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576 Cards in this Set

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As result of hyperventilation, CO2 is decreased in blood levels. True/False
True.The pH of body fluids tend to increase.. Above 7.45 the result is respiratory alkalosis.
What is one of the easiest ways to spot heat stroke?
If the skin is flushed due to the increase of blood flow but dry because the sweat glands have stopped secreting, the patient requires immediate medical attention.
Much exercise tends to cause acidic urine. True/False
True. Also if you hyperventilate, the kidneys will counteract the alkalinity by adding hydrogen ions into the blood stream.
Why do some cells become multinucleated?
If a cell becomes too large, the normal cellular amount of DNA may not be adequate to keep the cell supplied with RNA. Large cells tend to replicate their chromosomes to an abnormally high amount or become multinucleated.
Regarding cells, what is the difference between peripheral and integral proteins?
Peripheral proteins attach loosely to the inner or outer surface of the plasma membrane.
Integral proteins lie across the membrane extending from inside to outside.
What is meant by the fluid mosiac model?
A variety of proteins are scattered throughout the flexible matrix of phospholipid molecules, like icebergs floating in the ocean.
Is the phospholipid bilayer of the cell selectively permeable?
Yes. Only small uncharged polar molecules can pass freely across the membrane. Some of these molecules are water and CO2 hydrophobic(nonpolar) molecules like O2 and lipid soluble molecules such as hydrocarbons.
What are recognition proteins?
These are proteins that distinguish the identity of neighboring cells. These proreins have oligosaccharide or short polysaccharide chains extending out from their cell surface.
What is meant by bulk flow?
It is the collective movement of substances in the same direction in response to a force such as pressure.
Transport proteins in the plasma membrane transfer what type of substances?
They transfer solutes such as small ions, Na, Cl,K, H+, amino acids and monosaccharides.
Wht are some protein pumps called ATPase enzymes?
Protein pumps are catalysts in the splitting of ATP to ADP + phosphate.
What is Cystic fibrosis?
It is a genetic disorder that results in a misshapen chloride ion pump. By not regulating Cl levels properly, the cells produce a thick mucus.
Certain hormones are able to target specific cells by receptor mediated endocytosis. True/False
Microfilaments provide mechanical support for the cell, determine the cell shape and in some cases enable cell movements. True/False
What is cellular chromatin?
DNA is spread out within the nucleus as a threadlike matrix called chromatin condenses into rod shaped bodies called chromosomes, each of which is made up of 2 long DNA molecules.
What is the function of histones?
The histones serve to organize the lengthy DNA coiling it into bundles called nucleosomes.
What makes mitochondrial organelles somewhat unique?
They have their own mitochondrial DNA separate from the DNA in the nucleus.
What is rough endoplasmic retuculum?
RER has a characteristic bumpy appearance due to the multitude of ribosomes coating it. It is the site where proteins not destined for the cytoplasm are synthesized.
What are peroxisomes?
Organelles in which O2 is used to oxidize substances breaking down lipids and detoxifying certain chemicals. They are common in liver and renal cells.
What are the three types of cell junctions recognized?
Tight junctions
Gap junctions
What is the total quantity of ATP in the human body at any one time?
0.1 mole. The energy used by human cells requires the hydrolysis of 200-300 moles of ATP daily.
During a single day ATP is recycled 2-3000 times. It cannot be stored.
A single cell uses app. 10 million molecules of ATP per second to meet its metabolic needs. True/False
True. All ATP molecules are recycled every 20-30 seconds.
What is FAD?
Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide. When 2 H+ atoms are bonded, FAD is reduced to FADH2 and converted into an energy molecule.
The hydride and the proton ion are the 2 equivalents of hydrogen.
What is NADH?
Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide.
NAD and NADP(phosphate) are 2 important cofactors found in cells.
NAD is the reduced form of NADH and NAD+ is the oxidized form of NADH.
What is cellular respiration?
It is the energy releasing process by which sugar molecules are broken down by a series of reactions and the chemical energy gets converted to energy stored in ATP molecules.
What is the glycolytic pathway?
Also known as glycolysis, it is where glucose the smallest molecule that a carbohydrate can be broken down into digestion gets oxidized and broken into 2 3 carbon molecules referred to as pyruvates. These are then fed into the Kreb's cycle.
There are 20 duifferent kinds of amin o acids used by the body. True/False
Primary. This structure is the sequence of amino acids bonded in the ploypeptide.
Secondary, Hydrogen bonds exist between amino acids. Can form a pleated sheet.
What is a tertiary protein?
This structure refers to the 3 dimensional folding of the helix or pleated sheet.
Quartenary- This structure refers to the spatial relationship among the polypeptides in the protein.
What are the 4 types of glands in the integumentary system?
Can melanocytes absorb harmful UV rays?
yes. They also contain DNA repair enzymes which reverse UV damage, and some people lack these genes and suffer higher rates of skin cancer.
The outermost epidermis consists of stratified what?
Stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium with an underlying basement membrane. Keratinocytes mostly make up the epidermis, with melenocytes and Langerhans cells also present.
The dermis is made up of irregular type of fibrous connective tissue that consists of what type of fibers?
Collagen and elastin.
It can be split into the papillary and reticular layers.
Papillary ridges make up the lines of the hands giving usfingerprints. True/False
The hypodermis contains 50% of body fat. True/False
Regarding excretion, the concentration of urea is 1/130 that of urine. True/False
What are the three types of hair found in humans?
Lanugo- fine hair that covers the embryo
Vellus- peach fuzz, grows in most places on the body
Terminal-fully developed hair.
Why do most people undergoing chemotherapy lose their hair?
Chemotherapy frequently causes a temporary loss of hair, because it kills all rapidly dividing cells, not just cancerous ones.
Hair shafts may store certain poisons for years or decades. True/False
True. Lafayette Baker who died July 3, 1868 was killed by white arsenic which was proven via the use of an atomic absorption spectrophotometer.
What is the Eponchium/
The cuticle of the fingernail. Located between the skin of the finger and the nail plate fusing these structures together.
What is the Perionychium?
The skin that overlies the nail plate on its sides. (Paronychial edge).
What is the Hyponychium?It is the area between the nail plate and the fingertip
It is the area between the nail plate and the fingertip. It is the junction between the free edge of the nail and the skin of the fingertip.
What is Onychosis?
Deformity or disease of the nails.
What is Onchocryptosis?
(Unguis incarnatus) Ingrown nails.
What is Onchomychosis?
Fungal infection of the nails or underbeds. White or yellow spots may be initially seen on the tip or nail body.
What is a cause of nail pliability?
Brittleness is associated with iron deficiency thyroid problems, impaired kidney function and possible circulatory problems.
What is nail clubbing?
Clubbing or nails that curve down around the fingertips with nail beds that bulge is associated with O2 deprivation and lung, heart or liver disease.
Spooning or nails that grow upwards is associated with vit. B12 deficiency.
What might flatness of nails indicate?
B12 deficiency or Reynaud's disease.
Pitting-possible psoriasis.
Horizontal ridges-stress.
Beau's lines-more serious conditions.
What are Beau's lines?
Beau's lines are horizontal, going across the nail, and should not be confused with vertical ridges going from the bottom (cuticle) of the nail out to the fingertip. These vertical lines are usually a natural consequence of aging and are harmless.[2][3] Beau's lines should also be distinguished from Muehrcke's lines of the fingernails. While Beau's lines are actual ridges and indentations in the nail plate, Muehrcke lines are areas of hypopigmentation without palpable ridges; they affect the underlying nail bed, and not the nail itself.
Vertical ridges on nails might be associated with arthritis. True/False
What are Mee's lines?
Mee's lines are associated with arsenic or thallium poisoning, and occasionally renal failure.
Do nails continue to grow post mortem?
No. There is a retraction of skin that gives the appearance of growing nails.
Where are eccrine sweat glands found?
They are distributed over the entire body surface but are abundant on the palms and soles. Important for temperature regulation.
Where are apocrine sweat glands found?
Especially present in the armpits and the genital area. they produce a fatty swaet.
A blocked sebaceous gland can result in what?
A sebaceous cyst.
The drug Isotretinoin reduces the amount of sebum produced by sebaceous glands. It is used to treat acne.
What is Vernix caseosa?
The sebaceous glands of a human fetus in utero secrete this. It is a waxy or cheesy substance coating the skin of newborns.
What is Asteatosis?
Lubrication prevents desiccation and itching of the skin within the ear canal(Asteatosis).
Almost all instances of breast cancer originate in the lobules or ducts of the mammary glands. True/False
List 6 types of breast cancer.
DCIS -Ductal carcinoma in situ
LCIS-Lobular carcinoma in situ
Invasive ductal
Invasive lobular
Inflammatory breast cancer
Paget's disease
Are glial cells excitable?
No. They are not excitable but help with myelination, ionic regulation and ECF.
The soma of a neuron can vary insize from 4 to 100 um in diameters. True/False
True. The nucleus ranges from 3-18 um in diameter.
Which part of the neuron is considered the most excitable?
The axon hillock has the greatest density of voltage dependent sodium channels.It has the greatest hyperpolarized action potential threshold.
How long can a human motor neuron be?
It can be over a meter long reaching from the base of the spine to the toes.
Sensory neurons have axons that run from the toes to the dorsal columns, over 1 and 1/2 meters in adults.
Excitatory neurons in the brain are often glutamatergic. True/False
What are the primary inhibitory neurotransmitters?
GABA and Glycine
Neuromodulatory neurons employ what type of neurotransmitters?
Dopamine, Acetylcholine, Serotonin and others.
The release of an excitatoty neurotransmitter(ACHe) at the synapse will cause an inflow of what?
Of positively charged sodium ions, resulting in localized depolarization.
Regarding ionic flow, what will an inhibitory synapse cause?
An inflow of Cl- or K+ making the synaptic membrane hyperpolarized. Prevents depolarization.
What are the two types of summation?
Spatial and Temporal
Spatial summation requires several excitatory synapses to add up resulting in an axonal discharge.
Temporal-Causes an increase of the frequency at the same synapse until it is large enough to cause a discharge.
What is a tonic neuron?
Some neurons are typically tonic. Interneurons inneurostriatum.
Phasic or bursting
Fast Spiking(globus pallidus)
Thin spiking(prefrontal cortex)
The brain stem houses the lower nerve centers consisting of what structures?
Midbrain, Pons and medulla.
Medulla is important for respiratory, cardiac and digestive functions.
The Pons houses the control centers for what?
Respiration and inhibitory functions. It interacts with the cerebellum.
The right hemisphere is responsible for the left side of the body. True/False
True. The opposite is true as well.
Where is the Limbic system found?
Just beneath the cerebrum and on both sides of the thalamus.
It combines higher mental functions and primitive emotion into one system.
What are some other structures found within the limbic system?
Fornix and Parahippocampus
Cingulate gyrus
Where specifically is the hippocampus found?
Deep in the temporal lobe. It is situated in the brain so as to make the prefrontal area aware of our past experiences stored in that area.
Where is the Amygdala found?
In the anteroinferior region of the temporal lobe, connects with the hippocampus and septi nuclei.
It functions in love, friendship, affection and makes one aware of danger from past experience.
What are the three basic types of memory?
Short term
Long term
What is sensory memory?
The sensory memories act as a buffer for stimuli through senses. It retains an exact copy of what is seen or heard.
Iconic memory for visual
Echoic for aural
Haptic for touch
What is a working memory?
This is a process to keep it until it is put to use.
What are the two types of long term memory?
1. Episodic-memory ofevents and experiences in a serial form.
Romantic-Is a structured record of facts, concepts and skills that hhave been acquired.
What is Broca's area?
It is located within the left motor cortex just anterior to the voice control area. it assembles the motor of speech and writing. Language enunciation.
Where is Wernicke's area?
This is part of the auditory and visual associations cortex. responsible for the analysis and formation of language.
depression is caused by the decreased levels of NE and or serotonin. True/False
True. drugs that increase these tend to decrease depression.
The peripheral nervous system includes 12 cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. true/False
True. it is divided into the somatic and autonomic divisions.
What are the 12 cranial nerves?
1. Olfactory
2. Optic
3. Oculomotor
5. Trigeminal
7. facial
8. Vestibulacochlear
11.Spinal accesory
12. Hypoglossal
The 10 of the 12 cranial nerves originate fromthe brainstem. True/False
Cranial nerve X1 is responsible for innervating what two important muscles?
Which nerve innervates the biceps muscle?
The Musculocutaneous.
Which nerve is involved in Carpal Tunnel syndrome?
The Median nerve. It provides sensation to the anterior palm, anterior thumb, index finger.
The ulnar nerve provides sensation to what structures?
To the ring and pinky fingers. Innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, the flexor digitorum, and profundus muscles to the ring and pinky fingers.
What is the anatomical term for the funny bone.
The ulnar nerve traverses a groove on the elbow called the cubital tunnel, also known as the funny bone.
What is Brodman area 4?
The basic route of the efferent somatic nervous system includes a 2 neuron sequence.
The first is an upper motor neuron whose cell body is located in the precentral gyrus(Brodman area 4) of the brain.
Where does the UMN carry the stimulus?
It carries it down the corticospinal tract and synapses in the central horn of the spinal cord with the alpha motor neuron, a lower motor neuron(LMN).
What type of receptors are found on the alpha motor neuron?
Nicotinic receptors. The UMN releases acetylcholine from neuronal knobs and received by the nicotinic receptors.
The first synapse in the sympathetic chain is mediated by ________________ receptors physiologically and activated by ________________.
Nicotinic/Acetylcholine. The target synapse is mediated by adrenergic receptors physiologically activated by either Norepi or epi.
The parasympathetc system uses acetylcholine as its neurotransmitter. True/False
True. It acts on 2 types of receptors, the muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
What are the three types of muscarinic receptors?
M1-located in the neural system
M2-In the heart, and regulate the cardiac cycle post sympathetic.
M3- Located in smooth muscle of blood vessels and lungs. They are also located in glands.
What are the 3 types of nerves in the body?
Sensory neurons
Motor neurons
Schwann cells contain a lipid substance called myelin in their plasma membranes. True/False
True. When Schwann cells wrap around axons, a myelin sheath forms around them. The gaps that have no myelin are called nodes of Ranvier.
List one class of antidepresseants.
Mono amine oxidase inhibitors. These break down amines like NE and Serotonin. These neurotransmitters remain in the synaptic cleft for a longer period of time.
What are SSSIs?
Selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors. With these, decreasing the uptake of serotonin back into the cell that will increase the amount of Serotonin present in the synaptic cleft. Prozac and Paxil are examples.
In general, why do addictive substances create dependence?
These substances change the brains reward functions located in the mesolimbic, dopamine system(behavior of pleasure).
They cause the synapses of this system to flood with excessive amounts of dopamine, creating a brief rush of euphoria, called the "high".
What are exteroceptors and interoceptors?
Ext- detect stimulation from outside of our body.
Intero-from the inside.
Cranial nerve V11, the facial nerve carries taste sensations from which structures?
From the anterior two thirds of the tongue(excluding circumvallate) abd soft palate.
Which cranial nerve carries taste sensations from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue(includes circumvallate)?
Cranial nerve1X. (Glossopharyngeal)
What are papilla cells?
They are specialized epithelial cells. There are 4 types.
2. Fungiform
Do all of these papilla cells have taste buds?
No.The Filiform do not possess taste buds.
Which papillae are the most numerous?
The Filiform, though they lack taste buds.
Which receptor is considered the simplest in the mouth? How does physiologically react when activated?
Salt(NaCl). An ion channel in the taste cell wall allows sodium ions to enter the cell. This depolarizes the cell, and opens voltage regulated Ca+2 gates, flooding the cell with ions and resulting in neurotransmitter release.
This sodium channel is also known as EnAC, and is composed of three subunits. True/False
List one drug that may affect the EnAC receptor.
Amiloride. In humans, the sensitivity of the salt taste to amiloride is weaker.
What does EnAC stand for?
Epithelial sodium channel.
How do sour taste signals function?
It signals the presence of acidic compounds(H+ ions in solution).
Usually there are three different receptor proteins at work in sour taste.
What is MDEG1?
Sour taste signals the presence of acidic compounds (H+ ions in solution). There are three different receptor proteins at work in sour taste. The first is a simple ion channel which allows hydrogen ions to flow directly into the cell. The protein for this is ENaC, the same protein involved in the distinction of salt taste (this implies a relationship between salt and sour receptors and could explain why salty taste is reduced when a sour taste is present). There are also H+ gated channels present. The first is a K+ channel, which ordinarily allows K+ ions to escape from the cell. H+ ions block these, trapping the potassium ions inside the cell (this receptor is classified as MDEG1 of the EnAC/Deg Family). A third protein opens to Na+ ions when a hydrogen ion attaches to it, allowing the sodium ions to flow down the concentration gradient into the cell. The influx of ions leads to the opening of a voltage regulated Ca2+ gate. These receptors work together and lead to depolarization of the cell and neurotransmitter release.
How do bitter compounds function?
There are many different classes of bitter compounds which can be chemically very different. It is interesting that the human body has evolved a very sophisticated sense for bitter substances: we can distinguish between the many radically different compounds which produce a generally “bitter” response. This may be because the sense of bitter taste is so important to survival, as ingesting a bitter compound may lead to injury or death. Bitter compounds act through structures in the taste cell walls called G protein-coupled receptors (GPCR’s). Recently, a new group of GPCR’s was discovered, known as the T2R’s, which it is thought respond to only bitter stimuli. When the bitter compound activates the GPCR, it in turn releases gustducin, the G-protein it was coupled to. Gustducin is made of three subunits. When it is activated by the GPCR, its subunits break apart and activate phosphodiesterase, a nearby enzyme, which in turn converts a precursor within the cell into a secondary messenger, which closes potassium ion channels. As well, this secondary messenger can stimulate the endoplasmic reticulum to release Ca2+, which contributes to depolarization. This leads to a build-up of potassium ions in the cell, depolarization, and neurotransmitter release. It is also possible for some bitter tastants to interact directly with the G protein, because of a structural similarity to the relevant GPCR.
How do sweet receptors function?
Like bitter tastes, sweet taste transduction involves GPCR’s. The specific mechanism depends on the specific molecule. “Natural” sweeteners such as saccharides activate the GPCR, which releases gustducin. The gustducin then activates the molecule adenylate cyclase, which is already inside the molecule cAMP, or adenosine 3', 5'-cyclic monophosphate. This protein will either directly or indirectly close potassium ion channels, leading to depolarization and neurotransmitter release. Synthetic sweeteners such as saccharin activate different GPCR’s, initiating a similar process of protein transitions, starting with the protein Kinase A(PKA), which ultimately leads to the blocking of potassium ion channels.
How do Umami receptors function?
It is thought that umami receptors act much the same way as bitter and sweet receptors (they involve GPCR’s), but not much is known about their specific function. It is thought that the amino acid L-glutamate bonds to a type of GPCR known as a metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluR4). This causes the G-protein complex to activate a secondary receptor, which ultimately leads to neurotransmitter release. The intermediate steps are not known.
Can taste sensation be lost if the facial nerve is damaged?
What is Sjogren's syndrome?
Saliva production is diminshed. The loss of taste is due to anosmia, a loss of sense of smell.
What is Glossodynia?
A condition characterized by a burning sensation on the tongue.
What is benign migratory glossitis?
Geographic tongue, an inflammatory condition of the tongue affecting approximately 2% of the population,[1] is characterized by discolored regions of taste buds or sometimes even cracks in the surface of the tongue. The condition is usually chronic, and frequently manifests after eating any of a range of exacerbating foods, or during times of stress, illness, or hormonal surges (particularly in women just before menstruating). It is also known as benign migratory glossitis, oral erythema migrans, glossitis areata exfoliativa, glossitis areata migrans, lingua geographica, stomatitis areata migrans, and transitory benign plaques of the tongue.[2]:800[3]
Humans have 347 functional odor receptor genes. True/False
odor receptor nerve cells may function like a key lock system. If the odor molecules can fit into the lock the nerve cell will respond.
What is the weak shape theory?
Also known as the odotype theory, suggests that different receptors detect only small pieces of molecules and these minimal inputs are combined to create a larger olfactory perception.
What is the vibration theory of olfaction?
The Vibration theory of smell proposes that a molecule's smell character is due to its vibrational frequency in the infrared range. The theory is opposed to the more widely accepted shape theory of olfaction, which proposes that a molecule's smell character is due to its shape.
Humans have about 40 million olfactory receptor neurons. True/False
True. The olfactory receptor neurons reside on the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity.
Individual olfactory receptor neurons are replaced approximately every 40 days by neural stem cells residing in the olfactory epithelium.
What are mitral cells?
Many same odor receptor neurons converge on the olfactory bulb. Mitral cells in the olfactory bulb send the information about the individual features to other parts of the olfactory system in the brain.
Odor is stored in long term memory. True/False
True. (Proustian Effect)
The olfactory system has a close relationship with the limbic and hippocampal region of the brain. True/False
True. Emotional relationships are often associated with emotions.
Are vertebrate pheromones detected by the vomeronasal organ?
Yes. It is located in the vomer bone between the mouth and nose.
Snakes use it to smell prey, sticking their tongue out and touching it to the organ.
What is flehman?
Some mammals make a face called flehman to direct air to the vomeronasal organ.
In humans, it is still unknown if pheromones truly exist.
What is Phantosmia?
It is the phenomenon of smelling odors that aren't really present. This may be a result of nerve damage.
What is Dysomia?
When things smell differently than they should.
The eye has 3 layers or coats that make up the exterior wall of the eyeball. What are they>
Sclera, Choroid and Retina.
The choroid is also known as the vascular layer. True/False
What are the proteins called that make up the lens?
In adult humans the entire retina is 72% of a sphere about 22mm in diameter. True/False
Why is or various kinds of color blindness.one able to see light via the cone cells?
The cone cells are sensitive to different layers of light.
It is a lack of functional cones sensitive to red, blue or green light that causes individuals to have deficiencies in color vision
Does the optic disc have photoreceptors?
No. It is also known as the blind spot. It is where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
The cornea and the lens of the eye focuses the light onto a small area of the retina called the_____________.
Fovea centralis. This is where cone cells are densely packed. It has the highest visual acuity. There are no rods in the fovea.
There are 2 types of photoreceptors. What are they?
Rods-are responsible for scotopic, or night vision
Cones are responsible for photopic vision(daytime).
Five of the extraocular muscles have their origen in the back of the orbit in a fibrous ring called the__________________--->
Annulus of Zinn
Depth perception is often confused with binocular vision also known as steropsis. True/False
What is Presbyopia?
The loss of accommodation of focusing capability.
What is Nyctolopia?
Night blindness.
The most common cause of nyctolopia is what disease?
Retinitis pigmentosa. Here, the rod cells in the retina gradually lose their ability to respond to the light.
What is Hemeralopia?
Day blindness.
What are floaters?
Also known as muscae volitantes are deposits of various size, shape consistency, refractive index and motility within the eyes normally transparant vitreous humour.
occasionally seen aftercataract surgery.
What is Visual agnosia?
This is the inability of the brain to make sense of or to make use of some part of otherwise normal visual stimulus.
Atropine comes from which plant?
Deadly nightshade. It competes with acetylcholine and is able to dilate the pupil.
Detection of sound motion is associated with the right posterior superior temporal gyrus. True/False
Humans are normally able to hear a variety of sound frequencies from about 20Hz to 20kHz. True/False
What is Dysacusis
It is a heraing impairment characterized by difficulty in processing details of sound, but not the ability to perceive sound.
How many touch receptors are there for every square cm of skin?
There are app. 50 touch receptors for every sq. cm and about 5 million sensory cells overall.
Pacinian corpuscles detect gross pressure changes and vibrations. True/False
Where are Meissner corpuscles found?
They are distributed throughout the skin, but concentrated in areas especially sensitive to light touch, such as the fingertips, palms soles, lips tongue, face nipples and genitals.
Where are Merkels discs found?
They are mechanoreceptors, making them sensitive to pressure and vibration. They are found in the superficial skin layers and are found clustered beneath the ridges of the fingertips, that make up the fingerprints.
What are Ruffini corpuscles?
These are thermoreceptors. They are found in the subcutaneous tissue of humans. Also contribute to the kinesthetic sense of control of finger position and movement.
What is Tactile defensiveness?
It is an overreaction to the sense of touch.
What is CIPA?
Congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis. It is a very rare disease.Peripheral nerves demonstrate a loss of unmyelinated and small myelinated fibers.
Newborn infants have unremarkable vision, being able to focus on objects only about 18 inches(45cm) directly in front of their face. True/False
Sarcomeres are composed of what 2 important proteins/
Actin and Myosin. Individual cells are lined with endomysium.
There are app. 650 muscles in the human body. True/false
True. Muscle cells increase in size, but never increase in number.
All skeletal muscles and many smooth muscles are activated by which neurotransmitter?
Muscles store energy for their own use in the form of _______________________.
Glycogen. Glycogen represents about 1% of their mass.
What is a type 1 muscle fiber?
It is a slow twitch or red muscle fiber. It is rich in mitochondria and myoglobin. It can carry more O2.
What is a type 11 muscle fiber?
This has 3 major kinds, that are in increasing order of contractile speed:
type 11a- rich in mitochondria and capillaries and appears very red.
type11x-(11d) this is less dense in mitochondria and myoglobin. It is the fastest muscle type in humans. It contracts very quickly. It can sustain only short anaerobic bursts of activity before muscle contraction becomes painful.
type11b-anerobic glycolytic, white muscle that is still less dense in mitochondria and myoglobin. In rodents and rabbits this is a major fast muscle type, that explains the pale color of their meat.
The acetylcholine diffuses across the cleft and binds to nicotinic rceptors on the motor end plate. True/False
True. This opens channels in the membrane for sodium and potassium. Sodium rushes in and K+ rushes out.
The action potential on the muscle fiber causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release________________________.
Calcium ions. The Ca+ binds to the troponin present on the thin filament of the myofibrils. Troponin modulates tropomyosin.
What does the tropomyosin normally obstruct?
It physically obstructs binding sites for cross bridge. Once Ca+ binds to the troponin, the troponin forces the tropomyosin to move out of the way, unblocking the binding sites.
What is isometric contraction?
The muscle does not shorten during contraction and does not require the sliding of myofibrils, but muscles are stiff.
What is Isotonic contraction?
Inertia is used to move or work. More energy is used by the muscle and contraction lasts longer than isometric contraction.
Only about 20% of input energy converts into muscular work. True/False
True. The rest is heat.
50% of energy from food is used in ATP formation.
What is anerobic respiration?
When the need of ATP in the muscle is higher than the cells can produce with aerobic respiration, the cells will produce extra ATP in a process called anarobic respiration.
The first step of aerobic respiration(glycolysis) produces 2 ATP per glucose molecule.
Is muscle soreness always due to lactic acid buildup?
Not really. Lactic acid does not stay in the muscle long enough to cause tissue breakdown or soreness. During labored breathing following exercise, the cells are converting the lactic acid either back into glucose or converting it to pyruvate and sending it through the additional steps of aerobic respiration. When normal breathing resumes, the lactic acid has been removed. The soreness is due to small tears in the fibers themselves. As the fibers heal, they will increase in size.
Many extreme body builders often build more muscle than the heart can handle. True/False
True. One pound of fat(app. 0.6 kg) contains about 3.5 miles of blood vessels, but one pound of muscle has about 6.5 miles.
In muscle and tendon injury, what is RICE?
Regarding smooth muscle contraction, they are iniated by the influx of what?
Calcium which binds to calmodulin.
What does the calcium calmodulin complex activate?
It binds to myosin and activates myosin light chain kinase.
What does light chain kinase do?
It phosphorylates myosin light chains causing them to interact with actin filaments. This results in contraction.
One percent of cardiac muscle cells do not contract because the non contracting cells have specialized features that aid in heart excitation. True/False
True. The noncontracting cells form a network known as the conducting system that contact other cardiac muscle cells at gap junctions.
Certain cardiac muscle cells also secrete ANP(1)(atrial natriuretic peptide) which inhibits sodium absorption in the kidney. True/False
The total quantity of ATP in the human body at any one time is app. what in moles?
0.1Mole. The energy used by human cells requires the hydrolysis of 200-300 moles of ATP daily.
This means that each ATP molecule is recycled 2-3000 times during a single day.
Catabolized carbohydrates is known as glycolysis. True/False
True. The pyruvate which is the end process of glycolysis aerobically goes through the Kreb's cycle, and if anarobic goes through the Cori cycle.
In the Cori cycle, pyruvate is converted to lactate, and this forms lactic acid and causes muscle fatigue. True/False
The most common types of muscular dystrophy appear to be due to a genetic deficiency of the muscle protein__________.
What is the term that is used that describes the twitching phenomenon in the early stage of sleep?
Hypnagogic massive jerk, or hypnic jerk.
What is myosin?
The fibrous motor protein that uses ATP to drive movements along actin filaments.
Is blood considered a connective tissue?
Yes. This is due to the fact that its origen is in the bones.
What are the three important proteins contained in blood?
Clotting proteins(Fibrinogen)
RBCs lose lose their nuclei upon their maturation. True/False
True. They take on a dimpled, biconcave shape.
They are app. 7-8 um in diameter.
Their are about 10000X as many RBCs as WBCs. True/False
True. They live app. 120 days. They do not self repair.
Why do RBCs have their characteristic shape?
This allows RBCs to stack like dinner plates and bend as they flow smoothly through the narrowest of vessels.
They possess no organelles and therefore cannot divide and multiply.
On average, how many RBCs are produced every second?
App. 2-3 million per second. About 200 billion a day.
Polypeptide globin chains contain anywhere from 141-146 amino acids. True/False
Basophils store and synthesize what substance?
Histamine. This is important in allergic reactions.
When they enter tissues, they become mast cells, which help blood flow to injured tissues by the release of histamine.
What is the life span of a neutrophil?
App. 12-48 hours.
Which are the largest WBCs?
Monocytes. They carry out phagocytosis. In tissues they are called macrophages.
Neutrophils make up what percentage of WBCs?
About 50-70%.
Basophils 0-1%
Monocytes 2-8%.
B and T lymphocytes about 20-30%.
What is a thrombocyte?
It is amplatelet. They have no nucleus and are app. between 1-2 um in diameter.
They are about 1/20 as abundant as WBCs.
They comprise less than 1% of blood.
Platelets result from fragmentation of large cells called______________.
Megakaryocytes. These are derived from stem cells.
They are produced at about 200 billion per day.
Platelets are regulated by what hormone?
Do platelets have secretory granules?
Yes. When they adhere to the proteins in vessel walls, they degranulate, releasing their products, which include ADP, serotonin and thromboxane A2.
What is the function of thrombin?
It facilitates the conversion of a soluble plasma protein called fibrinogen into long insoluble fibers or threads of the protein fibrin.
What are zeolites?
These chemicals are considered hemostatic agents and are being explored for use in sealing severe injuries quickly.
What does a blood type actually describe?
It describes the set of 29 substances on the surface of RBCs, and an individuals blood type is one of the many possible combinations of blood group antigens.
How many blood group antigens have actually been found?
Over 400. Most of these are very rare.
The ABO group was discovered in 1901 and the Rhesus group in 1937. True/False
True. Development of the Coombs test led to the discovery of more blood groups.
Blood group A individuals have what type of antigen on the surface of their RBC?
The A antigen, and their blood serum contains IgM antibodies against the B antigen.
The ABO blood type is controlled by what?
It is controlled by a single gene with three alleles, i,!A, and 1B.
The gene encodes an enzyme that modifies the CHO content of the RBC antigen.
The allele i gives what blood type?
Type O.
1A-type A
1B-type B
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?
It is an alloimmune condition that develops in a fetus when the IgG antibodies produced by the mother and passing through the placenta includes those which attack the fetal RBCs.
The fetus develops retculocytosis.
What is Erythroblasts fetalis?
When the disease is moderate or severe many erythroblasts are present in the fetal blood.
What is Rhogam?
Rh negative mothers who have had a pregnancy with or are pregnant with a RH positive infant are given immune globulin(RhIG) also known as Rhogam.
This is given during pregnancy and after delivery to prevent sensitization to the D antigen.
How does Rhogam work?
It works by binding any fetal red cells with the D antigen. It works by binding any fetal red cells with the D antigen before the mother is able to produce an immune response and form anti D IgG.
What is factor V Leiden?
The opposite of hemophilia, Factor V Leiden is the name given to a variant of human factor V that causes a hypercoagulability disorder.
The Leiden variant of factor V cannot be inactivated by activated protein C. It is very common with Eurasions..
Regarding Sickle cell disease, one who acquires both genes from mother and father develops the disease. True/False
True. If that individual receives one defe3ctive gene they become a carrier.
In primary polycythemia there may be how many RBCs per cubic millimeter?
8-9 million and occasionally 11 million.
4-5 million is considered normal.
The PCV may be as high as 70-80%.
What is Budd Chiari syndrome?
Hepatic vein thrombosis.
Throughout the course of a lifetime, the heart will beat about 3 billion times. true/False
True. Within 24 hours it will beat between 90,000-100,000 times a day.
There is in the average adult about 60,000 miles of blood vessels. True/False
What are the two layers of the pericardium?
The fibrous and serous layers.
The serous pericardium is divided into two layers. The parietal and visceral.
The chordae tendinae are attached to which muscles?
The papillary muscles. These tendinae are known as the subvalvular apparatus.
Capillaries are very prevalent in the body. What is app. their surface area?
About 6300 square meters.
What are continuous capillaries?
They have a sealed epithelium and only permit small molecules, water and ions to diffuse.
What are fenestrated capillaries?
These have openings that allow larger molecules to diffuse.
What are sinusoidal capillaries?
These are a type of fenestrated capillary that have larger openings allowing RBCs and serum proteins to enter.
Most of the blood is found in which vascular compartment>
In the venous system, about 70% at any given time.
Are venous walls the same as arterial walls?
The veins outer walls have the same three layers as the artery, differing only because there is a lack of smooth muscle in the inner layer and less connective tissue on the outer layer.
How often does blood circulate through the body within 1 minute>
It circulates 2-3 times.
In one day, the blood travels a total of 19 thousand KM(12,000 miles).
The aorta is considered an elastic artery. True/False
The Superior vena cava is formed by which two vessels?
The left and right brachiocephalic(Innominate veins)
From where does the azygous vein receive blood?
From the ribcage.
Why are the coronary arteries considered end circulation?
They represent the only source of blood supply to the myocardium, there is very little redundant blood supply, which is why blockages are so critical.
Both of these arteries originate from the beginning(root) of the aorta, immediately above the aortic valve. What are they?
The right and left coronary arteries.
The left coronary sinus originates from which sinus?
Left coronary sinus. The right coronary artery originates from the right coronary sinus.
Four percent of people have a third, the posterior coronary artery. True/False
Regarding the sinoatrial node cells, how are these cells activated?
They are activated spontaneously by depolarization of their membranes beyond a certain threshold for excitation.
At this point, voltage gated calcium channels on the cell membrane open and allow Ca+ ions to pass through into the sarcoplasm or interior of the muscle cell.
Do Ca+ ions ever bind to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Yes.This causes an influx of Ca+ ions into the sarcoplasm.
These Ca+ ions bind to troponin resulting in a conformational change, breaking the bond between the protein tropomyosin to which the troponin is attached, and the myosin binding sites.
Norepi is released from the terminal boutons. True/False
True. These boutons are found on depolarized sympathetic fibers at the SA node and AV node.
Does Norepi also diffuse across the synaptic cleft?
Yes. It binds to the B1 adrenoceptors-G protein linked receptors consisting of 7 transmembrane domains, that shifts their equilibrium towards the active state.
The G protein is involved in what imporatnt substance?
Camp(cyclic adeno monophosphate) from ATP and this in turn activates the protein kinase(B adrenoceptor kinase).
This phosphorylates the calcium ion channels in the sarcolemma, so that Ca+ influx is increased when they are activated.
What does phosphodiesterase catalyze?
The decomposition of Camp to AMP so it is no longer able to activate the protein kinase.
The first heart tone or sound is produced by which structures?
The closure of the AV valves, mitral and tricuspid.
The second heart tones are heard as a result of which structures?
By the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valve.
Is there a third heart sound?
Yes. It is physiological to hear the splitting of the second heart tone in younger people and during inspiration.
It is suspicious when heard in older adults.
Does parasympathetic stimulation increase or decrease the heart rate?
It decreases the rate of the AV node by causing the release of acetylcholine at vagal endings which in turn increases the K+ permeability of the cardiac muscle fiber.
The AV node receives 2 inputs from the atria: what are they?
Posteriorly via the crista terminalis and anteriorly via the interatrial septum.
The AV node delays impulses for how long?
For 0.1 second before spreading to the ventricular walls.
The reason is to delay the cardiac impulse so as to ensure that the atria are empty completely before the ventricles contract.
From where does the blood supply come from for the AV node?
From a branch of the right coronary artery in 85-90% of individuals, and from a branch of the left circumflex artery in the remqining 10-15 % of individuals.
What is considered the ventricular conduction system?
The bundle branches and Purkinje network comprise this system. It takes about 0.03-0.04s for the impulse to travel from the bundle of His(Wilhelm His, Swiss cardiologist), to the ventricular muscle.
When does an embolism occur?
When an object(embolus) migrates from one part of the body(circulation) and causes a blockage(occlusion) of a blood vessel in another part of the body.
What are the 2 major categories of strokes?
What is an Ischemic stroke?
This occurs in 85-95% of strokes. Brain tissue is ultimately deprived of blood>
Ischemic strokes are divided into:
Thrombotic stroke
Embolic stroke
Sysytemic hypoperfusion(Watershed or Border zone stroke or venous thrombosis.
What is a hemorrhagic stroke?
This is a cerebral hemorrhage. A cerebral blood vessel bursts. Brain tissue is deprived.
Is the term " Brain Attack" for stroke starting to be used in place of stroke?
Where do aneurysms occur?
They most commonly occur in arteries at the base of the brain(Circle of Willis) and in the aorta.
What is normally employed to dissolve a blood clot?
Usually drugs that convert plasminogen(molecule found in blood) to plasmin(enzyme that dissolves blood clots.
TPA- (Tissue plasminogen activator).
What is PTCA?
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. First done in 1977.
What is the most common congenital heart defect?
Ventral septal defect. It occurs in about 20% of all children with congenital heart disease.
Blood from the left ventricle is shunted to the right ventricle. Oxygenated blood returns to the pulmonic circulation.
The body's response to stress is categorized in 2 phases . What are they?
Ebb phase(early phase)
Flow phase
What happens in the ebb phase?
There is inadequate circulation, decreased insulin level, decreased O2 consumption, hypothermia, hypovolemia.
What happens in the flow phase?
There is increased levels of catecholamines, glucocorticoids and glucagons, normal to elevated insulin levels, increased O2 consumption, hyperthermia, fever, increased CO.
On the EKG, what does the P wave represent?
It is the atrial depolarization.
QRS-Ventricular depolarization
T- ventricular repolarization.
The proportion of interstitial fluid that is returned to the circulatory system by osmosis is app. how much of the former plasma?
Excess interstitial fluid is collected by whar structures?
By the lymphatic system by diffusion into lymph capillaries and is processed by lymph nodes prior to being returned to the bloodstream.
Briefly describe the thoracic duct?
This duct is much larger than the lymphatic duct. It serves the abdomen, lower extremities and the left side of the upper body(head, neck and arm).
Briefly describe the right lymphatic duct.
This duct serves all of the right side of the upper body and thoracic area(head, neck)
What is thymosin?
It is thought to aid in the maturation of T lymphocytes.
Only 5% of T lymphocytes ever leave the thymus. True/False
Briefly describe a lymph node.
These are small oval shaped structures located along the lymphatic vessels. they are about 1-25mm in diameter.
What is a cytotoxic cell?
These cells kill the cells they attack. This group includes eosinophiles and some types of lymphocytes.
Eosinophils account for app. 1-3% of all leukocytes. True/false
True. The life span of a typical eosinophil in the blood is about 6-12 hours.
They are known to attack largwe parasites and release substances from their granules that damage or kill the parasite.
What do basophils release?
They release histamine and other chemicals. They are rare in the circulation but are easily recognized in a stained blood smear by the large dark blue granules in their cytoplasm.
What are cilia?
Cilia are thin, tail like projections extending app. 5-10 um outwards from the cell body. Their main function is to move things across the surface.
When an injury occurs what occurs within a capillary?
Capillary and several tissue cells are apt to rupture releasing histamine and kinins. Fluid is leaked into tissues.
Stimulated macrophages can bring about an explosive increase in the number of leukocytes by producing what?
Colony stimulating factors. They pass by way of the blood to the bone marrow, where they stimulate the production and release of WBCs, primarily neutrophils.
Does the body know ahead of time which antigens it will encounter?
No. It makes receptor sites for a hugh number of possible antigens. It is estimated by the million or so antigens we encounter in our lifetime we have an equal number of specific lymphocytes for each possible antigen.
B cells produce two different types of cells. What are they?
Plasma cells
Memory cells
What is an opsonin?
Anything that simplifies phagocytosis. The process of antibodies attaching to invaderrs can be termed opsonization.
Some antibodies can attach to as well to certain toxins or poisons. These are called antitoxins(tetanus imunization stimulate your body to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin rather than against the bacteria that produces the toxin.
What causes a fever?
During an infection macrophages may release cytokines such as interleukin-1 that travel to the hypothalamus and induce a change in the thermostat setting.
What is an anaphylactic reaction?
There is a massive release of histamine and other cytokines that cause widespread vasodilation, circulatory collapse and severe bronchoconstriction.
What are dermatophgoides?
Allergies that cause chronic allergic rhinitis and asthma are highly due to dust mites(dermatophgoides). It is their feces that cause a reaction.
What is delayed hypersensitivity?
It is a cell mediated reaction with a T lymphocyte response. secretion of lymphokines, instead of histamine happens in a delayed hypersensitivity.
Examples are Poison sumac, poison oak and poison ivy.
Molds and yeast are in the category of microscopic fungi. True/False
True. Yeasts are one celled and reproduce by budding. Molds exist as cell chains, called hyphae.
What are the three categories of immune disorders?
What is a type one hypersensitivity?
It is an allergic reaction provoked by reexposure to a specific antigen. It may be by ingestion, inhalation, injection or direct contact.
It is mediated by IgE antibodies by the immediate release of histamine, tryptase, archidonate and derivatives by basophils and mast cells.
What happens when HIV kills CD4+ T cells?
When this happens and there fewer than 200 CD4+ T cells per microliter of blood, cellular immunity is lost leading to the condition known as AIDS.
What are Treg cells?
These are regulatory T cells formerly known as suppresor T cells, and are crucial for thwe maintenance of immunological tolerance.
The major function is to shut down T cells mediated immunity towards the end of an immune reacrion and to suppress auto reactive T cells that escaped the process of negative selection in the thymus.
From where do Treg cells arise?
These are also known as CD4+, CD25+ and Fox P3+ Treg cells arise in the thymus, whereas the adaptive Treg cells(also known as Tr1 cells) or TH3 cells, may originate during a normal immune response.
How can naturally occurring Treg cells be distinguished from other T cells?
By the presence of an intracellular molecule called FoxP3. Mutations of the FoxP3 gene can prevent regulatory T cell development causing the fatal autoimmune disease IPEX.
What do T cells that recognize peptide antigen presented by major histocompatibility complex(MHC) molecules recognize specifically?
Glycolipid antigen presented by a molecule called CD1d. Once activated, these cells can perform functions ascribed to both Th and Tc cells(cytokine production and release of cytolytic cell killing molecules.
Why are the kidneys considered the main organs of homeostasis?
They maintain the acid base balance and the water salt balance of the blood.
As the liver breaks down amino acids it also releases ammonia. True/False
True.The liver then quickly combines that ammonia with CO2, creating urea which is the primary nitrogenous end product of metabolism in humans.
Why does the liver convert the ammonia into urea?
Because it is much less toxic for the body.
Where does creatinine come from?
It comes from the metabolic breakdown of creatine phosphate(high energy phosphate in muscles)
Uric acid comes from the breakdown of nucleotides. It is insoluble and too much uric acid in the blood will build up and form crystals that can collect in the joints and cause gout.
Calciuym absorption from the digestive tract is promoted by vitamin D. True/False
Because the inferior vena cava is on the right half of the body, the left renal vein is generally the longer of the two. True/False
True. Unlike the right renal vein, the left renal vein often receives the left gonadal vein(left testicular vein in males, left ovarian vein in females).
App. how much of the total cardiac output can pass through the renal arteries to be filtered by the kidneys?
App. one third.
About how long is each ureter?
About 25cm. It is a muscular tube.
The urinary bladder can hold app. how much urine?
Between 500 and 530 ml,
However, when there is app. 200ml of urine contained, there is a desire to micturate.
Where does the word nephron come from?
It comes from the greek.It means kidney.
The afferent arteriole supplies blood to the _________________.
Whre are the Juxtoglomerular cells located?
They are located around the afferent arteriole where it enters the renal corpuscle.
Where are the macula densa cells located?
They lie between the two arterioles(afferent and efferent).
The Juxtaglomerular cells and the macula densa collectively form the Juxtaglomerular appratus(JGA).
What is Renin?
It is in the JGA that the enzyme renin is formed and stored. Renin is released in response to decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles, decreased NaCl in the DCT and sympathetic nerve stimulation of receptors(beta adrenic) on the JG cells.
Within Bowman's capsule, where does the visceral layer lie?
It lies just beneath the thickened glomerular basement membrane and is made of podocytes which send foot processes over the length of the glomerulus.
How do the foot processes interdigitate?
They interdigitate with one another forming filtration slits, that in contrast to those in the glomerular endothelium are spanned by diapphragms.
What is the function of the filtration slits?
They restrict the passage of large molecules(albumin) and cells, RBCs and platelets.
Foot processes also have a negatively charged coat(glcocalyx) that limits the filtration of negatively charged molecules, such as albumin. This is called Electrostatic repulsion.
How does the parietal layer function in filtration?
It does not.
What are the three components of the filtration barrier?
The Diaphragms of the filtration slits
The thick glomerular basement membrane
Glycocalx, which is secreted by podocytes.
App. 99% of the filtrate will be absorbed.
What is app. the normal quantitative rate of filtration?
125ml/min, equivalent to ten times te blood volume daily.
Any proteins that are roughly 30 kilodaltons or under can pass freely through the mermbrane. True/False
Can the PCT be further divided into segments?
Yes. The S1 and S2 segment based on the histological appearance of its cells.
The proximal straight tubule is commonly called the S3 segment.
The PCT has what type of cell in its lumen?
Cuboidal. This is the only place in the nephron that has cuboidal cells. These cells are covered with millions of microvilli. Their function is to increase surface area and absorption.
Fluid in the filtrate entering the PCT is reabsorbed where?
Into the peritubular capillaries. This includes app. 2/3 of the filtered salt and water and all filtered organic solutes(primarily glucose and amino acids).
What system is responsible for the filtering process?
This is driven by sodium transport from the lumen into the blood by the Na+ /K+ ATPase in the basolateral membrane of the epithelial cells.
Regarding the descending limb, is it permeable to water?
Yes. But it is impermeable to salt and only indirectly contributes to the concentration of the interstitium.
What is the function of longer descending limbs?
These allow more time for water to flowout of the filtrate, so longer limbs make the filtrate more concentrated or hypertonic.
What is the function of the ascending limb?
It actively pumps sodium out of the filtrate, generating the hypertonic, interstitium that drives the countercurrent exchange.
In the presence of parathyroid hormone, the DCT reabsorbs more calcium and excretes more phosphate. True/False
Though the collecting duct is normally impermeable to water, it becomes permeable in the presence of which hormone?
Embryologically, the collecting duct is from the endoderm and the nephron is from the mesoderm. True/False
What is natriuretic hormone?
It is released from cardiocyte granules located in the right atrium of the heart in response to increased atrial stretch
The JGA is a renal structure consisting of which three important cells?
Macula densa
Mesangial cells
Juxtaglomerular cells.
JG cells are also known as granular cells and are the site of renin secretion.
Why is the diuretic, acetazolamide used?
It helps to make the urine more alkaline and is helpful in increasing excretion of substances such as aspirin in cases of overdose or poisoning.,
The antihypertensive actions of some diuretics(thiazides and loop diuretics) are independent of their diuretic effect. True/False
What is diabetic nephropathy?
Also known as Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome and intercapillary glomerulonephritis, is a progressive kidney disease caused by angiopathy of capillaries in the kidney glomeruli. It is due to nodular glomerulosclerosis. It often accompanies poorly managed longstanding diabetes.
Renal failure is associatedwith oliguria(less than 400 ml of urine output per day. True/False
What is diabetes insipidus?
The person with DI has the inability to concentrate their urine in water restriction, in turn they will void 3-20 liters a day.
What are the two forms of DI?
Nephrogenic- the kidneys do not respond to ADH. There is impairment of concentrating ability. Lithium may occasionally cause this form.
Neurogenic- Usually caused by head injury near the hypophyseal tract.
E. coli is known to be one of the most important causes of urinary tract infections. True/False
Where was the first successful kidney transplant performed?
It was announced on March 4, 1954 at Peter Bent Brigham Hospital. It was performed by Dr. Joseph E. Murray. He was awarded the Nobel Prize for medicine in 1990.
What is TURP?
Transurethral resection of the prostate. An instrument is inserted up the urethra to remove the section of the prostate that is blocking urine flow. THis is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia(BPH).
What is ventilation?
IUt is the exchange of air between the external environment and the alveoli.
In respiration, how does air move?
Air moves by bulk flow from an area of high pressure to low pressure.
The parietal pleura is attached to the thoracic wall. True/False
True. The visceral pleura is attached to the lung itself.
Which gases are found in the air we breathe?
O2- 21%
Nitrogen- 78%
CO2- 0.04%
Miscellaneous other gases, argon etc.
Briefly, describe the trachea?
Also known as the windpipe, has ciliated cells and mucus secreting cells lining it, and is held open by C shaped cartilage rings.
What are the extensions of the mucociliary escalator?
It extends from the top of the trachea all the way down to the bronchioles.
When contraction of intercostal muscles actively increase the size of the thorax, and the lungs expand. True/False
This expansion increases the size of the alveoli which decreases pressure in the alveoli. Pressure within the alveoli is now lower than atmospheric pressure which allows air to move into the lungs through the structures discussed.
Any thickening of lung tissue due to disease will decrease lung compliance. True/False
Two major things determine lung compliance. First is elasticity and the second is surface tension.
What is surface tension?
The surface of the alveoli cells is moist. the attractive force, between the water cells on the alveoli is called surface tension. Energy is required to overcome the surface tension.
Gas exchange in the lungs is between the alveolar air and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries. True/False
True. This exchange is the result of increased concentration of O2 and a decrease of CO2..
Normal respiration is between 10-20 bpm.
How is most of the CO2 carried to the lungs in plasma?
It is carried as bicarbonate ions(HCO3-) When blood enters the pulmonary capillaries, the bicarbonate ions and H+ ions are converted to H2CO3(carbonic acid) and then back to CO2 and water.
What is the histological makeup of the bronchioles?
Bronchioles which have little cartilage are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium.
Objects are more likely to lodge at the junction of the carina and the right primary bronchus because of the vertical structure.True/False
True. Items have a tendency to fsall into it, whereas the left primary bronchus has more of a curve to it which would make it hard to have things lodge there.
How are the lungs attached to the heart and trachea?
Via the roots of the lungs. These comprise the bronchi, pulmonary vessels, bronchial vessels, lymphatic vessels and nerves. These structures leave the hilus of the lung.
Blood with hemoglobin is able to transport 26 times more O2 than plasma without hemoglobin. True/False
When we are in a relaxed state only a samll amount of air is brought in and out of the lung. What is app. this quantity?
About 500ml.
What is Inspiratory reserve volume?
This is breathing in very deeply almost to maximum. This can increase lung capacity to about 2900ml.
The normal 500 ml is referred to as tidal volume.
What is expiratory reserve volume?
We can increase expiration by contracting our thoracic and abdominal muscles. This is expiratory reserve volume. It is about 1400 ml of air.
What is vital capacity
It is the total of tidal, IRV and ERV.
What is residual volume?
Even when we exhale deeply some air is still in the lungs(about 1,000 ml) and is called residual volume.
Where are pH chemoreceptors found?
In the aorta, the carotid arteries and in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem that are sensitive to pH.
As CO2 levels increase, there is a buildup of carbonic acid, which releases H+ ions and lowers pH. CO2 is the driving force for breathing. These receptors are slow to respond to O2.
What happens to muscle cells during a 100 meter dash?
During this event, your muscle cells must metabolize ATP at a much faster rate than usual and thus will produce much higher quantities of CO2. The blood pH drops as CO2 levels increase, and you will involuntarily increase breathing.
If the pH of the blood drops below 7.2 or rises above 7.6, the brain would cease functioning. True/False
True. Below 6.9 or above 7.9 is usually fatal.
The most important buffer we have in our bodies is a mixture of which 2 substances?
Co2 and bicarbonate ion(HCO3) CO2 forms carbonic acid(H2CO3) when it dissolves in water and acts as an acid giving up H2 ions(H+) when needed. HCO3 is a base and soaks up H+ ions when there are too many of them.
Too much CO2 or too little HCO3 in the blood results in a condition termed______________.
Acidosis. The CO2 level is increased when hypoventilating or slow breathing occurs, for example seen in emphysema or certain pneumonias.
Bicarbonate will be lowered by ketoacidosis, a condition caused by excess fat metabolism(diabetes mellitus).
What happens in CO poisoning?
This is caused when CO binds to Hg in place of O2. CO binds much tighter without releasing, causing the Hg to become unavailable to O2.
What is pulmonary embolism? Thromboembolism is a common cause.
This is a blockage of a pulmonary artery(or one of its branches) by a blood clot, fat, air, or clumped tumor cells. Thromboembolism is a common cause.
A venous thrombus may dislodge and travel to this site.
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
At birth the pressure needed to expand the lungs requires high inspiratory pressure. In the presence of normal surfactant levels the lungs retain as much as 40% of the residual volume after the first breath and thereafter will only require far lower inspiratory pressures. A deficiency of surfactant will cause the lungs to collapse between breaths.
What do type 2 alveolar cells produce?
They produce surfactant and do not develop until the 25th to the 28th week of gestation. This is a common syndrome seen in infants.
Why are infants of mothers with diabetes type 1 at risk for Respiratory distress syndrome.?
Insulin inhibits surfactant production. Cortisol can speed up maturation of type 2 cells and therefore production of surfactant.
What is the respiratory quotient?
The RQ is a ratio of produced CO2 to the amount consumed.
Are nutritive substances important when feeding patients with pulmonary disease?
Yes. CHO metabolism produce the most amount of CO2 so they have the highest RQ. Fats produce the least amount of CO2 along with proteins. Protein has a slighly higher RQ ratio.
What causes Cystic Fibrosis?
It is caused by a defect in a type of chloride protein found in apical membranes of epithelial cells in the respiratory system and elsewhere. This defect impedes the chlorine ions transport which will then indirectly effect the transport of potassium ions. This results in the epithelium not creating its osmotic gradient necessary for water secretion.
From the inside out, what are the 4 layers of the GI tract?
Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and serosa(adventitia)
Describe the mucosa.
The mucosa is the absorptive and secretory layer. It is composed of simple epithelium.
It has goblet cells that secrete mucus. On this layer there are villi and microvilli.
Describe the submucosa.
This layer is thicker than the mucosa and is highly vascular. The submucosa has glands and nerve plexuses.
Describe the muscularis.
This layer is responsible for segmental contractions and peristalsis.
It is composed of 2 layers. An inner circular and outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle.
Describe the serosa.
This is a protective layer. It is composed of avascular connective tissue and simple squamous epithelium. It secretes lubricating serous fluid.
What is urea and where is it produced?
It is produced in the liver, and is the chief end product of mammalian metabolism. It is formed from amino acids and compounds of ammonia.
The pancreas stores zymogens(inactive enzymes) that will be activated by the brush border membrane in the small intestine when a person eats protein. True/False
Trypsinogen-Trypsin, digests protein. Chemotrysinogen-chemotrypsin digests proteins
Carboxypeptidases digests proteins
Lipase digests fats
Amylase digests carbohydrates.
What is somatostatin?
This inhibits the function of insulin.
The stomach lining has glands that produce up to three liters of digestive fluid daily. true/False
The secretion of gastric juices occurs in three phases. What are they?
What does gastric juice contain?
It contains pepsin, which digests proteins, HCl and mucus.
HCl causes the stomach to maintain a pH of about 2, which kills off bacteria, and HCl helps convert pepsinogen to pepsin.
Which substances can be directly absorbed through the stomach wall?
Water, alcohol, salt and simple sugars.
What is chyme?
Once mixed with digestive juices in the stomach the food is called chyme.
What type of tissue lines the esophagus?
The esophagus is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium, which is rapidly turned over and serves a protective effect due to the high volume transit of food, saliva and mucus.
What type of muscle is found in the esophagus?
The muscularis propria of the esophagus consists of striated muscle in the upper third(superior) part of the esophagus.
The middle third consists of a combination of smooth muscle and striated muscle, and the bottom third is only smooth muscle.
What do some of the stomach glands secrete?
Parietal cells-HCl
Chief cells- pepsinogen
Goblet cells- mucus
Argentaffin cells- serotonin and histamine
G cells secrete gastrin.
What does gastrin do?
It causes an increase in the secretion of HCl, pepsinogen and intrinsic factor from the parietal cells in the stomach.
It increases as well gastric motility.
What inhibits gastrin?
It is inhibited by pH normally less than 4(high acid) as well as the hormone somatostatin.
What is CCK?
Cholecystokinin. It has the largest effect on the gallbladder, but it also decreases gastric emptying.
What is secretin?
It is produced in the small intestine and has effects on the pancreas, but will also diminish acid secretion in the stomach.
What is GIP?
Gastric inhibitory peptide. This and enteroglucagon decrease both gastric motility and secretion of pepsin. These hormones act to turn the stomach off.
There are trillions of bacteria, yeasts and parasites living in the intestines, mostly in the colon. True/False
True. Over 400 species live in the colon.
What is the function of the helpful bacterial organisms in the colon?
They synthesize vitamines, like B12, biotin and vitamin K. They brea down toxins and stop proliferation of harmful organisms.
They stimulate the immune system and produce short chain fatty acids(SCFA) that are required for the health of colon cells.
What are the names of some of the important helpful colonic bacteria?
Where does the pancreatic duct run anatomically?
It runs the length of the pancreas and empties into the second part of the duodenum at the ampulla of Vater.
The common bile duct commonly joins the pancreatic duct at or near this point.
Scattered among the acini are the endocrine cells of the pancreas, in groups called what?
The islets of Langerhans:

Beta cells(50-80%) produce insulin
Glucagon releasing alpha cells(15-20%)
Soamtostatin producing delta cells(3-10%)
Pancreatic polypeptide containing PP cells which account for the rest of the cells.
What are some of the livers roles in CHO metabolism?
Gluconeogenesis(formation of glucose from certain amino acids, lactate or glycerol.
Glycogenolysis-formation of glucose from glycogen
breakdown of insulin
protein metabolism and production
What are some of the livers roles in lipid metabolism?
Cholesterol synthesis
Production of triglycerides and fats
production of coagulation factors
Breaks down Hg, creating metabolites that are added to bile as pigment.
Breaks down toxic substances and medicinal substances.
Converts ammonia to urea.
The surface marking the gallbladder is the intersection of the midclavicular line(MCL) and the transpyloric plane at the tip of the ninth rib. True/False
What is esophageal atresia?
The esophagus of the newborn does not connect to the stomach but comes to a dead end right before the stomach.
What is Diverticulitis?
It is a common disease of the bowel, especially the large intestine. It develops from diverticulosis which involves the formation of pouches(diverticula) on the outside of the colon. Diverticulitis results if one of these diverticula become inflammed.
What are the 2 types of Inflammatory bowel disease?
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
(Indeterminate colitis)
What does ulcerative colitis involve?
It usually just affects the rectum and small intestine while Crohn's disease can affect the whole GI tract from mouth to anus.
What is an intestinal polyp?
A polyp is an abnormal growth of tissue(tumor projecting from a mucus membrane, It is attached to the surface by a narrow elongated stalk(pedunculated)
If there is no stalk it is called Sessile)
What is Leaky gut syndrome(LGS)?
usually but not always as a result of severe infection or some other inflammatory syndrome, changes in the intestinal wall allow many toxic chemicals to be introduced into the blood stream.
Is there a specific cause of IBS(Irritable Bowel Syndrome)?
Not really.
Is there a specific cause of IBS(Irritable Bowel Syndrome)?
Not really. One idea is that people with IBS have a large intestine(colon) that is sensitive to certain foods and stress.
It has also been reported that serotonin is linked with normal GI functioning. 95% of the body's serotonin is located in the GI tract, the other 5 % in the brain. people with IBS may have diminished receptor activity causing abnormal levels of serotonin in the Gi tract.
What is GIST?
Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors is an uncommon type of cancer in the GI tract(esophagus, stomach, small intestine and colon).
These cancers begin in the connective tissue like fat, muscles, nerves cartilage etc.
Where does GIST originate?
It originates in the Stromal cells. These cells are strung along the GI tract and are part of the system that helps the body to know when to move food through the digestive system. Over half of GIST cases occur in the stomach.
Most cases occur in peple between the gaes of 40-80.
What is Biotin used for?
It is used in cell growth, the production of fatty acids, metabolism of fats and amino acids.
It plays a role in the Kreb's cycle.
It is helpful in maintaining a steady blood sugar level.
What is another name for Cholecystokinin?
What is Rennin?
Only produced during infancy and is a gastric protease and functions with Ca+ to clot with milk proteins casein, to slow the movement of milk so that digestion is prolonged.
Vitamins(Vital Emines) and minerala are not used as energy, but are essential in enzyme reactions. True/False
True. Living tissue is kept alive by using the expenditure of ATP, found in the breakdown of food..
What are the three main micronutrients?
They are CHOs, proteins and fat.
What are the three sizes of carbohydrates?
Simple CHO-mono and disaccharides
Complex CHOs-polysaccharides(These are the most abundant CHO in the body.
Describe a monosaccharide.
Single CHO unit, such as glucose, fructose and galactose.
Describe a disaccharide.
Two single CHO bound together. These are Sucrose, Maltose and lactose.
Describe a polysaccharide.
These have many units of monosaccharides joined together. These are Starch and Fiber.
Describe a protein.
proteins are made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen, an inorganic molecule, the thing that distinguishes them from the other macronutrients.
proteins are relatively large molecules made of amino acids joined together in chains by peptide bonds. True/False
How is the process of protein synthesis controlled?
It is controlled by an mRNA template. In this process, tRNA transfers amino acids to the mRNA to form protein chains.
There are 20 standard amino acids used by cells in making proteins. True/False
True. vertebrates including humans are able to synthesize 11 of these amino acids from other molecules. The remaining 9 aa cannot be synthesized by our cells, and are termed essential aa.
What are the 9 essential amino acids?

Remember: "Hey, It's Like Lovely Material; Please Touch The Velvet".
What are the 11 non essential amino acids?
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
What is the function of the sulfur atom in Alanine?
It binds readily to heavy metal ions. Under oxidizing conditions, 2 cysteines can join together in a disulfide bond to form the amino acid cystine.
When cystines are part of a protein, insulin for example, this stabilizes the tertiary structure and renders the protein more resistant to breakdown.
Which is the smallest amino acid?
Phenylalanine. It rotates easily, adds flexibility to the molecule.
Describe briefly the amino acid leucine.
It is essential for humans. It is always the first amino acid to be incorporated into a protein. It is sometimes removed after translation.
Describe the amino acid tyrosine.
It behaves similarly to phenylalanine and tryptophan. It is an essential precursor of melanin, epinephrine and thyroid hormones.
Lipids provide 9 Kcalories per gram. True/False
True. It is an energy yielding nutrient.
What are lipids made of?
Organic molecules. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. fats consist of glycerol fatty acids joined by an ester bond.
What are triglycerides composed of?
Three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule.
What is a saturated fatty acid?
It is a fatty acid with carbon chains fully saturated with hydrogen.
What is a monounsaturated fatty acid?
This is an acid that has a carbon chain with one unsaturated double bond.
What is a polyunsaturated acid?
It is a fatty acid that has 2 or more double bonds on the carbon chain.
What is meant by an Omega 6 fatty acid?
Linoleic acid, an essential polyunsaturated acid, has its first double bond on the 6th carbon.
What is Linolenic acid?
This is an essential polyunsaturated fatty acid. Its first double bond is on the 3rd carbon. This is why it is called an omega 3. It is a main member of the omega 3 famly.
What is Eicosapentanoic acid?
EPA is derived from linolenic acid and is the main fatty acid found in fish, also called omega 3.
What is Docosahexanoic acid?
DHE is an omega 3 fatty acid and is synthesized in the body from alpha linolenic acid and is also present in fish. DHA is present in the retina and the brain.
What are sterols?
They serve a vital function in the body and are produced by the body. They are not essential nutrients. This structure is similar to cholesterol.
What are J. Cis fatty acids?
Hydrogenation makes monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids go from a state of their original form that is cis to a trans form.Addition of H ions will cause vegetable oil to harden.
They may stimulate cholesterol synthesis and are potentially carcinogenic.
How are triglycerides absorbed?
They are absorbed with the transport of chylomicrons into the lymphatic system which in turn will pour into the blood stream at the thoracic duct.
Once triglycerides enter the blood stream the chylomicrons take the triglycerides into the cells. True/false
True. The triglycerides that are on the outer part of the chylomicrons are down by lipoprotein lipase.
The fatty acids are taken by the body's cells while the monoglycerides are taken to the liver to be processed.
What are the names of the following vitamins?
Vit. A
Vit B1
Vit B2
Vit B3
A- retinol
What is the function of Vit B1?
It is a water soluble vitamin that the body needs to break down CHOs fat and protein. It needs vit. B in order to make ATP. It is essential as well for proper nerve function.
What are the potential functions of Vitamin C?
It is needed to make collagen.
It aids in the formation of liver bile which helps to detoxify alcohol and other substances.
levels in the eye may decrease with age, and this may be a cause of premature cataracts.
Vit. C has been reported to reduce activity of the enzyme aldose reductase which helps protect people with diabetes.
It may as well, have a mild protective factor against lead.
What is Vitamin D?
It is a fat soluble vitamin that help maintain blood levels of Calcium. It is necessary for healthy bones and teeth. It plays a role in immunity and blood cell formation, and may have some anticancer benefits.
Are minerals considered organic?
No. They are inorganic, meaning that they are not man made.
What are the 12 most important minerals?
F (Fluorine)
What is BMI and what is its function?
BMI(basic metabolic Index) provided a simple numeric measure of a persons fatness or thinness.
What are the current value settings for BMI?
A BMI of 18.5 to 25 may indicate optimal weight. Under 18.5 may indicate underweight values.
In physiology, the term weight is used interchangeably with mass. For a given body shape and given density, the BMI will be proportional to weight e.g. if all the body weight increases by 50%, the BMI increaases by 50%.

BMI = 703 X weight(lb
height squared(in2)
In its metabolic cycle, what is meant by the absorptive and postabsorptive stage?
The absorptive stage happens about 3-4 hours after a typical meal. The nutrients are being absorbed by the body.
Post absorptive- nutrients are being mobilized.
Define calorie.
A calorie is he amount of energy that is needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by one degree centigrade.
According to research, the average adult consumes app. 900,000 calories a year. True/False
What is BMR?
It is the basic metabolic rate, or the amount of energy your body needs to perform essential activities.
How is the BMR calculated?
1. Calculate weight into Kg. (Divide the number of pounds by 2.2).
2. For males: multiply your weight in Kg by 1.0. (Females by 0.9).
3. This number approximates the number of calories you consume per hour. Now multiply this number by 24 to estimate how many calories you need per day to support basic metabolic functions.
4. The result is your personal basic metabolic rate.
What is deamination?
When an amino acid group breaks off an amino acid that makes a molecule of ammonia and keto acid.
What is Marasmus?
Malnutrition caused by insufficient caloric intake.
What are the two types of hormones secreted in the endocrine system?
Protein based hormones
The pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalmus of the lower forebrain. True/False
Do neurotransmitters act quickly?
Yes. Within milliseconds, on adjacent muscle, gland or other nervous cells and their effect is short lived.
Hormones in contrast take longer to produce their intended effect(seconds to days).
Hormones can be chemically classified into four groups. What are they?
Amino acid derived-modified amino acids
2.Polypeptide and proteins-Hormones that are chains of amino acids of less than or more than 100 aa. Some are glycoproteins containing glucose
3. Steroids-Hormones that are lipids that are synthesized from cholesterol by 4 interlocking CHO rings.
Eicosanoids-Lipids that are synthesized from the fatty acid chains of phospholipids found in plasma membrane.
What is the action of lipid soluble hormones?
Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones diffuse through the cell membrane of target cells. The hormone then binds to a receptor protein that in turn activates a DNA segment that turns on specific genes.
What is the action of water soluble hormones?
Polypeptide, protein and most aa acid hormones bind to a receptoe protein on the plasma membrane of the cell. The receptor protein stimulates the production of secondary messengers.
What is cAMP?
A secondary messenger(cAMP) is produced when the receptor protein activates another membrane bound protein called a G protein. This G protein activates adenylate cyclase, the enzyme that ctalyzes the production of cAMP from ATP. cAMPtriggers an enzyme that generates specific cellular changes.
What is IP3?
Inositol triphosphate, a secondary messenger, is produced from membrane phospholipids. IP3 triggers the release of Ca+ from the ER, which then activates enzymes that genertae cellular changes.
The hypothalamus makes up the lower region of the diencephalon and lies just above the brain stem. True/False
True. The pituitary is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum. The pituitary has 2 major regions, the anterior and the posterior region.(neurohypophysis)
What is the communication between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary?
It occurs through neurosecretory cells that span the short distance between the hypothalamus and the neurohypophysis.
How are neurosecretory substances secreted?
They are packaged in vesicles and transported through the axon and stored in the axon terminals that lie in the posterior pituitary.
When the neurosecretory cells are styimulated, the action potential genertaes triggers that release the astored hormones from the axon terminals to a capillary network within the post. pituitary.
Where are the hormones ADH and oxytocin secreted from?
The posterior pituitary.
What is the name of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary?
Many of the hormones produced here are tropic hormones or tropins, which are hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete their hormones.
How do hypothalamic hormones reach the anterior pituitary?
Their are chemical signals from the hypothalamus, which travel to the anterior lobe by way of a special capillary system from the hypothalamus, down the median eminence to the anterior lobe.
List several of the hypothalamic hormones.
DA-dopamine, and PIF(prolactin inhibiting factor.
Do RBCs secrete eicosanoids?
No. All cells do except RBCs.These hormones are paracrines, or local hormones that affect neighboring cells.
What are the 2 groups of eicosanoids?
1. Prostaglandins(PGs)
2. Leukotrienes(LT)
Is parathyroid hormone considered an antagonistic hormone?
Yes. In the maintenance of Ca+ concentration in the blood, parathyroid hormones from the parathyroid glands increase Ca+ in the blood by augmenting Ca+ absorption in the intestines and reabsorption in the kidneys and stimulating Ca+ release from the bones.
Calcitonin(CT) produces the opposite effect by inhibiting the breakdown of bone matrix and decreasing the release of Ca+ in the blood.
What is the function of thyrocalcitonin?
It decreases the level of Ca+ in the blood.
Thyroid hormone consists of two major components. What are they?
Thyroxin and Iodine. This hormone increases the metabolism of most body cells.
What is simple goiter?
A deficiency of iodine in the diet. it leads to the enlargement of the thyroid gland.
How is the thyroid gland receptive to iodine?
As blood flows through the thyroid gland, iodidie is converted to an active form of iodine,
This iodine combines with an aa called tyrosine.
Two molecules of iodinated tyrosine then combine to form thyroxine.
Following the formation, the thyroxin becomes bound to a polysaccharide protein material called thyroglobulin.
several weeks of stored thyroxin may be accumulated in the gland.
Is the brain particularly receptive to thyroid hormone?
Describe calcitonin.
It is a 32 aa polypeptide hormone. It is an additional hormone produced by the thyroid, and contributes to the regulation of blood Ca+ levels.
What are the two types of cells that make up the parathyroid tissue?
Oxyphil cells-function is unknown,
Chief cells-These produce parathyroid hormone.
The adult body contains as much as 1 kg of calcium. True/False
True. Most is found in bone and teeth.
The glucocorticoids include which substances?
Corticosterone, cortisone, and hydrocortisone or cortisol.
These hormones serve to stimulate the conversion of amino acids into CHOs which is called gluconeogenesis, and the formation of glycogen by the liver.
The cortex of the adrenal gland is known to produce over 20 hormones. True/False
True. The three categories of cortical secretions are:
Sex hormones.
What are some of insulins functions?
Stimulates glycogen synthesis
Increases the activity of the enzyme that catalyzes the rate limiting step in glycogen synthesis
Increases triglyceride levels by inhibiting triglyceride breakdown and by stimulating production of triglyceride through fatty acid and glycerophospahte synthesis.
Anatomically, briefly describe the pineal gland.
It is a reddish gray body about the size of a pea(8mm in humans) located just rostral dorsal to the superior colliculus and behind and beneath the stria medullaris between the laterally positioned thalamic bodies. It is a part of the epithalamus.
In the male fetus, where do the testes develop?
They develop near the kidneys, then descend into the scrotum just prior to birth.
The function of the scrotal sac is to keep the testes cooler than 37 C. True/False
True. temperature within this compartment is about 35.5 degrees C. This is necessary for spermatogenesis.
Spending too much time in hot tubs can cause sterility. True/False
What are the 2 muscles that regulate the temperature of the testes?
The dartos and cremaster muscles.
What is the dartos muscle?
It is a layer of smooth muscle fibers in the subcutaneous tissue of the scrotum. This causes the wrinkling appearance of the scrotum.
What is the cremaster muscle?
It is a thin strand of skeletal muscle associated with the testes and spermatic cord. It is a continuation of the internal oblique muscle of the abdominal wall. It can raise or lower the testes.
Around 90% of the weight of the testes consists of what type of tubule tissue?
Seminiferous tubules. These are the functional units of the testes, where spermatogenesis takes place.
What are the cells of Leydig?
These are the interstitial cells. They are located in between the seminiferous tubules.
They are responsible for secreting the male sex hormone testosterone.
What is a Sertoli cell?
A Sertoli cell is a type of sustantacular cell. It is a nurse cell of the testes which is part of the seminiferous tubule.
How is a Sertoli cell activated?
It is activated by FSH and has an FSH receptor on its membranes.
Its main function is to nurture the developing sperm cells through the stages of spermatogenesis. It has been referred to as the "mother cell". This term is rarely used.
What is the blood testis barrier?
The junctions of Sertoli cells form the blood testis barrier, a structure that partitions ther interstitial blood compartment of the testis from the adluminal compartment of the seminiferous tubules.
How do the testes receive blood?
Through the gonadal artery.
What is the epididymis?
The seminiferous tubules join together to become the epididymis. It is atube that is about 20 feet long that is coiled on the posterior surface of each testis.
What is the ductus deferens?
It is also called the sperm duct or spermatic deferens. It extends from the epididymis in the scrotum on its own side into the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal.
What are the seminal vesicles?
The pair of seminal vesicles are posterior to the urinary bladder. They secrete fructose to provide an energy source for sperm and alkalinity to enhance sperm motility.
Where is the prostate gland located?
The prostate is a muscular gland that surrounds the first 2.5 cm(1 inch) of the urethra as it emerges from the bladder.
The smooth muscle of this gland contracts during ejaculation to contribute to the expulsion from the urethra.
What are the bulbourethral glands?
These glands also called the Cowper glands, are located below the prostate gland and empty into the urethra.
Why is seminal fluid alkaline?
The alkalinity of seminal fluid helps neutralize the acidic vaginal pH and permits sperm mobility.
About 65-75% of the seminal fluid originates from the seminal glands. True/False
This fluid contains proteins, enzymes, fructose, mucus, vitamin C, flavins, phosphorylcholine and prostaglandins
In the seminal fluid, what is the function of the high fructose content?
It provides nutrient energy for the spermatozoa as they travel through the female reproductive system.
What is responsible for the odor of semen?
Basic amines, such as putrescine, spermine, spermidine and cadaverine.
App. how many sperm are normally released per ejaculation.
About 200-500 million.
How long is the sperm formation process?
Spermatogonia divides several times during the process of sperm development. The entire process of sperm formation and maturation takes about 9-10 weeks.
The tail flagellates of the sperm cell propel the sperm at what speed?
About 1-3mm/minute, by rotating the tail like a prolpeller in a circular motion.
The cell is characterized by a minimum of cytoplasm.
During fertilization, what happens to the sperms mitochondria?
During fertilization, the sperms mitochondria is destroyed by the egg cell, and this menas that only the mother is able to provide the baby's mitochondria and mitochondrial DNA which has in fact, an important application in tracing maternal ancestry.
What is CatSper?
A recent discovery links hyperactivation to a sudden influx of Ca+ ions into the tail. The whip like tail(flagellum) of the sperm is studded with ion channels formed by proteins called CatSper. These channels are selective, allowing only calcium channels to pass.
Why is sperm hyperactivity required?
It is necessary for breaking through 2 physical barriers that protect the egg from fertilization.
What is the first barrier that the sperm must pass?
The first barrier to sperm is made up of so called cumulus cells embedded in a gel like substance made up of hyaluronic acid. The cumulus cells develop in the ovary with the egg ans supports it as it grows.
What is the second barrier that the sperm must pass?
It is the coating of the oocyte. It is a thick shell formed by glycoproteins called the zona pellucida. One of the proteins that make this up binds to a partner molecule on the sperm.
This lock and key type mechanism is species specific and prevents the sperm and egg of different species from fusing.
What is a zygote?
The binding of a sperm to an ovum is called a zygote. It is a single cell with a complete set of chromosomes that normally develops into an embryo.
What is a varicocele?
This is a varicose vein(swollen vein) in the network of veins that run from the testicles. They develop abnormally when a boy is going through puberty. It is not harmful but can interfere with normal sperm production.
Regarding testicular cancer, this is one of the most common cancers in men younger than 40. True/False
What is a hydrocoele?
When fluid collects in the membranes surrounding the testes. They cause swelling of the testicle but generally elicit little to no pain. Surgery may be needed to correct this condition.
What is hypospadia?
This is a disorder in which the urethra opens on the underside of the penis. not at the tip.
What is Phimosis?
This is a tightness of the foreskin of the penis and is common in newborns and young children. It may resolve without treatment.
What is Paraphimosis?
This may develop when a boy's uncircumsized penis is retracted but doesn't return to the unretracted position. Blood flow to the penis may be impaired.
Ambiguous geitalia occurs when a child is born with genitals that aren't clearly male or female. True/False
True. The penis may be very small or nonexistant, but there is some testicular tissue. There may even be as well, some ovarian tissue.
What is a vasectomy?
A small segment of each ductus deferens is surgically removed after it passes from the testes.
At about 5 months of gestation, the ovaries contain app. how many oogonia?
About 6-7 million. These then go through meiosis and then mature into oocytes.
The ovaries of a newborn baby girl have about 2 million oocytes. True/False
True. This number declines to 300,000 to 400,000 by the time puberty is attained.
On average, about how many oocytes are ovulated during a women's reproductive lifetime?
About 400./
When a young women reaches puberty at about 13- 14, one of the matured oocytes is discharged from alternating ovaries every 28 days. True/False
What is the mons veneris?
From latin, the mound of Venus is the soft mound at the front of the vulva(fatty tissue covering the pubic bone. Also called the mons pubis.
Briefly describe the uterus.
Located near the floor of the pelvic cavity, it ishollow to allow a blastocyte or fertilized egg to implant and grow.
It also allows for the inner lining of the uterus to build up until a fertilized egg is implanted, or it is sloughed off during menses.
The ovaries alternately release an egg. When an ovary does ovulate it is swept into the lumen by fimbriae of the Fallopian tube. True/False
What is the function of the myoepithelial cells in the mammary glands?
The myoepithelial cells can contract, similar to muscle cells and therby push the milk from the alveoli through the lactiferous ducts towards the nipple.
The reproductive cycle can be divided into 2 cycles. What are they?
Ovarian and Uterine cycle.
What happens during the uterine cycle?
The endometrial lining of the uterus builds up under the influence of increasing levels of estrogen(estradiol).
Follicles develop and within 72 hours one matures into an ovum or egg. The ovary then releases the egg.
After ovulation, the uterine lining enters what phase?
A secretory phase or the ovarian cycle, under the influence of progesterone.
What occurs if fertilization and implantation are achieved?
The embryo produces Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin(HCG) which maintains the corpus luteum.
Progesterone is pro gestational and maintains the uterine lining.
If implantation and fertilization do not occur, the corpus luteum turns into a what?
A corpus albicans.
What is menarche?
It is the onset of menstruation.
In the uterine cycle, are their changes in body temperature?
Yes. A normal temperature will be around 97-98. The day of ovulation the temperature will spike down usually into the 96-97 range and by the next morning, will return to normal body temperature.
What is premature menopause?
It is menopause that occurs before the age of 40, and occurs in app. 1% of women.
Other causes can be from hypothyroidism, autoimmune disorders and diabetes mellitus.
How is premature menopause diagnosed?
It is diagnosed by measuring the levels of FSH and LH. The levels of these hormones will be higher if menopause has occurred.
Ovulation marks the beginning of what phase?
The luteal phase. This is started by the wall of the Graafian follicle to rupture and cause a flow of antral fluid that will carry the oocyte to the ovary's surface. The ruptured follicle is then turned into a gland(corpus luteum).This secretes progesterone and some estrogen.
What happens during the proliferative phase?
During this phase, the uterus renews itself and prepares for pregnancy.\
The endometerial glands grow and enlarge causing more blood vessels to appear.
What is fecundity?
Healthy couples in their mid 20s, having regular sex have a 1 in 4 chance of getting pregnant in any given month. This is fecundity.
What is Clomifene citrate?
It is a fertility medication which stimulates the ovaries to ripen and release eggs.
What is ZIFT?
Zygote intrafallopian transfer. Eggs are removed from the woman, fertilized and then placed in the woman's fallopian tubes rather than the uterus.
What is GIFT?
Gamete intrafallopian transfer . Eggs are removed from the woman and placed in one of the fallopian tubes, along with the man's sperm. Fertilization will take place in the woman's body.
What is the purpose of a pap test?
It can detect precancerous and cancerous cells on the cervix.
What is endometeriosis?
In this disease a specialized type of tissue that normally lines the inside of the uterus(endometrium) becomes implanted outside of the uterus, commonly on the fallopian tubes, ovaries or the tissue lining the pelvis.
Regarding endometriosis, what happens during the menstrual cycle?
Hormones signal the lining of the uterus to thicken in order to prepare for possible pregnancy.. If no pregnancy occurs, the hormone levels decrease causing the lining to shed.
In other parts it breaks down and bleeds. The blood becomes trapped and surrounding tissue becomes irritated. The trapped blood may lead to growth of cysts, scar tissue or adhesions. Pain is common and infertility is common as well.
What is Mittelschmertz?
Ovulatory pain in the lower abdomen.
What is Vasa Previa?
This occurs app. in 1/3000 births.This happens when the umbilical cord inserts abnormally in the fetal membranes of the placenta , which appears abnormally shaped or positioned.
What occurs during umbilical clotting?
This is more common in genetic abnormalities, such as factor 5 Leiden. This will prevent blood flow to and from the baby and many times will cause the placenta to also clot and die. The fetus will die of starvation if this condition is not caught early.
What is a BraxtonHicks contraction?
A normal contraction of the uterus. It is usually painless.
What is preeclampsia?
It is the medical term for high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, blurry vision, liver pain are some possible symptoms.
Despite this change in how eclampsia is viewed, it is still common to speak of the condition in terms of preeclampsia, which is why the official definition still talks about seizures or coma “in the setting of preeclampsia.” This somewhat outdated phrase really refers to a variety of symptoms –- along with the characteristic seizures –- that may include:

Protein in the urine
Elevated blood pressure (>140 mmHg systolic or >90 mmHg diastolic)
Abdominal pain
Decreased urine output
Signs of “fetal distress,” i.e. indications that the baby is having problems
Low blood platelet count
What are teratogens?
Substances that cause birth defects.
Alcohol, tobacco and certain prescription and possibly over the counter drugs as well.
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?
This is a problem only when an Rh neg. woman has a partner who is Rh positive resulting in an Rh positive baby. If the mother and the baby's blood come into contact during birth, her body produces antibodies against the baby's blood.
First time births are not affected. Future pregnancies will require careful pregnancy management to avoid the second(secondigravida) baby from being afflicted.
In HDN, what happens exactly?
As the mother's antibodies stay in the blood they cause an immune response against future Rh + fetus. The mother's body rejects the fetus as it would a foriegn body.
How is HDN treated?
A drug called Rhogam is now given by injection at 28-30 weeks of gestation, and then given again if their is a confirmation of Rh positive, within 24 hours after birth to protect future pregnancies.
It is recommended that Rh negative mothers should also be given the injection after miscarriage or abortion.
HDN is an alloimmune condition that develops in a fetus when the IgG antibodies that have been produced by the mother and have passed through the placenta. True/False
True. The antibodies will attack the baby's RBCs and cause reticulocytosis and severe anemia.
As a result of HDN, can hemolysis lead to elevated bilirubin levels?
Yes.After delivery, bilirubin is no longer cleared(via the placenta) from the neonates blood and the symptoms of jaundice increase within 24 hours after birth.
Regarding embryo cryopreservation, embryos that are selected for storage are placed in what kind of solution?
In liquid Nitrogen and may be preserved for a long time. There are currently about 500,000 frozen embryos in the US.
What are Pluripotent, embryonic stem cells?
Pluripotent stem cells originate as inner mass cells within a blastocyst.The stem cells can become any tissue in the body, excluding a placenta.
Only the morula cells are totipotent, able to become all tissues, including a placenta.
What are embryonic celtic cell lines(ES cell lines)?
ES cell lines are cultures of cells derived from the epiblast tissue of the inner cell mass(ICM) of a blastocyst. A blastocyst is an early stage embryo, app. 4-5 days old in humans and consisiting of 50-150 cells. These cells are pluripotent.
What is Cordocentesis?
The procedure for taking blood from the fetal umbilical cord via a needle through the mother's abdomen.
Define Down's syndrome.
Also known as Trisomy 21. It is a disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21 in the cells.
What is a Nuchal scan?
It is a specialultrasound scan that gives an estimate of the risk of Down's syndrome.
What is embryonic quickening?
The process that occurs between the 17th and the 20th week od development. The fetus' leg bones acheive their final relative proportions. In this process the muscles contract, causing movement at the synovial joints.
The sequence of the human genome(app. 30 billion base pairs but fewer than 30,000 genes) was completed in 2003. True/false
True. All human cells hold app. 30,000 different genes.
What is genetic transcription?
It is the process of making RNA. In response to an enzyme RNA polymerase breaks the hydrogen bonds of the gene.
What is Translation?
It is the synthesis of the protein on the ribosome as the mRNA moves across the ribosome.
What is hemachromotosis?
About 1/300 individuals are born with this disease. The main characteristic is the intake of too much iron. Deposits of iron form on the organ viscera, including the liver, heart and pancreas. Organ failure may result. Most patients have Celtic ancestry.
Are there treatments for hemochromotosis?
The most common treatmnet is to induce anemia and maintain it until the iron storage is reduced. Therapeutic phlebotomy is usually employed. This must be done 1-2 times a week.
Strangely, some patients only have to do it once. others will have to do it indefinitely. The blood removed is too high in iron to be used for purposes of donation. However, occasionally the RBCs may be harvested.
Why is the drug hydroxyurea sometimes employed for the treatment of sickle cell disease?
Hydroxyurea or Droxia appears to work by increasing the flexibility of sickle cells.
Regarding growth, what is Cephalocaudal trend?
This means that growth occurs from head to tail. The head develops more rapidly than the lower part of the body.
What is proximodistal trend?
This means that the head growth proceeds literally from near to far or from center of the body outward. At birth, the brain is nearer its adult shape and size than any other physical structure. The brain continues to develop at an astounding pace throughout infancy and toddlerhood.
What is pubertal gynecomastia in boys?
Estradiol is produced from testosterone in male puberty as well as female, and male breasts respond to rising estradiol levels. This is gynecomastia.
What is Progeria?
The term progeria narrowly rfers to Hutchinson Gilford Progeria syndrome, but the term more usually is used to describe the accelerated aging diseases. Progeria means prematurely old.
Most die around 13 years of age.
Is Progeria caused by a defective DNA repair?
No. It is caused by mutations in a LMNA(Lamin A protein) gene on chromosome 1.
Nuclear lamina is a protein scaffold around the edge of the nucleus that helps organize nuclear processes such as RNA and DNA synthesis.