constraints, cost estimates, scheduled milestones, initial risk identification, and the initial project team.
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What are some common contraints to consider across all projects?
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Quality, resources, scope, and time are the common constraints you should consider across all projects.
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The key criteria for the scope statement is this it must be ______?
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The success criteria stated in the scope statement of a project must be measurable, such as a three-percent increase in revenue, not vague, such as a substantial increase in revenue.
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The project scope management plan is part of what?
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The project scope management plan is a part of the project management plan.
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alternatives identification
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A technique used to apply nonstandard approaches, such as brainstorming and lateral thinking, to perform project work.
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baseline
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A reference plan for components, such as schedule, scope, and cost, against which performance deviations are measured. The reference plan can be the original or the modified plan.
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brainstorming
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A creative technique generally used in a group environment to gather ideas as candidates for a solution to a problem or an issue without any immediate evaluation of these ideas. The evaluation and analysis of these ideas happens later.
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configuration management
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Refers to controlling the characteristics of a product, a service, or a result of a project. It includes documenting the features of a product or a service, controlling and documenting changes to the features, and providing support for auditing the products for conformance to requirements.
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decomposition
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A planning technique to subdivide the project scope, including deliverables, into smaller, manageable tasks called work packages.
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deliverable
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A unique and verifiable product, a capability to provide a service, or a result that must be produced to complete a project or a process or phase of the project.
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laterial thinking
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Thinking outside the box, beyond the realm of your experience, to search for new solutions and methods, rather than only better uses of the current solutions and methods.
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product scope
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Features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result to be delivered by the project.
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project scope
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The work that must be performed (and only that work) to deliver products, services, or results with specified features that were promised by the project. The project scope draws the boundaries around the project: what is included and what is not.
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project scope statement
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A document that defines the scope of a project by stating what needs to be accomplished by the project.
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scope baseline
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The reference scope against which all the scope deviations are measured. It consists of the scope statement, the WBS document, and the WBS
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scope definition
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The process used to develop the detailed project scope statement.
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scope planning
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The process of developing the project scope management plan.
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subprojects
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Parts of the main projects that are independent enough that each can be performed by separate project teams.
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work breakdown structure (WBS)
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A deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work that must be performed to accomplish the objectives and create the deliverables of the project.
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work package
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A deliverable or a task at the lowest level of each branch of the WBS.
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Which of the following is a false statement about the WBS? A. Each item in the WBS (not just the work packages) is assigned a unique identifier called a code of account identifier. B. You should keep decomposing WBS components to lower levels until necessary and sufficient decomposition has been achieved. C. Each work component appears in the WBS once and only once. D. The work packages should appear from left to right in the order in which the work will be performed.
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Answer: D D is the correct answer because the work packages don’t have to appear in the order the work will be performed. This sequencing will be done later. A, B, and C are the incorrect answers because theses are the characteristics of the WBS.
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Which of the following is done first? A. Creating the scope statement B. Creating the WBS C. Creating the preliminary project scope statement D. Creating the project charter
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Answer: D D is correct because the project charter is created in the initiation stage and it is an input item to creating the preliminary project scope statement. A is incorrect because the project charter and the preliminary project scope statement are input items into creating the project scope statement. B is incorrect because the project scope statement is an input item into creating the WBS. C is incorrect because the project charter is an input item into creating the preliminary project scope statement.
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The WBS is the output of which of the following processes? A. The create WBS process B. The scope definition process C. Creating the project scope D. Project initiation
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Answer: A A is correct because the create WBS process is used to create the WBS. B is incorrect because the scope definition process is used to create the project scope statement. C is incorrect because there is no such process named creating project scope. D is incorrect because project initiation is a process group that includes two processes to develop the project charter and the preliminary project scope statement.
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The project scope statement is the output of which of the following processes? A. The create WBS process B. The scope definition process C. Creating the project scope D. Project initiation
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Answer: B B is correct because the scope definition process is used to create the project scope statement. A is incorrect because the create WBS process is used to create the WBS. C is incorrect because there is no such process named creating project scope. D is incorrect because project initiation is a process group that includes two processes to develop the project charter and the preliminary project scope statement.
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Which of the following is a false statement about the project scope management plan? A. It describes how to verify the scope. B. It describes how to control the scope. C. It serves as the baseline for the project scope. D. It describes how to create the WBS.
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because the scope statement, the WBS document, and the WBS dictionary combined make the scope baseline against which all the change requests will be evaluated. A, B, and D are incorrect because all these are true statements about the project scope management plan.
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What are the components in the lowest level of the WBS hierarchy collectively called? A. Work packages B. Milestones C. Phases D. Features
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Answer: A A is correct because the components in the lowest level of the WBS hierarchy are called work packages. B is incorrect because a milestone might consist of more than one work package. C is incorrect because if a phase is represented in the WBS it will be represented at a much higher level. D is incorrect because a feature does not necessarily correspond to one work package.
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Which of the following is not a constraint common to all the projects? A. Resources B. Scope C. Time D. Quality E. Skill set
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Answer: E E is correct because the four constraints common across all the projects are resources, scope, time, and quality. A, B, C, and D are incorrect because the four constraints common across all the projects are resources, scope, time, and quality. Cost (resources), scope, and schedule (time) are the constraints collectively called a triple constraint because if one of them changes, at least one of the other two must change.
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Which of the following constitutes the project scope baseline? A. The preliminary scope statement and the detailed scope statement B. The detailed scope statement C. The WBS document D. The WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the detailed scope statement E. The WBS document and the WBS dictionary
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Answer: D D is correct because the detailed scope statement, the WBS document, and the WBS dictionary combined make the scope baseline for the project. A is incorrect because the preliminary scope statement does not need to be included in the baseline, whereas you must include the WBS document and the WBS dictionary. B is incorrect because you must include the WBS document and the WBS dictionary in the scope baseline. C is incorrect because you must include the scope statement and the WBS dictionary in the scope baseline. E is incorrect because you must include the scope statement in the scope baseline.
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Who creates the WBS? A. The project manager alone B. The project manager and the project sponsor C. The customer D. The project manger with help from the project team E. The upper management in the performing organization
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Answer: D D is correct because you, the project manager, create the WBS with help from the project team. A is incorrect because the project manager creates the WBS with help from the team. B is incorrect because the project manager creates the WBS with help from the team; however, the project sponsor can help as part of the team. C and E are incorrect because neither the customer nor the upper management of the performing organization creates the WBS.
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Which of the following is not included in the project scope statement? A. Project assumptions and constraints B. The WBS C. Project objectives D. Project deliverables E. Product descriptions
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Answer: B B is correct because the WBS is not part of the project statement; it is an output of the create WBS process, to which the scope statement is an input item. A, C, D, and E are incorrect because all these items are parts of the scope statement.
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What are the two goals for quality planning?
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The goal for quality planning is twofold: Identify which quality standards are relevant to the project at hand and determine how to satisfy these standards.
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What is the purpose of the risk identification process?
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The risk identification process initiates the risk register by listing the identified risks in it. The qualitative risk analysis prioritizes these risks based on the probability and impact matrix for each objective, whereas the emphasis in quantitative risk analysis is on assessing the probabilities of meeting each project objective and prioritizing the risks based on the total effect of each risk on the overall project objectives.
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What is the goal of risk response planning?
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The goal for risk response planning is to minimize the threats (the negative effects of risks) and maximize the opportunities (the positive effects of risks).
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Assumptions analysis
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A technique used to examine the validity of an assumption and thereby identify the risk resulting from the inaccuracy, inconsistency, or incompleteness of each assumption.
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benchmarking
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Benchmarking is comparing practices, products, or services of a project with those of some reference projects for the purposes of learning, improvement, and creating the basis for measuring performance.
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confidence level
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A statistical term that refers to the certainty attached to an estimate and is often represented in percentage form, such as a 95% confidence level.
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contingency
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A future event or condition that is possible but cannot be predicted with certainty. In this case, an action will be contingent upon the condition— that is, the action will be executed only if the condition happens.
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contingency reserve
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The amount of funds, time, or both needed in addition to the estimates in order to meet the organization’s and stakeholders’ risk tolerances and thresholds.
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decision tree analysis
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A technique that uses a decision tree diagram to choose from different options available; each option is represented by a branch of the tree. EMV analysis is done along each branch, which helps to make a decision about which option to choose.
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Delphi technique
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An information-gathering technique used for experts to reach a consensus while sharing their ideas and preferences anonymously.
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Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis
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A statistical technique used to calculate the expected outcome when there are multiple possible outcome values with probabilities assigned to them.
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experiment design
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A statistical method that can be used to identify the factors that can influence a set of specific variables of a product or a process under development or in production.
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methodology
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A system of procedures and techniques practiced in a discipline to accomplish a task. For example, risk management methodology is used in the discipline of project management to determine how risk management processes will be performed.
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mitigation
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The process of taking actions to reduce or prevent the impact of a disaster that is expected to occur.
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model
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A set of rules to describe how something works, which takes input and makes predictions as output.
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Monte Carlo simulation
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An analysis technique that randomly generates values for uncertain elements (that is, variables) and takes them as input into a model to generate output. In other words, it simulates a model by feeding randomly selected input values.
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performance measurement baseline
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An approved integrated plan for the project specifying some parameters to be included in the performance measurements, such as scope, schedule, and cost. The performance of the project is measured against this baseline. Some technical and quality parameters can also become part of this baseline.
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quality
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The degree to which a set of characteristics of project deliverables and objectives fulfill the project requirements.
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quality baseline
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A criterion that specifies the quality objectives for the project and thereby makes the basis for measuring and reporting the quality performance.
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quality management plan
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A management plan that describes how the project management team will implement the quality policy of the performing organization for the specific project.
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quality metrics
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An operational criterion that defines in specific terms what something (such as a characteristic or a feature) is and how the quality control process measures it.
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quality planning
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The process of identifying the quality standards relevant to the project at hand and determining how to satisfy these standards.
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quality policy
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Overall intentions and high-level direction of an organization with respect to quality, established by the management at executive level.
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qualitative risk analysis
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A process used to prioritize risks by estimating the probability of their occurrence and their impact on the project.
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quantitative risk analysis
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A process used to perform the numerical analysis to estimate the effect of each identified risk on the overall project objectives and deliverables.
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residual risk
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A risk that remains after the risk response has been performed.
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risk
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An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on meeting the project objectives.
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risk breakdown structure (RBS)
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A hierarchical structure that breaks down the identified risk categories into subcategories. In developing this structure, you will end up identifying various areas and causes of potential risks.
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risk identification
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A process used to identify the risks for a given project and record their characteristics in a document called the risk register.
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risk management plan
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A document that describes how risk management will be structured and performed for the project at hand. It becomes part of the project management plan.
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risk management planning
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A process used to determine how to approach, plan, and execute risk management activities for a given project. This process produces risk management plan.
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risk register
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A document that contains the results of risk analysis and risk response planning.
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secondary risk
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A risk that arises as a result of implementing a risk response.
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simulation
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Any analytical method used to imitate a real-life system.
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strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis
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A technique used to gather information for risk identification by examining a given project from the perspectives of its strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
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Which of the following is a false statement about project risks? A. A risk arises out of uncertainty. B. A risk can only have a negative effect on a project. C. Identified risks are usually listed in a document called the risk register. D. Risks can be categorized by developing a risk breakdown structure (RBS).
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because a risk can have a negative or a positive effect on a project. A, C, and D are incorrect answers because these are true statements about project risks.
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The risk register is not an input to which of the following processes? A. Risk identification B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Quantitative risk analysis D. Risk response planning
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Answer: A A is correct because the risk register is the output of the risk identification process, but it is not used as an input because it does not exist before this process. B, C, and D are incorrect because the risk register is an input item to qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, and risk response planning, whereas the updated risk register is an output from each of these processes.
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Which of the following is not an information-gathering technique used in the risk identification process? A. Brainstorming B. Delphi technique C. SWOT analysis D. Web browsing
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Answer: D D is the correct answer because you cannot identify risks in your specific project based on the information collected from the Web. A, B, and C are incorrect answers because brainstorming, Delphi technique, and SWOT analysis are valid information-gathering techniques used for identifying risks.
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Which of the following statements about risk analysis is false? A. Quantitative risk analysis can only be performed on the risks on which a qualitative risk analysis has already been performed. B. Qualitative risk analysis is usually performed before quantitative risk analysis. C. An updated risk register is the output of both qualitative risk analysis and quantitative risk analysis. D. The risk register is an input to both qualitative risk analysis and quantitative risk analysis.
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Answer: A A is the correct answer because depending upon the experience of the team, a risk can be moved directly after the identification process to the quantitative process without performing the qualitative analysis. B, C, and D are incorrect answers because these are true statements.
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You are managing a project to set up data servers to support a Web site for an enterprise customer. The location for the servers has been chosen close to the customer due to their requirements. However, this location is prone to natural disasters, such as hurricanes and flooding. You have decided to install some redundant servers in another city that will act as backup if a disaster happens. This is an example of which of the following? A. Risk avoidance B. Risk mitigation C. Risk acceptance D. Risk transfer
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Answer: B B is correct because building redundancy into a system is an example of mitigating the risk. A is incorrect because the risk can still happen because you have not changed the plan, such as moving the server center to some other city. C is incorrect because accepting a risk means no action or conditional action. D is incorrect because you have not transferred the risk to a third party.
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The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in your company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so they have decided to outsource it. This is an example of which of the following? A. Risk avoidance B. Risk mitigation C. Risk acceptance D. Risk transfer
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Answer: D D is correct because you have transferred the risk to a third party. A is incorrect because the risk can still happen because you have not changed the plan, such as eliminating the need for that part of the system. B is incorrect because mitigating the risk does not involve transferring the risk to a third party. C is incorrect because accepting a risk means no action or conditional action.
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You are in the process of evaluating the probability and impact of a risk by assigning numbers, such as expected monetary value. This is an example of which of the following? A. Monte Carlo simulation B. Qualitative analysis C. Quantitative analysis D. Risk response planning
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Answer: C C is correct because the numerical analysis of a risk is called quantitative analysis. A is incorrect because assigning numbers does not necessarily mean you are performing a Monte Carlo simulation, although it is one of the tools to perform quantitative analysis. B is incorrect because qualitative analysis does not involve numerical analysis, such as EMV calculations. D is incorrect because risk response planning will be based on the results of risk analysis.
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Consider the following figure. It shows a risk with a 50% probability of occurrence. If the risk does occur, it could have a positive or a negative impact equivalent to $200,000 or $50,000, respectively, with the probabilities shown in the figure. What is the EMV for the positive impact? A. $80,000 B. $200,000 C. $50,000 D. $40,000
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Answer: D D is correct because the probability of the risk is 50% and the probability of the positive impact is 40%, so the total probability for the positive impact to happen is 0.5 * 0.4 = 0.2. EMV = Probability * Value of the outcome = 0.2 * $200, 000 = $40,000 A, B, and C are incorrect because they show wrong values for EMV.
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Consider the following figure. It shows a risk with a 50% probability of occurrence. If the risk does occur, it could have a positive or a negative impact equivalent to $200,000 or $50,000, respectively, with the probabilities shown in the figure. What is the EMV for the risk? A. $25,000 B. $55,000 C. $110,000 D. $50,000
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Answer: A A is correct because the probability of the risk is 50%, and the probability of the positive impact is 40%, so the total probability for the positive impact to happen is 0.5 * 0.4 = 0.2. EMV = Probability * Value of the outcome = 0.2 * $200, 000 = $40,000 Similarly, EMV for threat = 0.3 * $50,000 = –$15,000 Therefore, EMV for the risk = $40,000 – $15,000 = $25,000 B, C, and D are incorrect because they show wrong values for EMV.
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Which of the following is a correct statement about secondary risks? A. These are the residual risks. B. These are the risks that have medium or low priority. C. These are the risks that will be avoided. D. These are the risks that have been transferred. E. These are the risks that can result from responses to the identified risks.
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Answer: E E is correct because secondary risks are those risks that arise as a result of risk responses. A is incorrect because a residual risk is a risk that remains after a response has been performed. B is incorrect because depending upon the nature of the secondary risk, it may have any priority. C and D are incorrect because the risk response will depend upon the analysis results of the risk.
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Which of the following is not a valid risk response? A. Risk acceptance B. Risk sharing C. Risk mitigation D. Risk avoidance E. Risk rejection
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Answer: E E is the correct answer because there is no such risk response named risk rejection. A, B, C, and D are all incorrect answers because these are valid risk responses.
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Which of the following is a valid statement about SWOT? A. It is an analysis technique to identify risks. B. It refers to the analysis of scope, work, options, and timing. C. It is a technique used to plan a risk response. D. It is a technique used to perform quantitative risk analysis.
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Answer: A A is correct because SWOT is a risk identification technique that identifies the risks by examining the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of a given project. B is incorrect because this is a wrong statement about SWOT. C and D are incorrect because SWOT is a technique used in risk identification, not in risk response planning, nor in quantitative risk analysis.
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Which of the following is not an output of the qualitative risk analysis? A. A prioritized list of risks for a given project objective based on the probability and impact matrix of the objective B. A watch list of low-priority risks C. A list of risks prioritized based on the total effect of each risk on the overall project objectives D. A list of trends in the analysis results
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because you need to perform quantitative risk analysis to create a list of risks prioritized based on the total effect of each risk on the overall project objectives. A, B, and D are incorrect because these are the possible output items from the qualitative risk analysis.
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Which of the following is not an output of the quantitative risk analysis? A. Probabilities of meeting the project objectives, such as cost and schedule B. Estimate of the project cost C. A list of risks prioritized based on the total effect of each risk on the overall project objectives D. A list of trends in the analysis results E. A risk-related contractual agreement
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Answer: E E is the correct answer because a risk-related contractual agreement can be an output of the risk response planning, not the quantitative risk analysis. A, B, C, and D are incorrect because all these are the possible output items from the quantitative risk analysis.
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What is the name of a quality planning technique that involves comparing the results of similar activities? A. Brainstorming B. Benchmarking C. Cost/benefit analysis D. Quality metrics E. Quality checklists
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because benchmarking is a quality planning technique that compares practices, products, or services of a project with those of some reference projects for the purpose of learning, improving, and creating the basis for measuring performance. A is incorrect because you can always brainstorm, but it does not have to compare the results of similar activities. C is incorrect because although it is a quality planning technique, it involves striking a balance between cost and benefit (which are not similar). D and E are incorrect because quality metrics and quality checklists are not quality planning techniques; these are the output items of the quality planning process.
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activity
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A component of project work.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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activity definition
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The process of identifying the specific schedule activities that need to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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activity duration
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The time measured in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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activity duration estimating
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The process of estimating the time in work periods individually for each schedule activity required for its completion. A work period is a measurement of time when the work is in progress; it is measured in hours, days, or months depending upon the size of the activity.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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activity resource estimating
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The process of estimating the types and amounts of resources that will be required to perform each schedule activity.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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activity sequencing
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The process of identifying and documenting the dependencies among schedule activities.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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analogous estimating
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A technique that is used to estimate the duration of an activity based on the duration of a similar activity in a previous project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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arrow diagramming method (ADM)
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A technique used to draw a project schedule network diagram in which an arrow represents an activity and also points to the successor activity through a junction represented by a node (box).
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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control account
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A level in the WBS at which the WBS components can be planned to a limited detail.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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crashing
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A project schedule compression technique used to decrease the project duration with minimum additional cost. A number of alternatives are analyzed, including the assignment of additional resources.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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critical path
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The longest path (sequence of activities) in a project schedule network diagram. Because it is the longest path, it determines the duration of the project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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critical path method (CPM)
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A schedule network analysis technique used to identify the schedule flexibility and the critical path of the project schedule network diagram.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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fast tracking
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A project schedule compression technique used to decrease the project duration by performing project phases or some schedule activities within a phase simultaneously, when they would normally be performed in sequence.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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float time
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The positive difference between the late start date and the early start date of a schedule activity.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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lag
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A technique to modify a dependency relationship by delaying the successor activity. For example, a lag of five days in a finish-to-start relationship means the successor activity cannot start until five days after the predecessor activity has ended.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 148. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=169 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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lead
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A technique to modify a dependency relationship by accelerating the successor activity. For example, a lead of five days in a finish-to-start relationship means the successor activity can start up until five days before the finish date of the predecessor activity.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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logical relationship
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A dependency between two project schedule activities or between a schedule activity and a schedule milestone.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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milestone
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A significant point (or event) in the life of a project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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parametric estimating
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A quantitative technique used to calculate the activity duration when the productivity rate of the resource performing the activity is available.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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planning component
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A WBS component at the bottom level of a branch of WBS hierarchy for which some planning can be performed.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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planning package
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A WBS component that is below the level of a control account and above the level of a work package.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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precedence diagramming method (PDM)
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A technique used to construct a project schedule network diagram in which a node (a box) represents an activity and an arrow represents the dependency relationship.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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project calendar
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A calendar of working days or shifts used to establish when a schedule activity can be performed. A calendar typically specifies holidays and weekends when a schedule activity cannot be performed.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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project schedule
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A schedule that consists of planned dates for performing schedule activities and meeting schedule milestones.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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project schedule network diagram
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A schematic display of logical relationships among the project schedule activities. The time flow in these diagrams is from left to right.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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resource breakdown structure (RBS)
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The resource breakdown structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of resource types required to complete the schedule activities of a project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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role
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A defined function that contains a set of responsibilities to be performed by a team member, such as a programmer or a tester.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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rolling wave planning
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A technique used to plan the project work at various levels of detail, depending upon the availability of information. Work to be performed in the near future is planned at the low level of the WBS, whereas work to be performed far into the future is planned at a relatively high level of the WBS.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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schedule activity
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A scheduled task (component of work) performed during the lifecycle of a project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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schedule baseline
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A specific version of the project schedule that is approved by the project management team as a baseline against which the progress of the project will be measured. This version of the schedule is developed from the schedule network analysis of the schedule model data.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 149. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=170 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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schedule development
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The process of creating the project schedule by analyzing schedule activity sequences, schedule activity durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 150. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=171 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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schedule milestone
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A significant event in the project schedule, such as the completion of a major deliverable.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 150. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=171 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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schedule network analysis
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A technique used to generate a project schedule by identifying the early and late start and finish dates for the project.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 150. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=171 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Which of the following is the most widely used network diagramming method? A. Critical path method (CPM) B. Critical chain method (CCM) C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) D. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because the precedence diagramming method is the most commonly used network diagramming method that can be used in the activity sequencing process to represent any of the four kinds of dependencies. A and B are incorrect because CPM and CCM are the network diagram analysis methods that are used in the schedule development process. D is incorrect because the arrow diagramming method is not the popular method, and it can only be used to represent one of the four kinds of dependencies: the finish-tostart dependency.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 281. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=302 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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What is the crashing technique used for? A. Network diagramming B. Duration compression C. Cost reduction D. Activity sequencing
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because crashing is used to compress the schedule by adding more resources to the project. A and D are incorrect because the network diagramming method and the sequencing method do not need crashing. C is incorrect because crashing does not reduce cost. It may well increase cost when you commit additional resources.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 281. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=302 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Which of the following is a true statement about the critical path? A. Each activity on the critical path has zero float time. B. It controls the project finish date. C. It controls the project start date. D. It is the shortest sequence in the network diagram. E. Both A and B are true.
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Answer: E E is the correct answer because the critical path is the longest sequence in the network diagram, and therefore it controls the finish date for a given start date; also, each activity on the critical path has a zero float time. Because both A and B are true, and you are allowed to choose only one, you choose E. C is incorrect because the critical path controls the finish date for a given start date. D is incorrect because the critical path is the longest sequence, not the shortest.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 281. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=302 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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In your research project on tourism, you must collect data before the tourist season ends because the project involves interviewing the tourists. The data-collection activity has which of the following kind of dependency? A. Mandatory B. External C. Internal D. Discretionary E. Finish-to-start
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because an activity has external dependency when it relies on factors outside the project. A is incorrect because activity Y has a mandatory dependency on activity X when Y inherently depends on X. C is incorrect because there is no such dependency called internal. D is incorrect because we have an external dependency here. E is incorrect because the finish-to-start relationship is not relevant to this dependency.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 281. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=302 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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You know from a network diagram that activity B cannot start until activity A is finished. Which of the following are true? A. Activities A and B have a start-to-finish dependency. B. Activities A and B have a finish-to-start dependency. C. Activity B has a mandatory dependency on activity A. D. Activities A and B are on a critical path. E. Activity B is a successor to activity A.
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Answer: B and E B and E are correct because finish-to-start dependency means that the successor (B) activity cannot start until the predecessor (A) activity is finished. A is incorrect because the start-to-finish relationship means that the successor activity cannot finish until the predecessor activity is started. C is incorrect because we do not have enough information to say that this dependency is mandatory. D is incorrect because just because there is a dependency between two activities, that does not mean they are on the critical path.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 282. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=303 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Why should you monitor the activities on the critical path more closely? A. Because each activity on the critical path has a zero float time and thereby poses a schedule risk. B. Because the activities on the critical path need to be performed before the activities on other paths. C. Because the activities on the critical path are critical to the organization’s strategy. D. Because the activities on non-critical paths depend upon the activities on the critical path.
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Answer: A A is the correct answer because each activity on the critical path has a zero float time, and therefore if an activity is delayed it will delay the entire project. B, C, and D are incorrect because these are incorrect statements about the activities on the critical path.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 282. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=303 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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You estimate the duration of an activity as five days because an expert told you that it took five days to complete a similar activity in a previous project. Which of the following methods have you used for your activity duration estimate? A. Parametric estimating B. Expert judgment C. Analogous estimating D. Delphi technique
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because the analogous estimating technique estimates the duration of an activity based on the duration of a similar activity in a previous project. A is incorrect because parametric estimating uses parameters such as the productivity rate of the resource assigned to the activity. B is incorrect because the individual in this example used the analogous method and not the expert judgment method, even though he happened to be an expert. D is incorrect because the Delphi technique is used for risk identification, not for activity duration estimating, and also there are multiple experts involved in the Delphi technique.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 282. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=303 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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You have developed the schedule for your project and you’ve called the kickoff meeting. A team member who is responsible for an activity comes to you and tells you that the activity cannot be performed within the allocated time because some pieces were left out during activity definition. The revised estimate will add two more days to the activity duration, but the activity is not on the critical path. Which of the following actions will you take? A. Go to the team member’s functional manager and find out whether the team member’s estimate is correct. B. Accept the new estimate but do not change the schedule. C. Accept the new estimate and update the schedule accordingly. D. Put the new estimate through the integrated change control process. E. Ask for the replacement of the team member who is adding two more days to the already scheduled activity. F. Accept the change after consulting with the project sponsor.
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Answer: C C is correct because the team member is offering a valid reason for the change, and it does not affect the finish date of the project. However you must change the schedule to reflect the new duration estimate. A and F are incorrect because you do not need to consult with the functional manager or the project sponsor in making this decision because the team member is offering a valid reason for the change, and it does not affect the finish date of the project. B is incorrect because the schedule should reflect the current reality. Because you accepted the schedule change, the schedule must reflect it. D is incorrect because this change does not qualify to be processed through the integrated change control process. E is incorrect because the proposed change does not mean that the team member does not have the skills to perform the activity.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 282. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=303 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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The amount of time by which an activity can be delayed without changing the project finish date is called: A. Float time B. Lag time C. Grace time D. Activity gradient
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Answer: A A is the correct answer because float time is the positive difference between the allowed late start date and the early start date of a schedule activity, without changing the schedule finish date. B, C, and D are incorrect because these are not the valid terms used to describe delaying an activity without changing the schedule finish date.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 283. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=304 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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You are the project manager of a project that is running behind schedule. The project sponsor is very unhappy at the new finish date that you proposed, but he has accepted it. However, you also requested extra funds to support the extended time of work, and the sponsor has refused to supply more funds and is threatening to cancel the project if you cannot finish the project within the planned budget. What are your options? A. Crashing B. Fast tracking C. Asking the executive management for a new sponsor D. Speaking with the customer directly without involving the sponsor to see whether the customer can increase the budget E. Offering to complete some project activities yourself in your spare time
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because by doing some activities in parallel (fast tracking) you might be able to compress the schedule without adding cost. A is incorrect because crashing usually results in increased cost because it involves adding extra resources. C is incorrect because the project sponsor is sponsoring (paying for) the project. So, asking for a new sponsor does not make sense; it can only trigger the sponsor to ask for a new project manager. D is incorrect because you do not want to bypass the sponsor on budgetary matters because the budget will need the sponsor’s approval. E is incorrect because your role is of a project manager, and that’s what you should do. By performing the activities yourself, you might be stepping on other people’s toes— and, how many projects can you finish in time by applying this technique?
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 283. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=304 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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You use a three-point estimate for activity duration estimating. An activity has a duration of nine days for an optimistic scenario, 18 days for a pessimistic scenario, and 12 days for the most likely scenario. Which of the following will you take as the duration estimate for this activity? A. 13 days B. 13.5 days C. 12 days D. 18 days E. 9 days
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Answer: A A is the correct answer because in the three-point method the duration estimate is calculated as the average of the three values: (9 + 18 + 12) / 3 = 13. B is incorrect because the average should be taken of the three points, not just between the smallest and the largest number. C, D, and E are incorrect because the duration estimate is the average of the three points.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 284. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=305 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Which of the following is not an input item to the activity definition process? A. The WBS B. The activity duration C. The project scope statement D. The WBS dictionary
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Answer: B B is the correct answer because the activity duration is calculated after an activity has been defined. A, C, and D are incorrect because the WBS, project scope statement, and WBS dictionary are valid input items to the activity definition process.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 284. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=305 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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The management has asked you to produce a chart that depicts the resource needs for all the activities in the project. Which of the following charts is the management referring to? A. The project organizational chart B. The WBS C. The roles and responsibilities chart D. The responsibility assignment matrix
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Answer: D D is the correct answer because a chart that displays the resource requirements for each activity is an example of a resource assignment matrix (RAM). A is incorrect because a project organization chart represents the relationships between the different roles in the project, and that is not what the management wants. B is incorrect because the WBS contains the work packages, not the activities and the resource requirements. C is incorrect because the management wants the resource requirements for each activity, not just a list of roles and responsibilities.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 284. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=305 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Which of the following is not an output of the human resource planning process? A. A project organizational chart B. Roles and responsibilities C. A project schedule D. A staff management plan
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because the project schedule is the output of the schedule development process. A, B, and D are incorrect because all these items are the output of the human resource planning process.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 284. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=305 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
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Which of the following is a true statement about the staff management plan? A. It is created by the human resources department. B. It is a tool for team development. C. It is created by the project management team as an output of the human resource planning process. D. It is provided by the project sponsor.
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Answer: C C is the correct answer because the project manager (along with the project management team) is responsible for the staff management plan, and it is created as an output of the human resource planning process. A, B, and D are incorrect because these are the false statements about the staff management plan.
Course PTR Development Staff. PMP in Depth : Project Management Professional Study Guide for PMP and CAPM Exams. Boston, MA, USA: Course Technology, Incorporated, 2006. p 284. http://site.ebrary.com/lib/excelsior/Doc?id=10146622&ppg=305 Copyright © 2006. Course Technology, Incorporated. All rights reserved. |
