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119 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What constitutes plasma?
Whole blood - cells and platelets
What constitutes serum?
Plasma - coag. factors
What plasma protein is 60% of plasma protein and 80% of colloid osmotic pressure, and aids in the dissolution of substances in plasma?
Albumin
What form of hemoglobin is in the fetal blood?
Hemoglobin type F
What is significant about hemoglobin type F?
It has a greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin
What chain of hemoglobin is affected by Sickel cell?
Beta-Chain
What is the term for reduced oxygen delivery to the tissues?
Anemia
What type of anemia is caused by internal blood loss, inadequate absorption of Fe, loss of Fe stores, or abnormalities in Fe utilization?
Fe-deficiency anemia
What type of anemia is due to acute or chronic blood loss?
Hemorrhagic anemias
What type of anemia is caused by a deficiency of folic acid and/or cobalamin?
Megaloblastic anemia
What type of anemia is caused by an autoimmune disease that attacks the stomach cells producing the intrinsic factor?
Pernicious anemia
What is the erythrocyte maturation factor?
B12 + Intrinsic Factor
Radiation and cytotoxic drugs often cause what type of anemia?
Aplastic anemia
What type of anemia occurs when the rate of RBC destruction is greater than the capacity of the marrow to replace the cells?
Hemolytic anemia
What is the term for excessive production of all blood cells produced in the marrow?
Polycythemia vera
What is pus made up of?
Dying neutrophils
How is coagulation formed?
Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by thrombin to make a mesh-like network
What is the inability of blood to properly clot?
Hemophilia
What is the deficiency in Hemophilia A?
Deficiency of Factor VIII
What is the deficiency in Hemophilia B?
Deficiency in factor IX
What is the deficiency in Hemophilia C?
Deficiency in Factor XI
What is required by the liver for synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Vitamin K
What group of small proteins has anti-viral activities?
Interferons
What cells are primarily responsible for the cell mediated immune response?
Macrophages and T-Cells
Where can Class I MHC molecules be found?
On the surface of all nucleated cells in the body
Where can Class II MHC molecules be found?
On the surface of some cells of the immune system (CD4+ cells)
What are two types of functional CD8+ cells?
Cytotoxic T Cells
Supressor T Cells
What are two types of functional CD4+ cells?
Helper T Cells
Memory T Cells
What do CD4+ TH1 cells secrete which activate macrophages?
IFN-Gamma
Which immunoglobulin accounts for 70-75% of all immunoglobulins?
IgG
What is the principal antibody found in saliva, milk, tears, and fluids secreted into genitourinary and digestive tracts?
IgA
What Ig is present on the plasma membrane of many circulating B lymphocytes?
IgD
What Ig stimulates basophils and mast cells to release histamine and other chemicals of the allergic response?
IgE
What cells are involved in antibody-mediated immune response?
B-Lymphocytes with assistance from T4 helper cells
What molecules stimulate the activated B lymphocytes to differentiate into and clone plasma cells and memory B cells?
IL-4
IL-5
IL-10
What molecule secreted by the macrophage stimulates CD4+ cells to develop into a helper T cell?
IL-1
Which side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary circulation?
Right side
What is the capacitance and pressure of arteries?
Low Capacitance
High Pressure
What is the capacitance and pressure of veins?
High Capacitance
Low Pressure
What determines blood pressure?
Vascular blood volume and
Capacitance
What is the flow in the cardiovascular system determined by?
The pressure difference between two points in the system and the resistance to flow between them
What segment of the vascular system has a negative pressure in mm Hg?
Veins (Downstream End) when they enter the thoracic cavity
How does blood flow in the heart?
From Right Atrium to Right Ventricle to Pulmonary circulation

Then flows from left atrium to left ventricle into systemic circulation
What is the rhythmic contraction of the heart dependent upon?
The rhythmic generation of electrical activity by pacemaker cells
Where are the cells which normally pace the heart found?
Sinoatrial (SA) node
What is the initial phase of spontaneous depolarization?
Phase 4 (diastolic depolarization)
What does diastolic depolarization initiate?
Phase 0 (Rapid upstroke of the action potential)
What follows Phase 0 (SA Node)?
Phase 3 (Spontaneous repolarization phase)
Which ions are involved in Phase 4 (SA Node)?
Na, Ca
Which ions are involved in Phase 0 (SA Node)?
Ca
Which ions are involved in Phase 3 (SA Node)?
K
How is heart rate changed?
By the changing of the slope of phase 4 of the SA node
What does a decrease in ongoing parasympathetic nervous system activity do to heart rate?
It increases it
What is the normal route of the conduction of action potentials through the myocardium?
Initiation at <i>SA node</i>
Conduction (rapid) through atrium to <i>AV node</i>
Conduction (slowly) through AV node leading to <i> excitation of Bundle of His </i>
Excitation of Perkinje fibers conduct (rapidly) to apex and base of the heart, and from cell to cell via gap junctions.
What function of the cardiac muscle ensures that it cannot be tetanized?
The prolonged refractory period of ventricular cardiac muscle cells relative to the mechanical phase
What is a record of the electrical activity of the heart recorded from the surface of the body?
Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
What produces the P wave of the standard lead I?
Conduction of electrical activity through the atria
What produces the T wave of the standard lead I?
Repolarization of the ventricle
What causes the QRS complex of the standard lead I?
Depolarization of the ventricles
What phase does an open current channel of I(f) correspond to?
Phase 4 (SA node)
During which phase of the SA node is the I(si) channel open?
Phase 0
What ion channel is open during Phase 3 of the SA node's action potential?
I(k)
What is the SV (Stroke Volume) equal to?
The difference between EDV (End diastolic volume) and ESV (End Systolic Volume)
What is used to evaluate the competence of the heart and what is its normal value?
Ejection Fraction (EF = SV/EDV)
Normally @ 0.67
What is the first heart sound associated with?
The closure of the mitral valve
What wave of the ECG marks the beginning of systole and phase 3 of the cardiac cycle?
R wave
What is the Phase 3 of the cardiac cycle referred to because the volume of the ventricular chamber does not change?
isovolumetric contraction
What event produces a T wave in the ECG?
The repolarization of the ventricular fibers
What is the phase 4 of the cardiac cycle often referred to?
The ejection phase
What is the first phase of ventricular diastole in the cardiac cycle?
Phase 5
What is Phase 5 of the cardiac cycle often referred to because the ventricular volume does not change during this phase?
Isovolumetric relaxation phase
Which phase of the cardiac cycle is the period of rapid ventricular filling and starts with the opening of the mitral valve?
Phase 6
What event produces a P wave in the ECG?
The SA node initiating the depolarization of the atrial muscle fibers
What event causes the R wave in the ECG?
The electrical activity conducting through the purkinje fibers and into non-specialized ventricular muscle
What causes the Q wave on the ECG?
The conduction of electrical activity through the AV node and bundle of His
What is the term for the rate at which the heart pumps blood from veins to arteries?
Cardiac Output
What is the product of stroke volume and heart rate?
Cardiac Output
How can the cardiac output be increased?
Increasing EDV
Decreasing ESV
Increasing HR
What effect does an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity to the SA node have on the heart rate?
Increases heart rate
(T/F) Excessive changes in heart rate decrease cardiac output.
True, Large increases in HR decrease EDV significantly
What intrinsic mechanism for regulating SV states the increases in EDV will increase SV?
Frank-Starling Law of the Heart
Which system determines EDV?
Vascular System
What are the major determinants of energy consumption of working hearts?
Heart rate
Arterial Blood Pressure
Where does exchange of material between blood and tissues take place?
Capillaries
What is the reservoir of blood at high pressure?
Arteries
What is the reservoir of blood at low pressure?
Veins and Venules
What feature of arteries and veins produces pressure?
Elastic Tissue (The stretching of elastic tissue produces pressure)
What is the total peripheral resistance?
Resistance to flow between the aorta and right atrium
Where does the pressure drop most when traversing the circulatory system?
When going through the <i>arterioles</i>, because arteriole resistance is high
What is equal to systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure?
Pulse pressure
What can be used to measure blood flow?
Mean arterial pressure
How is mean arterial pressure calculated?
Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Pulse Pressure)
How is resistance to flow related to he radius of the arterioles?
Resistance to flow is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the radius
What is the response of vascular arteriole muscle to stretch?
Myogenic control
What is arteriole dilation produced by metabolic products that are generated by tissue activity?
Active hyperemia
What are products that can be released to relax arterioles?
Histamine
Prostaglandins
Products of Endothelial Cells
What is the neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system that binds to alpha receptors and causes contraction of vascular smooth muscle?
Norepinephrine
What is the neurotransmitter that binds to beta-2 receptors and causes relaxation, dilation, of vascular smooth muscle?
Epinephrine
What effect does Angiotensin-II have on the arterioles?
It is a potent vasoconstrictor of arterioles
What effect does atrial natriuretic peptide have on the vascular system?
It is a potent vasodilator
What vessel controls the flow of blood to the capillaries?
Arterioles
What is the term for switching of blood flow from one capillary to another?
vasomotion
What lies between the capillary and the cells which the capillary nourishes?
Interstitium
What are the forces producing filtration and reabsorption?
Hydrostatic pressures
Oncotic pressures (osmotic pressure due to proteins)
What does a positive Q (net flow across the capillary wall) mean?
A net filtration of fluid out of the capillaries
Why do veins have large capacitances?
Because of their very thin walls
What determines end diastolic volume?
Venous pressure and the blood volume returned to heart
What function does the negative pressure in the thorax have on venous return?
It increases venous return by increasing the pressure gradient between veins in the thorax and outside the thorax
What exerts the major short term control of arterial blood pressure?
Baroreceptor Reflex
What change in arterial pressure would increase baroreceptor firing rate?
An increase in arterial pressure
How is long term control of blood pressure achieved?
Adjusting blood volume (kidneys, renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)
What is the slowest response of the system to hemmorhage?
The decrease in the rate at which sodium is lost in urine
What are three sources that provide energy to muscles via anaerobic pathways?
ATP
Phosphocreatine (regenerate ATP)
Glycogen-lactic acid system
What types of nutrients are oxidized during high intensity exercise?
Carbohydrates initially, then fatty acids later
What nutrients are oxidized to regenerate ATP during moderate exercise?
Fatty acids preferentially
What is the principle cause of the increase in cardiac output during exercise?
The large decrease in total peripheral resistance caused by the decrease in resistance to flow through the exercising muscle
If the left heart fails, where would an increase in venous pressure take place?
In the pulmonary venous system
What does an increase in blood volume and venous pressure produce?
Edema
Pulmonary edema is often the result of what?
Left heart failure