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159 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
where is the auerbach's (myenteric) plexus?
between outer longitudinal and inner circular mm.
what is the major neurotransmitter in the myenteric and submucosal plexus?
Nitric Oxide
what do vagal signals affect?
stomach peristalsis, acid, panc acinar & HCO3 secretion, GB contraction,

minimal effect on small intestine
what are the 3 major salivary glands?
paratid, submandibular, sublingual
what triggers saliva secretion?
both symp (T1-T3 sup. cervical gang) and parasymp (facial, glossopharyngeal)
what are the components of saliva?
alpha-amylase (digest starch)
bicarb (neutralize bact acid)
mucin (glycoproteins, lubricate)
where are parietal and chief cells found?
Fundis of stomach
name two GI hormone that belong to the same protein family
gastrin, CCK (identical C term, active region can bind each other's R)
what part of stomach is endocrine? exocrine?
endo: lower 1/3
exo: upper 2/3 (pepsin, HCl, IF etc)
where is gastric produced?
G cells, antrum of stomach
Is NO a secretalogue or abs stimulant?
secretalogue
Is ACh a secretalogue or abs stimulant?
secretalogue
Is NE/Epi a secretalogue or abs stimulant?
stim. net abs
what is the action of gastrin?
in. H+ secretion, in. gastric mucosa
what regulates gastric production?
increased by:
stomach distention, aa (esp trp and phe), peptides, vagal stim,
decreased by:
H+ secretion, and stomach pH <1.5
what makes CCK (cholecytokinin)?
I cells of duodenum, jej.
what does CCK do?
1. in. panc. secretion
2. in. GB contraction
3. inhibits gastric emptying
what triggers CCK production?
lumenal fat (C18>C16>C8) and aa from gastric chyme in duo (decreased by secretin and stomach pH < 1.5)
why in cholelithiasis, pain worsens after fatty food meal?
production of CCK -> squeezes GB
what makes secretin?
S cells of duodenum?
what does secretin do?
in. panc HCO3, inhibits gastric acid secretion
what triggers secretin production?
acid, fatty acids in duo lumen
what makes somatostatin?
D cells in pancreatic islet; GI mucosa
what does somatostatin do?
increases Na reabs

inhibits:
1. acid and pepsinogen secretion
2. panc. and small intestine fluid secretion
3. GB contraction
4. release of insulin/glucagon
5. de. gastrin, CCK, secretin, VIP, GIP
what regulates somatostatin?
increased by acid;
inhibited by vagus
what are octreotide, lanreotide?
long-lasting somatostatin mimic, for carcinoid syndrome (e.g. VIPoma)
what makes GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide)?
K cells in duo and jej
function of GIP?
exocrine: decrease H+ secretion and peristalsis
endocine: increase insulin release
what do parietal cells secret?
intrinsic factor, gastric acid
what do chief cells secret?
pepsinogen, gastric lipase,
what happens when there's autoimmune destruction of parietal cells?
de. IF -> anemia
what triggers stomach acid production?
increase:
histamine, ACh, gastrin
decrease:
somatostatin, GIP, PGs
what's the optimal pH for pepsin?
1-3 (pepsin digest 15% of total protein)
what secrets bicarbonate in the gut?
musocal cells (together with mucus) in stomach and duodenum;
stimulated by secretin
What is the pathophys of cholera?
cholera toxin -> ADP-ribosylation of alpha-s subunit of GM1-ganglioside receptor of enterocyte luminal membrane (Gprotein R) -> const. active -> in. cAMP -> + anion secretion, - Na reabs -> diarrhea
(same for E.Coli heat-liable toxin)
What is the pathophys of pertussis toxin
ADP ribosylate alpha-i subunit -> INACTIVATION of G-protein R -> cAMP+++ -> + anion secretion, - Na reabs -> diarrhea
What is guanylin? what bacterial toxin is implicated?
gut hormone, binds guanylin R on gut epithelium -> receptor guanylate cyclase -> GTP to cGMP -> + anion secretion, - Na reabs -> diarrhea
(same with E.Coli heat stable enterotoxin (STa)
(NO stim. soluble GC)
what is an effective treatment for bacterial diarrhea?
treat with nutrient (e.g. glucose, aa) + electrolyte + H2O
nut-coupled Na transport not dependent on cAMP or cGMP, not affected by cholera, pertussis or E.Coli toxins.
what is the major transporter for acidic a.a. (glu, gln, asp)
none, used in energy metab as fuel for small intestine
what is the relationship between cholera and cystic fibrosis?
CF may give immunity to cholera & add + selection, cos CF has defective Cl- channels (targetted by cholera toxins)
how are peptides/aa taken up in jejunum?
as di/tri-peptides, cotransport with H+
how are peptides/aa taken up in ileum?
as single aa by membrane transporters, some Na-dep, some thru facilitated diffusion
how common is celiac disease?
~1 in 200 (atrophy of villi in prox. sm. bowel in rxn to gluten -> gliadin -> immune rxn)
what are the two sphincters for the esophagus?
1. cricopharyngeal sphincter
2. LES (lower eso sphnicter)
muscle distribution in esophagus?
upper 1/3: striated
middle 1/3: mixed
lower 1/3: smooth
What happens when LES is too tight?
too loose?
too tight: achalasia
too loose: reflux esophagitis
what is the action of NO on the gut?
sm. mm. relaxation, e.g. relaxes LES
what two factors relaxes LES?
NO, VIP
what is receptive relaxation? what mediates it?
upper 1/3 of stomach (reservoir), on reception of food, relaxes, reg. by vagal n.
what is antral systole?
when food passes stomach antrum, increase pyloric sphincter tone (rigid but partially open) so that small food can pass, big food reflux back for further churning
where is iron reabsorbed in the gut?
in proximal duodenum
where is folate reabsorbed in the gut?
distal duodenum
where is B12 and bile salts reabsorbed in the gut?
distal ileum
where is short-chain fatty acids reabs in the gut?
cecum
(T/F) gut sm mm. myosin light chain needs phosphorylation to interact with actin to cause contraction
TRUE
what activates phosphorylation of myosin light chain in gut sm mm.?
Ca/Calmodulin -> activates MLC kinase -> P myosin light chain
what factors inhibit gastric emptying/acid secretion?
CCK, GIP, fat, secretin, VIP
what is the action of VIP and where is it secreted?
secreted by sm mm. and nerves of intestines;
relaxes intestinal sm mm, cause pancreatic HCO3 secretion and inhibits gastric H+, relaxes LES, cause vasodilation (secretalogue)
what is the effect of parasympathetics (ACh)
inc. saliva, gastric H+, panc enz and HC03, simulates enteric nervous system to create intestinal peristalsis and relaxes sphincters.
what is the effect of sympathetics (NE)
inc. saliva, dec. splanchnic blood flow, motility, constricts sphincters
what is migrating motor complex (MMC)?
during fasting and b/w meals, ~90 min intervals, gut peristalsis to clear for the next meal (phase I: no spike; II: irreg spikes; III: reg spikes)
t/f. the MMC is regulated by vagus`
FALSE. it's autonomic
what is basic electrical rhythm?
pacemaker, not affected by hormones, baseline determining max freq of contractions, but does not determine actual contraction freq
t/f. basic electrical rhythm decreases from proximal to distal in small intestine, and inc. from prox to distal in colon
true
what stimulates MMC?
motilin, opioid, somatostatin
what inhibits MMC?
meal (gastrin, CCK)
what is spike potential?
on top of BER, affected by hormones and neurotransmitters, determines actual contraction of gut sm mm.
t/f. Symp (Epi/NE) stimulates spike potential; parasym (ACh) inhibits spike potential.
FALSE. reverse is true.
t/f. small bowel is leakier
true (prox to distal dec. in permeability)
what parasym plexus innervates the gut? symp?
parasymp: vagal and pelvic (distal colon and rectum)
symp:celiac, SM, IM
what happens when LES is too loose? too tight?
reflux esophagitis; achalasia
what happens when antral systole is too loose? too tight?
dumping syndrome (vaso-vagal discharge with hypertension);
gastroparesis (usu. diabetic w/ neuropathy, impaired/no gastric motility and delayed emptying)
describe the three phases of gastric digestion
cephalic phase, 30-40%, chewing etc -> vagus -> gastrin and H+
gastric phase, 50%, distension, luminal peptides/aa -> vagus -> gastrin/H+
intestinal phase: 10%, gastric chyme distention and aa -> acid
describe the 3 phases of pancreatic exocrine digestion
1. cephalic: 50%, smell etc -> vagal -> ductular + acinar
2. gastric: distention, aa -> vagal -> gastrin -> acinar
3. intestinal: lum. fat (C18>12>8), gastric chyme -> CCK, secretin -> vagal -> acinar + ductular
t/f. CCK acts via vagal stimulations
true
what't the major inhibitor of gastric acid secretion?
somatostatin
gastric luminal fat triggers production of what factors?
GIP, somatostatin, VIP
t/f. proton pumps in parietal cells are always present on apical side
false. they're stored in tubulovesicles at rest, and fuse with luminal membrane when stimulated
describe acid secretion in parietal cells
apical side:
H/K ATPase: H out, K in;
K recycled out through: K/Cl channel
H+ comes from H2CO3, which also gives HCO3-, which goes out through:
basolateral side:
HCO3-/Cl- antiporter
what is omeprazole?
proton pump inhibitor
(subsituted benzimidazole: acid changes to sulfonamide (rxn w/ cysteine thiol groups) -> bind luminal domains of alpha unit of pump to inhibit ATPase)
what receptors stimulate gastric acid secretion on basolateral side and give some antagonists.
histamine (cAMP): ranitidine, cimetidine, famotidine
ACh (PIP2): anticholinergics
gastrin (PIP2): no clinically useful inhibitor
prostaglandin: misoprostol (PGI2, PGE2 stimulates receptor)
what are some remedies for stomach ulcer?
proton pump inhibitors
anti histamines
anti cholinergics
PG receptor antagonist (misoprostol)
antacids and coating agents (sucralfate, CBS)
what are the different cell types of gastric (oxyntic) gland?
surface/neck mucus cells (mucus, HCO3)
endocrine cells
cheif cells (pepsinogen, gastric lipase)
histamine mast cells (regulate pepsin and acid)
pareital cells (HCl and IF)
what factors stimulate chief cell pepsinogen release (pepsinogen granules on apical surface)
thru PIP2:
gastrin, CCK, GIP
thru AC:
secretin, VIP, PG(E), beta-agonist
group the following:
trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidase

with:
endopeptidase, exopeptidase, basic aa, aromatic aa, alipathic aa, C-term bonds
endopep:
trypsin - basic
chymo - aromatic
elastase - alipathic

exopep:
carboxypeptidase - C-terminal bonds
what different cell types are there in intestinal cells?
villus:
columlar polarized epi
mucus/goblet cells
crypt:
mucosal endocrine
Paneth cells -> defensin (anti microb)

3-5 days turnover from crypt to apoptosis at tip
choose:
intestinal villus cells:
BB hydrolase: high/low
nut. trans.: high/low
net absorption/secretion
permeability: high/low

do the same for crypt cells
villus:
BB hydrolase: high
nut. trans.: high
net absorption
permeability: low

crypt:
BB hydrolase: low
nut. trans.: low
net secretion
permeability: high
what increase aggressive factors for stomach ulcer?
(aggressive factors: acid, pepsin)
nicotin, gastric acid, NSAIDs, H pylori (cause inflammation, stimulate acid secretion)

* H pylori survives stomach acid through urease H + NH3 -> NH4, buffer acidity
what decrease protective factors for stomach ulcer?
(protective factors: mucus, bicarb)
NSAIDs (inhibits arachidonate, which inhibits mucus, HCO3, cos PGE&F stimulate mucus release),
H pylori
bile acids
what are the different pancreatic enzymes?
alpha amylase
lipase, phospholipase A, colipase
proteases (trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidases)
what converts trypsinogen to active trypsin?
enterokinase/enteropeptidase, a duodenal BB enzyme.
what activates zymogens of chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidases etc?
trypsin (trypsin also activates more trypsinogen)
wot common digestive problem do CF patients have?
panc insufficiency (thick mucus -> self digestion of panc by panc enzymes); malabsorption, steatorrhea (fatty stool), poor intake of fat-soluble vitamins
dorsal and ventral pancreas (development): which part is which?
body, tail, part head/uncinate: dorsum
part head/uncinate, bile duct: ventral (main conduit)
what triggers zymogen granule release in acinar cells in pancreas?
thru IP3 -> NO -> cGMP -> PKs:
ACh (major), CCK, bombesin, substance P

thru AC/cAMP-> PKs:
secretin, VIP
> how many grams of stool a day is considered diarrhea?
200g
sucrase and what is 1 gene, cleaved post-translationally?
isomaltase; cleaved by trypsin, but still non-covalently connected on BB membrane.
what glucose linkages do amylose and amylopectin have?
amylose: alpha 1-4 only
amylopectin: alpha 1-4 and 1-6
amylase digest what glucose linkage?
alpha 1-4, to give maltose, maltotriose, alpha-limit dextran (amylopectin)
in neonates, panc. amylase not well developed. what's important for digesting sugars?
salivary amylase
pancreatic amylase digests starch to what?
oligosaccharides, maltose, maltoriose
(only monosaccharides are absorbed)
t/f. lactase drops to 10% neonatal amount by 5-10 years
true
oligosaccharide hydrolases are present where? include what?
at BB of intestine (rate-limiting step in carb digestion)
sucrase, lactase, trehalase (digest trehalose in mushrooms)
how do the following enzymes break alpha-limit dextrans?
glucoamylase, isomaltase, sucrase
glucoamylase: alpha 1-4
isomaltase: alpha 1-6
sucrase: maltose and maltosetriose to glucose
jaundice results from what?
elevated bilirubin levels
what is bilirubin?
product of heme metabolism
match:
GLUT5, SGLT1, GLUT2

apical, basolateral, fructose, glucose, galactose, a.a.
GLUT5: fructose, apical
SGLT1: glucose/Na+ symport, apical

GLUT2: basolateral: fructose, galactose, glucose

a.a. have their own Na-coupled transporter on apical side, and transporter on basolateral side.

(3Na/2K ATPase on basolateral side to create gradient)
what is kernicterus?
mother-fetus blood mismatch -> inc. hemolysis, inc. bilirubin -> jaundice
what is breast-milk jaundice?
in fetus, beta-glucoronidase deconj bili -> reabs for clearance by placenta. breast milk has glucoronidase
give the heme degradation pathway
in spleen:
heme -> (heme oxygenase) biliverdin -> (biliverdin reductase) bilirubin

in liver (bound to cytosolic ligandin and Z-proteins after facilitated diffusion uptake)
bilirubin conjugated to glucoronide (bilirubin UDP glucoronosyl-transferase) -> excreted into bile -> colon bact conversion to urobilinogen -> feces, or small fraction enterohepatic circulation or UB
what happens to urobilinogen after enterohepatic circulation?
some re-excreted in bile, some renal excretion
urobilinogen -> (oxidation) urobilin (yellow colour in urine/stool)
what are the properties of conj. vs unconj. bilirubin?
conj:
soluble, non-toxic, cannot be reabs in GI

unconj:
insoluble, reabs in GI, toxic, can cross BBB (esp in neonates where BBB is think) -> inhibits RNA syn and carb metab (neonatal kernicterus)
with bile duct obstruction, can u detect urobilinogen in urine? in stool?
none in both.
(none in urine cos need to go through enterohepatic circulation (bilirubin converted to UB only in gut). bili in bile cannot flow to gut -> no UB made)
with cholestasis, what becomes major site of clearnace for conjugated bilirubin? how?
kidneys.
unconj. bilirubin bound avidly to albumin, cannot be filtered out in kidneys.
but some conj. bilirubin are not bound to albumin, and glom. filterated, but may form bilirubin gallstones.
what causes conj. hyperbilirubinaemia? name two disorders
defect in cannicular transport
dublin johnson (pigment in hepatic lysosome)
rotor's (no pigment)
what causes unconj. hyperbilirubinemia?
inc. rbc hemolysis (mom-fetal incompatible); defective conjugation (e.g. def. bilirubin UDP glucoronyl transferase)

gilbert (partial UDPGT activity, benign until fasting/stressed)
crigler-najjar syndrome:
type I: complete loss -> death
II: partial loss
what are some therapeutic strategies for unconj. hyperbilirubinemia?
1. phenobartital -> inc. UDPGT
2. freq feeding (dec. enterohepatic circulation)
3. phototheraphy (inc. solubility of unconj. bili -> inc. excretion in urine) (esp in neonates cos small mass:surface ratio)
4. exchange fusion
5. bili binders (e.g. agar)
what's phase I detoxification?
redox and hydrolysis:
make polar and soluble
can make toxic intermediate
P450-dep monooxygenase
what is phase II detox?
conjugation:
inc. solubility:
1. glucoronide
2. sulfation
dec. solubility:
3. methylation
describe acetaminophen detox pathway
most: conj. to sulfate and glucoronate;
5-15%: P450-dep -> NAPQI -> conj to GSH -> mercapturic acid -> eliminate in kidneys
NAPQI electrophilic, can rxt with sulfhydryl gps (covalent) -> necrosis (happens when GSH is depleted)
why are alcoholics more susceptible to acetaminophen toxicity?
alcoholics:
1. induction of P450 (makes more NAPQI)
2. depletion of GSH (cannot conj NAPQI to make mercapturic acid for elim in kidneys)
how do you treat acetaminophen toxicity?
treat with N-acetyl-cystein, which is a precursor for GSH -> inc. conj. of NAPQI.
how do you treat patients with mutated MTTP (microsomal triglycerides transport protein)?
no MTTP: cannot take up fatty acids on basolateral side.
can give medium-chain TG (hydrolysed by lipase more rapidly and more soluble, diffuse directly across lumenal cells into portal blood)
how are long-chain triglycerides digested and absorbed?
lumen:
emulsify -> lipolysis (lipases) -> solubilize -> diffuse
musocal:
1. uptake (binding proteins for free f.a. and 2-monoglycerides)
2. transport to smooth ER
3. TG resynthesis from f.a.
4. package into chylomicrons (MTTP-dep)
5. export chylo to lymphatics on basolateral side (MTTP-dep)

*MTTP = microsomal TG transport protein
what protein do you test for general liver function?
albumin (55-60% of all plasma protein), made by liver, hydrophilic, bind and transport hydrophobic proteins
how is liver portal venous pressure measured?
indirectly by wedged hepatic VP;
hep. VP gradient = WHVP - free HVP (or IVC pressure)

normal should be low since hep. portal venous blood flow is very low and constant
what are the values of HVPG and PVP for portal hypertension
normal hep. venous pressure gradient (=WHVP - free HVP/IVC P) should be very low (since blood flow in portal system is low and constant)

portal HT: > 5 mmHg HVPG or > 12 mmHg portal venous pressure (measured by wedged hep. VP)
t/f. inc. portal vascular resistance or inc. inflow -> portal hypertension
true
what are the different types of portal hypertension?
prehepatic (e.g. portal vein thrombosis)
intrahepatic (e.g. cirrhosis)
post hepatic (e.g. IVC obstruction)
what happens to blood vessels in the portal system when there is portal hypertension?
portosystemic collaterals form (eso, abd, stomach, periumbillical area, rectum) -> variceal bleeding
what are the complications of portal HT?
1. splenomegaly and hypersplenism -> sequestration of rbc, wbc and platelets -> low platelet count
2. variceal bleeding
3. heptaic encephalopathy (cos build up ammonia -> CSF glutamine, also trp metab and GABA-like stuff)
4. ascites (liver and intestinal lymph), favored by hypoalbuminemia (often in cirrhosis)
what are the characteristics of liver cirrhosis?
1. collagen deposition
2. inc. cell dize
3. regenerative nodules
4. contraction of myofibroblasts
where is ammonia metabolized? what is it metabolized to? why is it toxic?
in liver, to urea (mainly from glutamate).
NH3 can cross BBB, esp toxic to glial cells
t/f liver uses mainly carbs as fuel
false: prefers fatty acids.
what is the pathology of CF? what are the related symptoms?
defective Cl- channel, thick mucus, high Cl- in sweat, intestinal obstruction, panc duct blocked, acinar cells atrophy/self-destruction, poor digestion, lung infections
what is diabetic diarrhea?
adrenergic neuropathy due to reduced blood flow -> inc. anion secretion and reduced Na reabsorption
how do u treat diabetic diarrhea?
treat with alpha2 adrenergic R agonist (e.g. clonidine) or Octreotide (somatostatin analog, stim. net absorption)
what is celiac disease?
autoimmune rxn to gliadin (short peptide undigestable from gluten_ -> villi atrophy -> dec. CCK, gastrin, secretin
what is increased urine amylase diagnostic of?
pancreatitis
mix and match:
hartnup's disease, cystinuria, lysinuric proterin intolerance.

dibasic a.a., cationic a.a. ,
neutral a.a.,(basolateral or lumenal?)
hartnup's: neutral a.a. on lumenal
cystinuria: dibasic a.a. on lumenal (Cys, Ornithine, Lys, Arg (COLA)
lysinuric PI: cationic a.a. on basolateral (OLA)
excess cystein from cystinuria can result in what? treat with what?
kidney stones. treat with acetazolamide to alkalize urine
what is more severe? cystinuria, hartnup's or lysinuric prot. intolerence?
lysinuric protein intolerance (def transport for cationic aa (lys, arg, orn) at basolateral side. (for the other two, def. lumenal transporters,but di/tri-peptides can be taken up and broken down intracellularly and transported through basolateral transporters, mutated in LPI)
what are the effects of increased short-chain fatty acids (diet carb digested by colon flora and bact)
inc. NHE
preferred fuel for colonocytes
inc. mucosal proliferation
inc. Na abs
t/f
inc aldosterone leads to:
prox colon: inc. Na pump/ PD-dep Na channel
distal colon: inc. NHE
false, reverse
what is the compensatory mech for small bowel resection or disease?
inc. villi width and height, inc. Na abs by inc. NHE
diff. bile acid-dep flow vs b.a.-indep flow (both -> canalicular)
b.a.-dep: active trans of b.a., electrolytes follow;
indep: active trans of electrolytes

--> canalicular, rate limiting
what are the components of bile acid secretion?
bile acid-dep flow, bile acid-indep flow -> canalicular;
ductular secretion (stim. by secretin via cAMP):
1. inc. Cl-/HCO3- -> lumen neg and alkaline -> Na and H20 outflow
2. Cl- channel open to fill lumen with Cl-
give examples of bile acids metabolism disorders (reasons for inadequate b.a. for digestion of fat)
1. cholestasis (bile flow failure)
2. ileal resection
3. bact outgrowth (decong. -> readily reabs b.a. -> dec. in gut -> malabs and toxi decong. b.a.)
t/f
f.a. absorption: rate limiting = diffusion of micelles thru "unstirred H20 layer"
true. (lower pH near plasma membrane -> f.a. protonated -> more soluble)
what converts cholecterol to bile salts?
7alpha hydroxylase (rate limiting, bile salts feedback inhibit both 7a and HMG CoA reductase)
dietary fat absorption is ?% efficient?
95% !!!
bile acids conjugated to __ and __ to make them charged to increase solubility?
taurine and glycine
liver lobule vs hepatic acinus
lobule: central vein in center, triad at corner (hep artery, portal vein, bile duct)

acinus: triad at center, zone 1-3, 1 most regen and resistant to hypoxia
what's the main function of gall bladder?
store and concentrate bile (by extracting water)
what is primary vs secondary bile salts?
primary: cholate and chenodeoxycholate
secondary: after bacterial deconj. (-> primary via reabs, reconj. in liver)
-> tertiary ursodeoxycholate (more soluble, used as med to inc. bile flow for ppl with small stone)
where and how is bile reabs?
>90% reabs via apical Na-dep bile transporter (ASBT) in ielum
what are the 3 different types of lipases?
sepcific for TG
1. gastric (hydrolyse f.a. at 3 position)
2. panc (hydrolyse at 1 and 3 position)

also for acylglycerols, chol esters, vit esters, phospholipids:
3. bile-salt activated, made by panc (e.g. phospholipase A2, chol esterase)
t/f
gastric lipase requires co-lipase but panc lipases do not
false. panc lipase requires co-lipase, which binds and displace bile salts coating surface of oil droplets, which inhibit binding of panc lipase
t/f
panc lipase is at large excess, >90% must be lost before u see fatty stool
true