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454 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
At what temp F does tissue damage begin?
113F
What is the increase (in %) of metabolic demand for each 10 degrees increase in skin temperature?
100%
What is a contraindication to heat therapy that can result in ischemic necrosis?
scar tissue
Heat therapy to scar tissue can result in what complication?
ischemic necrosis
What is the mechanism for heat transfer in deep heating modalities?
conversion
Hot water, parrafin bath, hot packs, heating pads transfer heat through what mechanism?
conduction
Fluidotherapy, contrast bathe, hydrotherapy transfer heat through what mechanism?
convection
Radiant heat, ultrasound and diathermy transfer heat through what mechanism?
conversion
Heat transfer through conversion of electromagnetic radiation is called what?
conversion
What is the maximum penetration of superficial heat in cm?
2cm
What is the peak temp of a heating pad in F?
125F
What is the ratio of parrafin wax:mineral oil?
7:1
What is the max temp F of parrafin therapy?
130
What are 3 indication for parrafin baths?
RA
scleroderma
contractures
What is the peak temp for fluidotherapy?
120
What type of tank is used to total body immersion?
Hubbard tank
What is the peak temp for Hubbard tank?
102.2
Use of a Hubbard tank is limited to those with a vital capacity greater than what?
>1L
What are 3 contraindications to contrast baths?
small vessel disease from DM
Burger's disease
arteriosclerotic endarteritis
What is the max/min temp of contrast baths?
111/50
What is the distance from the infrared lamp to the skin (range in inches)?
18-24 inches
An infrared lamp's effectiveness decreases by what formula?
the square of their distance from the body
An infrared lamp treatment is best for which patients?
those who cannot tolerate the weight of hot packs
What are three examples of deep heat (conversion) modalities?
ultrasound
short wave diathermy
microwave diathermy
Ultrasound frequencies above what Hz produce thermal effects?
>20,000 Hz
What two mechanisms produce heat in tissues undergoing ultrasound?
beam attenuation
absorption
Ultrasound heating is more pronounced at what tissue levels?
tissue interfaces
Beam attenuation and absorption is most pronounced in what order of 5 tissues types (i.e. tendon, fat, bone, skin, and muscle)?
bone, tendon, skin, muscle, and fat
What type of bone produces the highest termperature?
cancellous bone
Where is absorption the greatest?
bone-muscle interface
What is unidirectional movement of compressible material or medium due to pressure assymetries caused by ultrasound waves?
acoustic streaming
What two ultrasound effects are associated with wound contraction and protein synthesis?
acoustic streaming and acoustic cavitation
What is gas bubbles produced within the sound field due to turbulence, which, by their forced oscillation and bursting, are capable of disrupting tissue.
acoustic cavitation
What are two effects of ultrasound standing waves?
elevated pressure and rarefaction
Do standing waves have physiological benefits?
no
What the main indication for ultrasound?
OA
What are two primary contraindications to ultrasound?
near pacemakers or
tumors
What two types of total knee or hip replacement are an ultrasound contraindication?
total hip or knee with methylmethacrylate or polyethelyne
What particular characteristic of methylmethacrylate or polyethylene make them susceptible to ultrasound effects?"
high coeffecient of absorption
Why should children not receive ultrasound?
skeletal immaturity; open epiphysis can be affected with decreased growth due to thermal injury
Over what organ in women is ultrasound contraindicated?
gravid uterus
menstruating uterus
US should be avoided over what intensity (in W/cm2)
>3 W/cm2
What is the frequency range for US (in MHz)?
0.8-1.1 MHz
What is the unit of ultrasound intensity?
MHz
US can be used under water, but only if it has undergone what process?
degassed overnight
What is the WHO suggested maximum US intensity?
3 W/cm2
Power output/effective radiating area are = ?
spatial average intensity
What is the average intensity range (W/cm2) for tendonitis/bursitis?
1.2-1.8 W/cm2
At 1.2-1.8 W/cm2 what is the maximal tissue temperature generated (F)?
114.8F
What is the duration for US?
5-10 minutes per site
Is US deep heating superior to shortwave or microwave diathermy?
Yes
At what depth (cm)will tissue be heated to 113F for 2 minutes?
8cm
What is the most common US technique direct or indirect?
direct
What body parts are placed in degassed water for US treatment?
hands and feet (uneven surfaces)
What is the frequency range (MHz) for phonopheresis?
1-2 MHz
What are the intensity (W/cm2) and time (minutes) ranges for phonpheresis?
1-3 W/cm2 for 5-7 minutes
What deep heating technique converts radiowave electromagnetic energy into thermal energy?
shortwave diathermy
What is the most commonly used diathermy frequency?
27.12 MHz
What is the maximum depth (cm) for shortwave diathermy?
5 cm
What technique is preferred for heating of superficial muscles?
shortwave diathermy
What shortwave diathermy method produces high tempertatures in water-poor tissues?
condensor method
What shortwave diathermy method is used for deep joints such as the hip?
condensor method diathermy
What patient feedback is used to dose shortwave diathermy?
pain perception of heat
What is the subcutaneous fat temperature in shortwave diathermy (C)?
15 C
What patient reaction can cause severe local heating, and why?
sweating/sweat is highly conductive
What are 4 indications for shortwave diathermy?
chronic prostatitis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
myalgia
back spasm
What is a unique shortwave diathermy contraindication (that differs from US contraindications)?
metal
What are the two frequencies for microwave diathermy (MHz)?
915Hz and 2456 MHz
915 MHz and 2456 MHz are frequencies for what modalities?
microwave diathermy
What is least penetrating? US, shortwave diathermy, or microwave diathermy?
microwave diathermy
What is the best modality for chronic prostatitis?
shortwave diathermy
What is the best modality for refractory pelvic inflammatory disease?
shortwave diathermy
What are two unique indications for microwave diathermy?
resolution of hematomas
local hyperthermia in cancer patients
What is the best modality for resolution of hematomas?
microwave diathermy
What is the best modality for back spasm?
shortwave diathermy
What is the best modality for local hyperthermia in cancer patients?
microwave diathermy
What is a risk of microwave diathermy to therapists?
cataracts
What structures does microwave diathermy preferentially heat?
fluid-filled cavities
What is the average temperature at 1-3 cm with microwave diathermy?
105.8
What is the depth range of microwave diathermy(cm)?
1-4 cm
What are three forms of diathermy?
ultrasound
shortwave
microwave
What is the depth range of shotwave (cm)?
4-5 cm
What is the depth of ultrasound (cm)?
8cm
What diathermy technique is best for contractures?
US
Near what type of surgery should US not be used?
laminectomy
The contraindication of fluid-filled cavities, such as eyes, blisters, moist skin, and edematous tissues, applies to what modality?
microwave diathermy
Use over contacts lenses is contraindicated in what two modalities?
US and shortwave
Use near heart or reproductive organs is contraindicated in what modality?
US
Use near brain and spinal cord are contraindications of what diathermy?
US
What is a contraindication that applies to all diathermies?
skeletal immaturity
Cold therapy decreases firing rate of what two types of afferent muscle fibers?
Ia and II afferent fibers
What is a primary effect of cold on muscle?
decreases spasticity
What transient effect does cold therapy have on systolic and diastolic blood pressure?
increases both transiently
What disease is a contraindication to cold?
Raynaud's disease/phenomenon
What are two examples of cold treatment conduction?
cold packs
ice massage
Cold packs and ice massage transfer cold by what mechanism?
conduction
Cold baths transfer cold by what mechanism?
convection
What is an example of cold convection?
cold baths
Vapocoolant spray uses what mechanism to transfer cold?
evaporation
What is an example of evaporation to transfer cold?
vapocoolant spray
By how many degrees C is muscle cooled at a depth of 2cm afer 20 minutes of hydocollator pack?
5 C
What is the water temp range in C of cold baths?
4-10C
What is the indication for cold baths?
localized burns
What is an indication for vapocoolant?
myofascial pain (spray and stretch technique)
What is the temp (F) and pressure (mmHg) of cold compression units?
45F/60mmHg
What is the indication for cold compression units?
acute musculoskeletal injury
What is the wavelength range (A) for UV?
2000-4000A
What is the bacteriocidal wavelenght of UV (A)
2537A
What molecule can be altered with UV?
DNA
What are two sources of UV lamps?
mercury
cold quartz
What vitamin is produced by UV?
Vitamin D
What is the primary wound effect of UV?
vascularization of wound margins
What is the primary indication for UV?
psoriasis
What is Goeckerman's technique?
coal tar ointment application prior to UV
What is the technique of coal tar ointment prior to UV treatment?
Goeckerman's technique
What are two skin related precautions for UV?
scars and atrophic skin
What is an infectious precaution for UV?
active tuberculosis
What is are two endocrine precautions for UV?
severe DM and hyperthyroidism
What is a vitamin deficiency contraindication of UV?
pellagra
What are three dermatological contraindications or UV?
active psoriasis
eczema
xeroderma pigmentosum
What is an oral/genital ulcer contraindication of UV?
herpes simplex
Minimal exposure time of UV is determined by erythema on what limb surface?
volar surface of the forearm
How long (hours) does it take for the minimal erythema dosage to subside?
24 hours
What is the initial prescription range in MED of UV treatment?
1-2 MED
4th degree MED erythema with superficial blister is what MED dose?
10
What is the MED dose that produces 3rd degree erthyema in 2-4 hours with local pain and edema and local desquamation?
5 MED
What MED dosage produces a 2nd degree erythema in 4-6 hours with pain and subsides in 2-4 days followed by local desquamation?
2.5 MED
Electrotherapy stimulates what type of nerve fibers?
large myelinated Type A
What is a ROM effect of electrotherapy?
increases ROM
What is a muscle strength effect of ET?
increases muscle strenght
What 3 polypeptides are released by ET?
B-endorphins, enkephalins,
vasoactive intestinal peptide
What 2 neurotransmitters are released by ET?
dopamine and serotonin
What are 2 circulatory contraindications of ET?
thrombosis
thrombophlebitis
Over what 2 structure is ET contraindicated?
carotid sinus and heart
What neurological condition is a contraindication to ET?
seizure disorder
What is the placebo effect percentage range of TENS?
30-35%
TENS is based of what theory by whom?
Gate control by Melzack and Wall
What nerve fibers does TENS stimulate?
large, myelinated Type IA afferent
What structure in the spinal cord is stimulated by TENS?
substantia gelatinosa (by Type IA myelinated fibers)
TENS pain relief at 4 Hz stim is blocked by what drug?
naloxone
Naloxone does not block TENS pain relief at what frequency?
200 Hz
What type of TENS is the most effective? (frequency high or low; stimulation high or low)
high frequency low intensity
Where in the spinal cord is the substantia gelatinosa?
dorsal horn
What afferent fibers to the thalamus are blocked by TENS?
type C fibers
What is the frequency range(Hz) of a conventional TENS stimulator?
50-100 Hz
What is the prescription of ET using acupuncture needles? (high or low frequency; high or low sitmulation?
low frequency; high intensity stimulation
What TENS method stimulates C-fibers causing counterirritation?
hyperstimulation TENS
Neuromuscular electical stim requires what neuron to be intact?
alpha motor neuron
NMES applies what level stim?
above the threshold to cause muscle contraction
NMES are most commonly internal or external?
external
What is the frequency range (Hz) of external NMES electrodes?
10-50 Hz
The most common functional neuromuscular stimulation utilizes an open or closed loop?
closed loop
Manual feedback is the hallmark of open or closed loop FES?
open
What is the primary indication for neuromuscular stimulation?
strengthens and maintains muscle mass after immobilization
Strengthening and maintaining muscle mass after immobilization are indications for what modality?
neuromuscular electrical stimulation
Neuromuscular stim helps prevent what 3 common complication of immobility?
DVT, atrophy, osteoporosis
Neuromuscular electrical stimulation systems are used for what SCI condtions?
phrenic nerve pacing
urinary incontinence
Neuromuscular electrical stimulation to antagonist muscles in spasticiy management provokes what phenomenon?
reflex inhibition
Neuromuscular electrical stimulation is used on what joint in a hemiplegic limb?
shoulder
What is the cardiac effect of neuromuscular electrical stimulation ?
cardiovascular conditioning
What is monitored during FES exercise of lower extremities in SCI?
BP
What is an indication of iontophoresis?
plantar fasciitis
What is a transdermal electrical delivery system that propels a charged substance across the skin?
iontophoresis
What is a neurocirculatory effect of massage?
reflex vasodilation
What technique is kneading to increase circulation?
petrissage
What is petrissage?
kneading to increase circulation and reduce edema
What is effleurage?
gliding movement of the skin without deep muscle movement; used for muscle relaxation
What is gliding movement of the skin without deep muscle movement?
effleurage
What massage technique is used for chest therapy to remove secretions?
tapotement
What is tapotement?
percussion massage technique to clear secretions
What massage technique prevents adhesions in acute injuries?
friction massage
An acute injury is an indication for what type of massage?
friction massage
What is friction massage?
a massage technique to prevent adhesions in an acute injury and breaks adhesion in subacute and chronic injuries
What are the two directions of friction massage on the muscles?
transverse or perpindicular
What massage technique is used for reduction of contractures?
soft-tissue mobilization
Soft tissue mobilization is done with the fascia/muscle in a relaxed or stretched position?
stretched
Is myofascial release light or heavy pressure on muscle?
prolonged light pressure
What is the distance (cm) range of cervical elongation during traction? using how much weight?
2-20mm/25 lbs
What are 4 congenital contraindications to cervical traction?
Downs
Marfans
achondroplastic dwarfism
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
What is one rheumatoid contraindication to cervical traction?
rheumatoid arthritis
What is a spinal instability contraindication to cervical traction?
atlanto-axial subluxation with cord compromise
What is a vascular contraindication to cervical traction?
vertibrobasilar insufficiency
What is a pulmonary contraindication to lumbar traction?
restrictive lung disease
What is a GI contraindication to lumbar traction?
active peptic ulcer disease
What is a circulatory contraindication to lumbar traction?
aortic aneurysm
What degree range of cervical flexion is used in cervical traction for nerve root decompression?
20-30 degrees
For lumbar traction, to what degree are the hips and knees flexed with the patient supine?
knees and hips are flexed to 90 degrees
For cervical traction how much weight is used?
25 lbs
How much weight is needed for posterior lumbar distraction?
>50lbs
How much weight is needed for anterior lumbar distraction?
>100 lbs
How much weight is needed overcome friction in traction in relation to the weight of the body part being treated?
1/2 weight of the body part being treated.
What is the percentage of total body weight is the lumbar spine?
25%
What provides a greater pull intermittent or continuous traction?
intermittent
What is the functional unit of contraction?
sarcomere
Is myosin thin or thick?
thick
Is actin thin or thick
thin
What attaches to the outer margins of the z line?
actin
How the sarcomere measured?
from Z-line to Z-line
What is the zone in the A band (myosin) that does not overlap
H zone (at center)
Does the I band (actin) overlap?
no
What shrinks during muscle contraction?
H and I zones
What muscle type is high in oxidative enzymes?
type I
Type I muscle is high in what enzymes?
oxidative
What fiber type is used for low intensity, long duration activities?
type I
What muscle type has high levels of glycogen and phosphoylase
Type II
What is the fast fatiguable subtype?
IIb
What are the fast-twitch, glycolytic fibers?
IIb
What are the fatigue resistant fiber subtype?
IIa
What is the description of IIa fibers (i.e. fast-twitch, slow-twitch, glycolytic, oxidative)
fast-twitch, glycolytic/oxidative
What is the description of IIb fibers (i.e. fast-twitch, slow-twitch, glycolytic, oxidative)
fast-twitch/gylcolytic
What has a better capillary supply IIa or IIb?
IIa
What is the muscle diameter of type II fibers, large or small?
thick
Visible joint movement is a hallmark ow what type of exercise?
isotonic
Progressive resistance exercises is an example of what type of exercise?
isotonic
Weightlifting is an example of what type of exercise?
isotonic
Give an example of isotonic exercise?
weightlifting
Variable speed is a characteristic of what type of exercise?
isotonic
Constant speed is a characteristic of what type of exercise?
isokinetic
Isokinetic exercise has constant or variable speed?
constant
Isotonic exercise has constant or variable speed?
variable
Isotonic has constant or variable external resistance?
constant
Constant external resistance is a hallmark of what type of exercise?
isotonic
Visible joint movement is apparent in what two types of exercise?
isotonic
isokinetic
Variable external resistance is a feature of what type of exercise?
isokinetic
Isokinetic exercise has constant or variable external resistance?
variable
What are two examples of devices using isokinetic exercise?
cybex, nautilus
What is an exercise type that has no visible joint movement?
isometric
What is the joint movement in isometric exercise?
none
What is an exertion against an immoveable object?
isometric
How many reps are required in progressive resistance exercises (PRE)?
10
What is the ROM requirement for PREs?
full ROM
What two types of exercise can be eccentric or concentric?
isokinetic or isotonic
Isokinetic or isotonic exercises contract muscle in what way? eccentric or concentric?
eccentric or concentric
What is the repetition schedule of progressive resistance exercises?
50%/75%/100%
What contraction is a lengthening contraction?
eccentric
What contraction resists a stretching force?
eccentric
What contractions generate the greatest amount of force?
fast eccentric
What contractions cause more tissue destruction?
eccentric
How is muscle soreness in eccentric contractions relieved? rest or mild exercise?
mild exercise
What is more metabolically efficient eccentric or concentric?
eccentric
What is muscle shortening against resistance?
concentric contractions
What is the hallmark of concentric contractions?
muscle shortening against resistance
What contraction develops little force?
concentric
What is the metabolic cost of concentric contractions? high or low?
high
What contractions produce the least force?
fast concentric contractions
What contractions produce the most force?
fast eccentric contractions
What is more powerful slow eccentric or isometric contractions?
slow eccentric
What produces more force fast or slow eccentric?
fast eccentric
What produces more force slow or fast concentric?
slow concentric
What produces more force slow concentric or isometric contractions?
isometric contractions
What two contractions produce the least force?
slow and fast concentric (fast concentric being the least forceful)
What is the recommended percentage range of VO2 max for exercise
50-85% of VO2 max
What is the recommended percentage range of HR reserve max for exercise?
50-85%
How long (minutes) does the glycolytic system work during exercise?
2 minutes
What CV conditioning parameter increases during maximal exercise?
stroke volume
What consumption is reduced during rest and submaximal exercise as a result of CV conditioning?
myocardial O2
What CV parameter is reduced during rest and submaximal exercise as a result of CV conditioning?
BP
During maximal exercise what CV parameter is increaesed with CV conditioning?
BP is increased during maximal exercise
What is the effect of isometric on HR?
none
What is the effect of isometric on VO2 max?
none
What is the effect of isometric on systolic BP?
increases SBP
What is the effect of isometric on diastolic BP?
increases DBP
What is the effect of isometric on max vital capacity?
none
What is the effect of isotonic on HR?
increases HR
What is the effect of isotonic on VO2 max?
none
What is the effect of isotonic on systolic blood pressure?
increases SBP
What is the effect of isotonic on diastolic BP?
no change
What is the effect of isotonic on max vital capacity?
no change
What is shoulder flexion?
158
What is shoulder extension?
53
What is shoulder abduction?
170
What is shoulder adduction?
50
What is shoulder horizontal flexion?
135
What is shoulder internal rotation?
70
What is shoulder external rotation?
90
What is elbow flexion
70
What is elbow hyperextension?
90
What is arm pronation?
70
What is arm supination?
85
What is thumb abduction?
60
What is thumb IP flexion?
80
What is thumb MP flexion?
50
What is thumb MC flexion?
15
What is thumb IP extension?
20
What is thumb MP extension?
10
What is thumb MC extension?
20
What is finger DP flexion?
80
What is finger PIP flexion?
100
What is finger MCP flexion?
90
What is finger DIP extension?
0
What is finger PIP extension?
0
What is finger MCP extension?
45
What is hindfoot inversion?
5
What is hindfoot eversion?
5
what is hip flexion?
115
what is hip extension?
30
What is hip abduction?
50
What is hip adduction?
30
What is hip horizontal flexion?
60
What is hip internal rotation with hip in flexion?
45
What is hip external rotation with hip in flexion?
45
What is hip internal rotation with hip in extension?
35
What is hip external rotation with hip in extension?
50
What is knee flexion?
135
What is knee extension?
10
What is ankle plantar flexion?
50
What is ankle dorisflexion?
20
What is wrist extension?
70
What is wrist flexion?
75
What is wrist ulnar deviation?
35
What is wrist radial deviation?
20
What is forefoot inversion?
35
What is forefoot eversion?
20
What is great toe IP flexion?
60
What is great toe IP extension?
0
What is great toe MTP flexion?
40
What is great toe MTP extension?
65
What is 2-5 toes DIP flexion?
55
What is 2-5 toes PIP flexion?
40
What is 2-5 toes MTP flexion?
35
What is 2-5 toes extension?
40
What is cervical flexion?
40
What is cervical extension?
40
What is cervical lateral bending?
45
What is cervical rotation?
45
What is lumbar flexion?
85
What is lumbar extension?
30
What is lumbar lateral bending?
30
What is lumbar rotation?
40
What is static stretching with contraction of the antagonist muscle?
reciprocol inhibition
What is joint moved to end of ROM and held for 5-60 seconds?
static stretching
What stretching technique has a high risk of injury?
ballistic stretching
What type of injuries can arise from ballistic stretching?
bone avulsion
tendon tears
What is 2-5 toes PIP flexion?
40
What is 2-5 toes MTP flexion?
35
What is 2-5 toes extension?
40
What is cervical flexion?
40
What is cervical extension?
40
By what daily percentage range does immobilization decrease muscle strength?
1-1.5% per day
How much (% range) does strength decrease in 7-10 days of immobiliztion, in month of immobilization?
20-30%/50%
What is the plateau (% range)of muscle strength retained after prolonged immobilization?
25-40% of original strength
One contraction per day at what strength (%) is necessary to prevent the effect of immobilization?
50% of maximal strength
What is the percentage range of muscle mass lost per week with immobilization?
5-10%
With immobilization there is a decrease in the diameter and percentage of what fiber type?
type I
What parameter of type I fibers decreases with immobilization?
diameter of type I
What bone condition develops with immobilization?
osteopenia
What develops as a result of immobilization osteopenia?
hypercalcemia
How many days after immobilization does calcium start being excreted in urine and feces?
2-3 days
When (week range) do calcium levels in urine and feces peak?
3-7 weeks
After activity is resumed when do calcium levels return to normal (week range)?
5-6 weeks
What improves last in urine, calcium, nitrogen, or protein?
calcium
What is nitrogen loss per day with immobilization? (g/day)
2 g/day
When (day range) does nitrogen loss begin in immobilization?
5-6 days
When(week number) does nitrogen loss peak in immobilization?
second week
For how long (days) does nitrogen loss continue after activity has resumed?
7 days
What muscle condition can be caused by calcium and phosphorous excretion?
muscle atrophy
What is the nutritional supply of cartilage?
synovial fluid
How is the synovial fluid nutrition delivered to the cartilage?
loading and unloading of joints
What circulatory parameters decrease with immobilization?
decrease in blood and plasma volumes
What sympathetic activity in increased with immobilization?
B-adrenergic activity is increased
What two CV parameter increases with immobilization?
increased resting HR
What CV parameter decreases with immobilization?
decreased stroke volume
By how many beats/min/day does HR increase with immobilization?
by 0.5 beats/min/day
By how much (%) does stroke volume decrease with 2 weeks of bedrest?
15%
What pulmonary parameter decreases with immobilization?
VO2 max
What blood characteristic increases with immobilization?
coagulability
What lung infection can develop with immobilization?
hypostatic pneumonia
What 3 pulmonary parameter decrease with immobilization?
decreased tidal volume, minute volume and vital capacity
What are two GI complications of immobilization?
constipation and loss of appetite
Immobilization leads to an increased risk of what two urinary conditions?
urolithiasis and UTI
Immobilization leasd to what skin complications?
skin atrophy and pressure ulcers
Paraplegia is an impairment, disability, or handicap?
impairment
Inability to ambulate because of paraplegia is an impairment, disability, or handicap?
disability
Inability to walk upstairs in a building without an elevataor is an impairment, disability, or handicap?
handicap
What is an inability to perform a particular activity or function.
disability
What is a physical or psychological abnormality?
impairment
What is an inability to perform a usual role/life activity as a result of an impairment?
handicap
What two parameters does the FIM score?
severity of disability
outcomes of rehabilitation
How many items and categories are there in the FIM?
18 items in 6 categories
What type of scale is the FIM?
ordinal
What are the 6 categories of FIM?
self care
sphincter control
mobility
locomotion
communication
social cognition
What is the grade range of FIM?
1-7
What score is total independence?
7
What are the 6 items under self care?
eating
grooming
bathing
upper body dressing
lower body dressing
toileting
What are the 2 items under sphincter control?
bowel and bladder function
What are the 4 items under mobility?
bed, chair, wheelchair, tub or shower, and toilet transfers
What are the 3 items under mobility?
ambulation
wheelchair mobility
stair management
What are the 2 items under communication?
comprehension
expression
What are the 3 items under social cognition?
interaction
problem solving
memory
What is a FIM score of 2?
max assist (subject =25%+)
What is a FIM score of 3?
mod assist (subject=50%+)
What is a FIM score of 4?
min assist (subject =75%+)
What is a FIM score of 5?
supervision (subject =100%+)
What is a FIM score of 6?
modified independence (device)
Maximal heart rate declines or increases with aging?
declines
Exercise ejection fraction increases or decreases with aging?
decreases
Left ventricle end systolic volume increases or decreases with aging?
increases
With aging, cardiac output during exercise depends more on what cardiac function? using what mechanism?
increaseed stroke volume/Frank-Starling mechanism
Cardiac output increases or decreases with aging?
decreases
Rate of diastolic early filling is increased or decreased with age?
deceased
With aging what is diastolic filling more dependent on?
late filling through atrial contracton
With aging increases in diastolic and systolic BPs are due to what factor?
decreased arterial elasticity
With aging baroreceptor sensitivty is increased or decreased?
decreased
VO2 max increases or decreases regardless of activity level?
decreases
Cough and micturation syncope syndromes are linked to a decrease in what sensitivity?
decrease in baroreceptor sensitivity
With aging VC increases or decreases?
decreases
With aging PO2 increases or decreases?
decreases
With aging PCO2 increases or decreases?
No change
With aging pH increases or decreases?
no change
FEV1 increases or decreases iwth aging? By how much (ml) per year does FEV1 decrease?
decreases/33ml/yr
Maximum minute ventilation increases or decreases with aging?
decreases
Residual volumes increases or decreases with age?
increases
Functional residual capacity increases or decreases with aging?
increases
Total lung capacity increases or decreases with aging?
no change
Number of motor units increases or decreases with age?
decreases
Number of myofibrils increases or decreases with age?
decreases
By age 80 fat increases by how much (%)
30%
With aging type IIA fibers increase or decrease?
increase
With aging type IIB fibers increase or decrease?
decrease
Type I fibers increase or decrease with aging?
no change
With aging base of stance is increased or decreased?
increased
Ratio of chontroitin-4-sulfate to chondroitin-6-sulfate increases or decreases with age?
decreases
Peak bone mineral density decrease starts at what age range?:
mid-30s
What brain neurons decrease with aging?
nigrostriatal neurons
What declines more, math or language skills with aging?
math skills
What percent of elderly with urinary incontience have detrusor instability?
70%
Glomular filtration rate increases or decreases with age?
decreases
Renal tubular cell mass increases or decreases with age?
decreases
Digitalis toxicity in the elderly is usually due to what impairment?
impaired renal function
What are three signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity?
cardiac dysrhythmias
anorexia
nauseau
What is the most common finding of NSAID toxicity in the elderly?
prerenal azotemia
When renal blood flow is dependent on vasodilating prostaglandins, NSAID use can precipitate what condition?
acute renal failure
Acute renal failure can be precipitated by use of what agent when renal blood is dependant on vasodilating prostaglandins?
NSAIDs
In states of prostaglandin inhibition, NSAID use can precipitate what condition?
hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
Aging increases or decreases the amplitude of esophogeal peristaltic contractions?
decreases
Aging decreases the amplitude of what esophogeal function?
peristaltic contractions
Diarrhea can be caused by what cardiac medication?
digitalis
Falls is the community are secondary most commonly to what three factors?
decreased static balance
decreased leg strength
decrease hip/ankle flexibility
Falls in a nursing home are secondary most commonly to what two factors?
decreased knee strength
decreased ankle strength
In the elderly, resting heart rate decreases by what beats/minute range with submaximal exercise?
9-20 beats per min
In the elderly stroke volume increases by what percentage with submaximal exercise?
8%
In the elderly with maximal exercise stroke volume increases by what percentage range?
6-8%
In the elderly with maximal exercise cardiac output increases by what percentage?
34%
What two cardiac parameters increase with maximal exercise in the elderly?
Stroke volume
cardiac output
In the elderly, what two blood parameters increase with exercise?
total hemoglobin
blood volume
By what percentage range does systemic vascular resistance decrease during submaximal exercise?
5-18%
In the elderly what muscle fibers increase in diameter with exercise?
Type I and Type II
What is the percentage range of the rate of major depression in the elderly?
16-30%
What is the increased risk of depression in the elderly with a disability?
3X
What is the preferred tricyclic in the elderly? Why?
nortriptyline. Less anticholinergic effect
TCAs cause orthostatic hypotension by blocking what?
alpha-1
What is the preferred medication for agitation in the elderly? Why?
amitriptyline. Not fat soluble
Is diazepam fat or water soluble?
fat soluble
What type of soluble meds accumulate in the elderly fat or water soluble?
fat soluble