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651 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective agonist should exhibit: - High intrinsic activity, low affinity - No intrinsic activity, high affinity - Low intrinsic activity, low affinity - High intrinsic activity, high affinity |
No intrinsic activity, high affinity
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A drug that interacts with the agonist and not at all, or only incidentally with the receptor: - Chemical antagonist - Pharmacological antagonist - Partial antagonist - Physiologic antagonist |
Chemical antagonist
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_____ the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose: - Quantal dose response curve - Graded dose response curve - Maximum efficacy - Therapeutic index |
Maximum efficacy
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What is the approximate percentage of a weak base (pKa=8.4) in the non-ionised form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4? - 90% - 50% - 100% - 10% |
10% |
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When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder? - Prescription - Special prescription - Prescription for medicated feedstuff - Legislation on requisition |
Prescription for medicated feedstuff
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Which of the following can occur at the therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients? - Allergic reaction - Teratogenic effect (Thalidomide) - Idiosyncratic reaction - All of the above |
All of the above
(Allergic, teratogenic, idiosyncratic) |
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A drug licensed for humans included in Table 1, and MRL has to bee established administered to dairy cattle should have which WP for milk? - At most 7 days - At most 28 days - Minimum 28 days - Minimum 7 days |
Minimum 7 days
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According to this type of medicinal substance use, both sick and healthy animals are treated with mass (population) administration: - Metaphylaxis - Mass treatment - Always - Prophylaxis |
Metaphylaxis |
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What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa=4.4) in blood (pH 7.4): - 1:1 - 100:1 - 10:1 - 1000:1 |
1000:1 |
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How long some the WP usually last a minimum for meat, following application off a human licensed medicine: - 7 days - 500 degree days - 28 days - 0 days |
28 days |
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How long does the WP usually last for fish at minimum, following application of human licensed medicine: - 28 days - 500 degree days - 0 days - 7 days |
500 degree days |
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The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effect on a physiological system, but do not act at the same receptor site: - Chemical antagonist - Physiological antagonist - Competetive antagonist - Non-competitive antagonist |
Physiological antagonist |
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Two drugs, A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produced the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg: - Drug B is more efficacious than drug A - The toxicity of drug A is lower than drug B - Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B - Drug A has a shorter duration than drug B |
Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B |
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Which substance is a schedule 2 drug: - Cannabis - Fentanyl - Diazepam - Phenobarbital |
Fentanyl |
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Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medical substances is not introduced in: - British Veterinary Formulary - Hungarian Pharmacopeia - European Pharmacopeia - British Pharmacopeia |
British Veterinary Formulary
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The LD50 of a drug is: - 50% of the lethal dose in man - 50% of the lethal dose in experimental animals - The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals - Half the dose that kills the treated animals |
The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals
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Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicine, this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes: - Fungi - Light (UV) - Humidity - Heat |
Light (UV) |
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This category may play an important role in prevention of animal disease, but they are not real drugs: - Prepared drugs - Immunologicals - Biocides - Official drugs |
Biocides |
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How long is the WP usually for eggs, following application of an official or prepared medication: - 500 degree days - 0 days - 28 days - 7 days |
7 days |
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Which temperature interval is valid i of the drug should be stored at a cool place: - 15-25*C - 2-8*C - 8-15*C - 10-14*C |
8-15*C |
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What is written in the inscription in case of prepared drugs: - The name and amount of ingredients - The name, dosage form and strength of the preparation - The dosage form and the container - The number of original packages |
The name and amount of ingredients
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What "Medicines order 2001 UK" category can be supplied by pharmacists withou any prescription: - P and PML - GSL, P, PML - GSL and P - Every "medicine order 2001 UK" category |
GSL, P, PML
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Quantal dose response curves are: - Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studies - Used for determining the maximum efficacy of a drug - Obtainable from the study of intact subjects, but not from isolated tissues - Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug |
Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
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This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopeia commission to each compound: - Chemical name - Each drug name - Proprietary name - Approved name |
Approved name |
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Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information about WP: - Subscription - Signature - Superscription - Inscription |
Signature
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Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products: - Acid sensitivity of drug - Increased motility of GI - Large pKa value of drug - Rapid dissolution from the formula |
Rapid dissolution from the formula
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Which is an example of substitution therapy: - Giving thyroxine for treatment of hyperthyroidism - Giving a generic drug instead of original licensed product - Giving thyroxine for treatment of hypothyroidism - During AB treatment , switching the AB in case of resistant stairs appearance |
Giving thyroxine for treatment of hypothyroidism
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Which statement it not true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model: - A bioexponential curve is used for to describe the decrease of the drug level in time - In the course of this process, the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated - After a single drug administration, the drug is eliminated from the body continuously - The drug is distributed among the tissues evenly |
In the course of this process, the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated
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Histamine by acting at adrenoceptors (ex. Epinephrine): - Pharmacological antagonist - Physiological antagonist - Non-competitive antagonist - Partial agonist
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Physiological antagonist (Produces the opposite physiological effect) |
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What is characteristic of a drug molecule, which has been metabolites in the Phase II of biotransformation procedure: - Losing of activity - Active metabolite from an inactive pro-drug - Metabolite with qualitatively different pharmacologic reaction - Increased activity |
Losing of activity
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Drug allergies: - Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously - Are more likely to develop in very young infants - Can develop only when the patient has already been exposed to he drug - Are more likely to develop in very old animals |
Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously
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When comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with he highest: - Affinity - Therapeutic index - Efficacy - Potency |
Efficacy |
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The pharmacist can supply these drugs only of presented with a valid prescription form the practitioner: - Pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML) - General sales list (GSL) - Pharmacy medicines (P) - Prescription only medicines (POM)
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Prescription only medicines (POM) |
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The effects and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses are not introduced in details in: - British Veterinary Formula - European Pharmacopeia - Vademecum - Drug lexicon |
European Pharmacopeia
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The category drug like substances (non real drugs) include: - Official drugs - Prepared dugs - Immunologicals - Biocides |
Biocides |
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Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug: - Signature - Subscription - Inscription - Superscription |
Inscription |
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The oral AUC is half of that of the IV AUC value, and for PO two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability value of their drug: - 0.5 - 0.1 - 0.125 - 0.25 |
0.25 |
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Which of the following is an action of a non-competitive antagonist: - Alters the mechanism of action of an agonist - Alters the potency of an agonist - Decreases the maximum response to an agonist - Binds to the same site on the receptor as the agonist |
Decreases the maximum response to an agonist (Non-competitive reduces efficacy, competitive reduces potency) |
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Drugs may harmfully interact with useful intestinal microbes. In which species is the effect the least significant: - Hamsters - Horses - Rabbits - Dogs |
Dogs |
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If drug A has greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A: - Is more toxic than drug B - Has greater affinity to the receptor than drug B - Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B - Has a greater margin of safety than drug B |
Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B
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A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them: - Chemical antagonist - Pharmacological antagonist - Partial agonist - Physiological antagonist |
Pharmacological antagonist
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In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet-licensed drug is given: - Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine - Prescription of a Prepared (magistrates) medicine - Prescription of a human licensed medicine - Prescription of a formulated official drug |
Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine |
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Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining food allergies are: - Contamination of skin - Inhalation - contamination of airways - Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration - Chronic disease, atrophy |
Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration
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The major part of the text must be in the veterinarians own handwriting: - Special prescription - Label - Prescription - Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF) |
Special prescription |
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This name of medicinal substances is given by the manufacturer: - Each drug name - Approved name - Chemical name - Proprietary name |
Proprietary name
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The oral AUC is 25% of the IV AUC value, and for IV administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability value of the drug: - 0.75 - 0.5 - 0.25 - 0.125 |
0.5 |
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Which part of the prescription gives the owner information about the dosages of the animal: - Signature - Inscription - Superscription - Subscription |
Signature |
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Vehicle in licking stones: - Light kaolin - Activated charcoal - Sodium chloride - Bismuth subgallate |
Sodium chloride |
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For which category is it not true, usually it develops after repeated administrations: - Drug tolerance - Idiosyncrasy - Drug allergy - Drug dependence. |
Idiosyncrasy
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Which substance is a schedule 3 substance: - Phenobarbital/Phenobarbitone - LSD - Morphine - Fentanyl |
Phenobarbital/Phenobarbitone |
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Which drug has to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the veterinarian: - Schedule 3 and Schedule 4 drugs - Schedule 1 and Schedule 4 drugs - Schedule 2 and Schedule 3 drugs - None of these |
Schedule 2 and Schedule 3 drugs
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A dosage form appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff: - Premix - OROS - WSP - Oral solution |
Premix |
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Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having: - Affinity, but little or no efficacy for the receptor - Both efficacy and affinity for the receptor - Efficacy, but little or no affinity for the receptor - None of the above |
Affinity, but little or no efficacy for the receptor
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Agonists are drugs that: - Bind passively to the tissue receptor sites - Reserve the effect of other drugs on tissue receptor sites - Activates tissue receptor sites - Block tissue receptor sites |
Activates tissue receptor sites |
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Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading disease in the herd: - Panphylaxis - Anaphylaxis - Prophylaxis - Metaphylaxis |
Metaphylaxis
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Drugs can be used as non-divided powders: - Only drugs with broad therapeutic margins - Only drugs for treatment of poultry - Only water insoluble drugs - Only water soluble drugs |
Only drugs with broad therapeutic margins
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These drugs are always POM medications: - Premixes - Controlled drugs - Official preparations - NSAIDs |
Controlled drugs |
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Which technology is appropriate for achieving pulsatile release of an active substance in a bonus: - OROS - Insoluble matrix - Chip controlled diaphragm - Expanding matrix |
Chip controlled diaphragm (The others are all continuous release) |
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Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule: - Gelatine - Glycerine - Water - Sugar |
Glycerine
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When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory: - Schedule 3 and 4 drugs - Schedule 1 and 4 drugs - Schedule 2 and 3 drugs - None of the above |
Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
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At steady state the plasma cc. Of a drug (Cpss) is 1mg/l. The total body clearance is (Cl2) is 100ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied every 12 hours: - 7.2 mg - 72 mg - 50 mg - 100 mg |
72 mg |
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A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole: - Has to have at least 28d WP for meat - Must not be used in food producing animals - Cannot penetrate into the milk, thus no WP for milk has to be stated - Requires 0d WP in food producing animals |
Must not be used in food producing animals
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Which drugs are normally not used in veterinary practice: - Schedule 1 drugs - Schedule 2 drugs - Schedule 3 drugs - Schedule 4 drugs
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Schedule 1 drugs |
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What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopeia's: - Indication in veterinary medicine - Identification methods - Dosage of the human drugs - Indications in human medicine |
Identification methods |
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In this type of prescription the name and amount of individual ingredients has to be given in the inscription part: - Prescription of a human licensed medicine - Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine - Prescription of a formulate official medicine - Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine |
Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
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How long after first use can drugs from a multidose injection bottle be used: - At most 14 days - At most 28 days - At most 7 days - No such requirement is official |
At most 28 days |
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Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug: - Amoxicillin - 7-amino-3,3-dimethyl-oxo-4-carbocylic acid - Betamox inj AUV - None of the above |
Betamox inj AUV
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The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal bolused: - NSAIDs - Anthelminthics - Growth promotors - Antibiotics |
Anthelminthics |
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Which active substance is appropriate for analgesia as a transdermal patch: - Fentanyl - Naloxone - Metamizole - Butorphanol |
Fentanyl |
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Tranquilliser sedative with mild analgesic action: - Acepromazine - Droperidol - Diazepam - Midazolam |
Droperidol (A butyrophenone) |
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It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in cats, dogs and horses: - Acepromazine - Detomidine - Xylazine - Diazepam |
Acepromazine
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What is GMP: - Good veterinary practice - Good clinical practice - Good manufacturing practice - Good laboratory practice |
Good manufacturing practice
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Sedative drug with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics: - Xylazine - Acepromazine - Medetomidine - Buprenorphine |
Acepromazine |
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Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosome: - Numerical abnormalities - Structural abnormalities - None of them - Both of them |
Both of them |
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Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules: - Examination of drug manufacturing processes - Human and veterinary clinical drug examinations - Kinetics and residual drug examinations - Toxicological exams |
Human and veterinary clinical drug examinations
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Pre-, and post-narcotic excitiation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic: - Halothane - Isoflurane - Sevoflurane - Methoxyflurane |
Sevoflurane
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It can cause penile prolapse in in male swine: - Diazepam - Azaperone - Detomidine - Xylazine |
Azaperone (It is only used in pigs, but can't find that SE, it is Azepromazine in Eq?) |
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Which animal specie is most sensitive to Xylazine: - Eq - Bo - Ca - Su |
Bo |
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When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy, its muscles are usually rigid and hypertonic: - Methohexial - Morphine - Ketamine - Propofol |
Ketamine |
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What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in a suspension: - Liquid - Solid - None - Both |
Solid |
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What kind of examinations has to be conductive according to the rules and regulations of GLP: - Examination of drug manufacturing processes - Human clinical drug examinations - Veterinary clinical drug examinations - Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examinations |
Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examinations
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The injections always have to be: - Sterile - Isoionic - Clear solution - pH neutral |
Sterile |
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What is the extracting agent to prepare extracts: - Watery - Alcoholic - None - Both |
Both |
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Which ointment is not washable with water: - Cetomacrogol emulsifying ointment - Hydrophilic ointment - Paraffin ointment - Emulsifying wax |
Paraffin ointment
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Which of the alpha-2 agonists are not used in Eq: - Detomidine - Xylazine - Medetomidine - Romifidine |
Medetomidine
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Sedative that decreased BP, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals: - Ketamine - Diazepam - Acepromazine - Butorphanol |
Acepromazine (An alpha-receptor antagonist) |
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Which drug causes cardiovascular depression: - Propofol - Etomidate - Both - None |
Propofol |
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Which matrices are investigated in pharmacokinetic examinations: - Blood, urine, faeces, milk, eggs - Blood - Edible tissues - Urine |
Blood, urine, faeces, milk, eggs
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Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose: - Barbituates - Tranquillisers - Alpha-2-agonists - Benzodiazepines |
Tranquillisers |
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This sedative can increase the incident of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy: - Acepromazine - Phenobarbital - Diazepam - Xylazine |
Acepromazine
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Which drug has analgesic effect: - Benzodiazepines - Alpha-2-agonists - None - Both |
Alpha-2-agonists
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This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day: - Thiamylal - Methohexital - Pentobarbital - Thiopental |
Methohexital
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What is the formulation type of cremor aqueous: - Solution type - Suspension type - Water in oil (W/O) emulsion cream - Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream |
Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
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Which investigation does not belong to the toxicology examination studies: - Following of the unwanted side-effects after authorisation - Mutagenicity studies - Local tolerance studies - Teratogenic investigation |
Following of the unwanted side-effects after authorisation
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Thiopental can be administered: - IV / IM / SC - IV / IM - IM - IV |
IV |
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The solid matter of liquid extraction is: - 50-70% - 50% - >94% - >70% |
50% (maximum ) |
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Which butyrophenone (tranquilliser) is mainly used in lab rodents: - Azaperone - Acepromazine - Fluanisone - Thiethylperazine |
Fluanisone |
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Which attribution of a new drug is tested in the AMES test: - Environmental toxicity - Dermal toxicity - Mutagenicity - Teratogenicity |
Mutagenicity
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The extravascular administration of this anaesthesia drug causes strong tissue irritation: - Metomidate - Tiletamine - Ketamine - Alphaxalone |
Metomidate (An Imidazole, same as Etomidate) |
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The micro nucleus test: - Is an electron microscope methods for determining teratogenicity - Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity - Is an electron microscope methods for determining mutagenicity - Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity |
Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
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The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation: - Tiletamine - Ketamine - Alphaxalone - Thiamylal |
Thiamylal (A barbiturate) |
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Which ingredients of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons: - Wool wax - Hard paraffin - Methylcellulose - Flax oil |
Hard paraffin
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Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base: - Hydroxyethyl - Macrogol 400 - Cocoa butter - Gelatine |
Cocoa butter
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Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: - Butorphanol - Xylazine - Chlorpromazine - Romifidine |
Chlorpromazine
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Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthesia, hence it can be applied IM: - Ketamine - Etomidate - Metomidate - Thiopental |
Ketamine
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Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment: - White Vaseline - Simple ointment - Cocoa butter - Paraffin ointment |
White Vaseline
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Generally how often should intramammary infusion be administered in a lactating cow: - Every 3 hours - Only once - Every 8-12 hours - Every 6 hours |
Every 8-12 hours |
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Which of the following cannot be attributed to ointments: - Cocoa butter can be used as a vehicle base - Dissolves at body temperature - Homogenous - Does not contain solid particles |
Dissolves at body temperature
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Can induce/worsen pseudopregnancy in animals: - Xylazine - Phenobarbital - Diazepam - Chlorpromazine |
Chlorpromazine
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Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase: - Pharmacological study - Field trial - Environmental toxicity study - Food safety study |
Field trial
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Which statement is not true: - The sterility and pyrogens free, are not special requirement s for an injection - If the pH of the injection of too low or too high, it is given slowly IV - Highly tissue irritational injections should be give IV only - Oily solutions and suspensions are generally contraindicated as IV |
The sterility and pyrogens free, are not special requirement s for an injection
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The teratogenicity study has to be performed at least on: - 3 animal species - 1 animal specie - 2 animal species - 4 animal species |
2 animal species
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What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research: - Repeated-dose toxicity studies - Determination of mechanism - Bioequivalence studies - Target-animal tolerance investigation |
Determination of mechanism |
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Which of the drugs are the antidote to opioids: - Naloxone - Atipamezole - Yohimbine - Flumazenil |
Naloxone
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Sedative drugs with pronounced anti-emetic action: - Xylazine - Acepromazine - Phenobarbital - Diazepam |
Acepromazine
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What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini: - Emulsion - Aqueous suspension - Solution - Oiuly suspension |
Aqueous suspension
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The base ointment is applicable on O/W type of ointments: - Hydrophilic ointment - Vaseline - Paraffin ointment - Simple ointment |
Hydrophilic ointment
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Butyrophenone mainly used in swine for reducing stress: - Fentanyl - Azaperone - Acepromazine - Droperidol |
Azaperone
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Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine: - Anti inflammatory properties - Serious respiratory depression - Muscle relaxant activity - Causing general anaesthesia |
- Muscle relaxant activity |
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In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which part contains the clinical trials, according to the EUDRALEX: - Part 1 - Part 2 - Part 3 - Part 4 |
Part 4 |
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Their sedative effect is well related to their applied dose: - Tranquillisers - Phenothiazines - Alpha-2-agonists - Butyrophenone |
Alpha-2-agonists
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The dosage form is the alcoholoc extraction of medicinal plants: - Solution - Tincture - Suspension - Emulsion |
Tincture |
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Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis: - Milk, eggs, honey - Edible tissue - Blood, urine - Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey |
Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
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Which ointment is washable with water: - Hydrophilic ointment - Hydrous ointment - Simple ointment - Paraffin ointment |
Hydrophilic ointment
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What is the regular process of applying intramammary infusion: - Udder-disinfection, udder wash, milking out, administration of infusion - Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration - Milking, wash, administration, disinfection - Wash, milking, administration, disinfection |
Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
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Partial agonist opiate, frequently combined with Medetomidine: - Fentanyl - Ketamine - Diazepam - Butorphanol |
Butorphanol |
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Which statement is not true: - Fluanisone is useful for neuroleptanalgesia of lab animals in combination with fentanyl - Butyrophenones causes hypnosis in high doses - Azaperone is useful for sedation of pigs, and reducing stress - Butyrophenone have slightly analgesic effect |
Butyrophenones causes hypnosis in high doses |
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What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion: - Hydrophilic - Lipophilic - None - Both |
Both |
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Which statement is true: - Phenobarbital has CYP-450 enzyme inducer effect - The effect of benzodiazepines can be suspended with atimapezole - Diazepam has pronounced emetic effect in cats - Swine are most sensitive to Xylazine |
Phenobarbital has CYP-450 enzyme inducer effect
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Its important side effects are, bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension: - Butrophanol - Ketamine - Atropine - Fentanyl |
Fentanyl
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Injectable anaesthetic, its readministration is prohibited: - Thiopental - Propofol - Ketamine - Methohexital |
Thiopental
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The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following: - Somatic nervous system division of PNS - Somatic nervous system division of CNS - Autonomic nervous system division of PNS - Autonomic nervous system division of CNS |
Autonomic nervous system division of PNS
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Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres release ___, postganglionic parasympathetic fibres release ___, postganglionic sympathetic fibres release ___: - ACh, ACh, NE - ACh NE, ACh - NE, ACh, NE , NE, NE, ACh |
- ACh, ACh, NE
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Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic: - Alpha-1-R - Alpha-2-R - Beta-1-R - Beta-2-R |
- Alpha-2-R |
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Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation: - Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 of A:NA - Mass parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 of A:NA - Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 of A:NA - Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 of A:NA |
- Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 of A:NA
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Match the sympathetic response to the receptor: - Increased lipid breakdown - Peripheral vasoconstriction - Increased HR and BP - Broncial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion - Alpha-1, Beta-1, Beta-2, Beta-3 |
- Increased lipid breakdown - Beta-3
- Peripheral vasoconstriction - Alpha-1 - Increased HR and BP - Beta-1 - Broncial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion - Beta-2 |
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What amino acid is converted into catecholamines (A, NA, Dopamine): - Proline - Tyrosine - Valine - Lysine |
Tyrosine |
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Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton anti-porter: - Epinephrine - Norepinephrine - Dopamine - Adrenaline |
Dopamine |
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Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP: - Epinephrine - Norepinephrine - Dopamine - Adrenaline |
Norepinephrine
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Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to CA2+ influx and exocytosis: - Presynaptic sympathetic - Presynaptic parasympathetic - Postsynaptic sympathetic - Postsynaptic parasympathetic |
- Postsynaptic sympathetic
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Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is not a target for drug action: - Reuptake via NE transporters, (NET) uptake 1 - Metabolism of NE of inactive metabolite - NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft |
- NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft |
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NET is a symporter of what ion: - K+ - CA2+ - Cl - - Na+ - MG2+ |
Na+ |
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Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination: - NE - L-DOPA - NET - EPI - DOPGAL |
NE |
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Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B, more than others: - Serotonin (5-HT) - Norepinephrine (NE) - Dopamine (D) - Epinephrine (E) |
- Dopamine (D)
|
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Where is the cytotoxic catecholamine metabolising enzyme, catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found: - Liver - GI tract - Placenta - Blood platelets |
Liver |
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Which of the following receptor subtypes, relaxes the smooth muscle and causes glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis: - Alpha-1 (Gq, Gi, Go) - Alpha-2 (Gi, Go) - Beta-1 (Gs) - Beta-2 (Gs) |
- Beta-2 (Gs) |
|
|
Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction: - Alpha-1 (Gq, Gi, Go) - Alpha-2 (Gi, Go) - Beta-1 (Gs) - Beta-2 (Gs) - Beta-3 (Gs) |
- Alpha-1 (Gq, Gi, Go) |
|
|
Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy, inotropy, AV-node conduction velocity and rennin secretion: - Alpha-1 (Gq, Gi, Go) - Alpha-2 (Gi, Go) - Beta-1 (Gs) - Beta-2 (Gs) - Beta-3 (Gs) |
Beta-1 (Gs) |
|
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Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion, nerve cell NE release and contracts vascular smooth muscle: - Alpha-1 (Gq, Gi, Go) - Alpha-2 (Gi, Go) - Beta-1 (Gs) - Beta-2 (Gs) - Beta-3 (Gs) |
Alpha-2 (Gi, Go) |
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What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase - Alpha-1 - Alpha-2 - Beta - Beta and alpha-1 - Beta and alpha-2 |
- Beta and alpha-2
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What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)
- Alpha-1 - Alpha-2 - Beta - Beta and alpha-1 - Beta and alpha-2 |
Alpha-1 |
|
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Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine - Direct binding to the receptor - Inhibiting reuptake of NE - Inhibiting inactivation of NE - Promoting release of NE |
- Promoting release of NE
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Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors: - Direct binding to the receptor - Inhibiting reuptake of NE - Inhibiting inactivation of NE - Promoting release of NE |
Inhibiting inactivation of NE |
|
|
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclics antidepressants and cocaine:
- Direct binding to the receptor - Inhibiting reuptake of NE - Inhibiting inactivation of NE - Promoting release of NE |
Inhibiting reuptake of NE |
|
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Which of the following is not true for catecholamines: - Non-polar - Cannot cross BBB - Cannot be used as an oral drug - Have brief duration - MAO and COMT act rapidly |
- Non-polar
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Match the catecholamine with its receptor(s): - Isoproterenol - Dobutamine - Norepinephrine - Dopamine - Epinephrine - Alpha, Beta, Delta |
- Isoproterenol - Beta
- Dobutamine - Beta-1 - Norepinephrine - Alpha, Beta - Dopamine - Delta-1, Delta-2 - Epinephrine - Alpha, Beta |
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The basic structure of catecholamines involves a catechol ring and which of the following types is amines: - Methyl amine - Ethyl amine - Butyl amine - Tertiary-butyl amine - Propyl amine |
- Ethyl amine
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Which of the following are a long acting (oral) alpha-2 agonist, not a short acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) alpha-1 agonist: - Phenylephrine - Oxymetazoline - Tetrahydrazaline - Pseudoephedrine |
Pseudoephedrine |
|
|
Which if the following would not be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with epistaxis: - Phenylephrine - Epinephrine - Oxymetazoline - Isoproterenol |
Isoproterenol (It is beta 1+2 specific, causing vasodilation) |
|
|
Which of the following is the alpha-1 drug of choice for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydriasis: - Ephedrine - Epinephrine - Oxymetazoline - Isoproterenol - Phenylephrine |
Phenylephrine
|
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Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anaesthetic to vasoconstrict and decrease blood flow to the side of the administration. What should not be injected above the web space: - Phenylephrine - Epinephrine - Methoxamine |
Epinephrine |
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Alpha-2 agonists are only approved for hypertension, and work by decreasing sympathetic tone, and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 agonist - Clonidine - Methyldopa - Guanabenz - Guanfacin - Epinephrine |
Epinephrine (It is a non-specific hormone, but mainly act on beta 1+2, only alpha in higher doses) |
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At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do: - Stimulates NE release - Inhibits NE release - Stimulates ACh release - Inhibits ACH release |
- Inhibits NE release
|
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Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients, or to prevent premature labour: - Alpha-2 agonist - Alpha-1 agonist - Beta-2 agonist - Beta-1 agonist |
Beta-2 agonist |
|
|
Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure: - Alpha-2 agonist - Alpha-1 agonist - Beta-2 agonist - Beta-1 agonist |
Beta-1 agonist |
|
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Which of the following is not a beta-2 agonist - Terbutaline - Ritodrine - Metaproterenol - Albuterol - Phenylephrine |
Phenylephrine
|
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Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion: - K+ - Ca2+ - Cl- - Na+ - Mg2+ |
K+ |
|
|
Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher dose which of the following receptors are activated: - Alpha-1 - Alpha-2 - Beta-1 - Beta-2 |
Beta-1 |
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Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors form being coupled with G-proteins: - Sequestration - Down regulation - Phosphorylation |
Phosphorylation |
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Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine: - Stimulation of NET (uptake 1) - Inhibition of NET (uptake 1) - Stimulation of VMAT (uptake 2) - Inhibition of VMAT (uptake 2) |
- Inhibition of NET (uptake 1)
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Tricyclics antidepressants. (TCAs) have a great deal of side-effects. Which of the following is the action of TCA's: - Stimulation of NET (uptake 1) - Inhibition of NET (uptake 1) - Stimulation of VMAT (uptake 2) - Inhibition of VMAT (uptake 2) |
- Inhibition of NET (uptake 1)
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Which of the following is not a mixed sympathomimetic: - Amphetamine - Methamphetamine - Phenylephrine - Pseudoephedrine |
Phenylephrine
|
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Prior to removal of pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumour of the adrenal medulla), which of the following should be given: - Alpha agonist - Alpha blocker - Beta agonist - Beta blocker |
- Alpha blocker
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Which of the following is not an indication for beta blocker therapy: - Hypotension - Angina pectorals - Arrhythmias - Myocardial infarction |
Hypotension |
|
|
Which of the following beta blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humour secretion: - Propranolol - Nadolol - Timolol - Metoprolol |
Metoprolol |
|
|
Which of the following is not considered cardio selective: - Metoprolol - Atenolol - Esmolol - Carvedilol |
Carvedilol
|
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Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do the following: - Stimulate NE release - Inhibit NE release - Stimulate DA release - Inhibit DA release |
- Stimulate NE release
|
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Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT: - Tyramine - Guanethidine - Reserpine - Propranolol |
Propranolol
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Which of the following is most likely to occur with parenteral administration off an alpha-1 agonist drug: - Hypotension - Hypertension - Tissue necrosis - Vasodilation |
Hypertension
|
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Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn too quickly: - Alpha-1 agonists - Alpha-2 agonists - Beta-1 agonists - Beta-2 agonists |
- Alpha-2 agonists
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Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction on males, nausea, dizziness ans sleep disturbances: - Alpha-1 agonists - Alpha-2 agonists - Beta-1 agonists - Beta-2 agonists |
Alpha-2 agonists |
|
|
Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycaemia in diabetic patients: - Alpha-1 agonists - Alpha-2 agonists - Beta-1 agonists - Beta-2 agonists
|
Beta-2 agonists (promotes GNG) Alpha-2 agonists (Xylazine, inhibits insulin secretion) |
|
|
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, arrhythmias are possible side effects of which of these agonists: - Alpha-1 agonists - Alpha-2 agonists - Beta-1 agonists - Beta-2 agonists
|
Beta-1 agonist |
|
|
If the patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely: - Stimulation of NE release - Inhibition of NE release - Stimulation off ACh release - Inhibition of ACh release |
Stimulation of NE release (It is a catecholamine releasing agent) |
|
|
Which of the following occurs acutely. Leading to a false neurotransmitter, which increases guanethidine (sympathomimetic): - Stimulation of NE release - Inhibition of NE release - Stimulation of ACh release - Inhibition of ACh release
|
Stimulation of NE release |
|
|
Major adverse effects of the alpha-1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following: - Orthostatic tachycardia - Orthostatic bradycardia - Orthostatic hypertension - Orthostatic hypotension |
Orthostatic hypotension |
|
|
Which of the following effects would be intensified with the Alpha-2 blockade: - Reflex tachycardia - Reflex bradycardia - Orthostatic hypertension - Orthostatic hypotension |
- Reflex tachycardia
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|
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of beta-1 blockers: - Bradycardia - Decreased CO - AV node block - Increased arrhythmias |
- Increased arrhythmias
|
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Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect associated with sudden termination of beta-1 blockers: - Atrial fibrillation - Syncope - Angina - Sudden death |
- Sudden death
|
|
|
Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effects seen in beta-2 blockers: - Asthmatics - Congestive heart failure patients - Trauma patients - Diabetics |
Asthmatics |
|
|
Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics, and can also lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hyperglycaemia: - Alpha-1 blocker - Alpha-2 blocker - Beta-1 blocker - Beta-2 blocker |
- Beta-2 blocker
|
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Which of the following is not true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system: - It is considered cranio-sacral - It involves rest and digest functions - Has nicotine receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons - Target organs have muscarinic receptors for ACh - Innervation of vascular smooth muscle |
- Innervation of vascular smooth muscle |
|
|
Where is AcCoA synthesised (presynthesis for ACh): - Synaptic cleft - Cytosol - Mitochondria - Extracellular matrix - Lysosomes |
Mitochondria
|
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|
Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine: - Milk - Liver - Eggs - Peanuts - Blood plasma |
- Blood plasma
|
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What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin: - ACh increased - ACh decreased - Muscarinic ACh receptor modified - Nicotinic ACh receptor modified - AChE inhibited |
- ACh decreased
|
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|
ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiport: - K+ - Ca2+ - Cl- - Na+ - H+ |
- H+
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Influx of which ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by AChE: - K+ - Ca2+ - Cl- - Na+ - H+ |
Ca2+ |
|
|
Nicotinic N1 receptors are the ___ subtype, and Nicotinic N2 Receptors are the ___ subtype: - Neuronal, Muscular - Muscular, neuronal - Nodal, Neuronal - Neuronal, Nodal - Sympathetic, Parasympathetic |
- Neuronal, Muscular
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|
Which of the following best describes the drug nicotine: - Muscular subtype nicotinic agonists - Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonists - Neural subtype nicotinic agonist - Neural subtype nicotinic antagonist |
- Neural subtype nicotinic agonist
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|
Amantia muscaria is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often asssociated with this SE: - Tachycardia - Bradycardia - Euphoria - Sedation - Hallucination |
Hallucination |
|
|
Which of the following G-proteins is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilising internal Ca2+ and DAG cascade: - Gs - Gi - Gq - Go |
Gq
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|
Which of the following G-proteins is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity: - Gi - Gs - Gq - Go |
Gi
|
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|
The drug Bethanecol and Pilocarpine are: - ACh agonists - ACh antagonists - Muscarinic agonists - Muscarinic antagonists - AChE inhibitors |
- Muscarinic agonists
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Which of the following is not a primary effect of stimulation muscarinic M receptors: - Release of NO (vasodilation) - Iris contraction (miosis) - Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens - Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchial secretion - Salivary/lacrimal secretions are thin/watery |
- Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchial secretion
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a primary effect of stimulation muscarinic M receptors:
- Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity - Increased GI tract tone and secretion - Diaphoresis from sweat glands - Penile erection - Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle, and relaxation of urinary sphincter |
- Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
|
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|
What is Bethanechol most commonly used for: - Decreasing HR - Decreasing BP (vasodilation) - For urinary retention - Decreasing intraocular pressure - Erectile dysfunction |
- For urinary retention (A parasympathomimetic, mainly acting in M not N receptors) |
|
|
What is Bethanechol most commonly used for: - Decreasing HR - Decreasing BP (vasodilation) - For urinary retention - Decreasing intraocular pressure - Erectile dysfunction |
Urinary retention |
|
|
Which of the following is not a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or OP poisoning: - Diarrhoea - Diaphoresis - Mydriasis - Nausea - Urinary urgency |
Mydriasis
|
|
|
What type of drugs are Atropine, Scopolamine, Pirenzepine: - ACh agonists - ACh antagonists - Muscarinic agonists - Muscarinic antagonists - AChE inhibitors |
- Muscarinic antagonists
|
|
|
What is an natural alkaloid found in the Solanacaea plants: - Bethenachol - Pilocarpine - Pirenzepine - Acopolamine - Atropine |
Atropine |
|
|
What two clinical results of atropine facilitated ophthalmoscopic examination: - Mydriasis and increased lacrimation - Cycloplegia and miosis - Miosis and and increased lacrimation - Mydriasis and cycloplegia - Xerophalmis and mydriasis |
- Mydriasis and cycloplegia
|
|
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Which of the following is an adverse effect of Atropine: - Increased salivation - Blurred vision - Bradycardia - Diaphoresis - Decreased intraocular pressure |
- Blurred vision
|
|
|
Which of the following it not a major symptom of atropine poisoning: - Blind as a bat - Red as a beet - Mad as a hatter - Hot as a hare - Wet as a towel |
- Wet as a towel
|
|
|
Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness - Atropine - Scopolamine - Homatropine - Tropicamide |
Scopolamine
|
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|
Butyrylcholinesterase is a non-specific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver and other organs. What type of local anaesthetic is metabolised by BuChE, along with succinylcholine (paralytic) - Ester - Ether - Amine - Alkane - Alcohol |
Ester |
|
|
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Atropine toxicosis: - Neostigmine - Physostigmine - Edrophonium - Donepezil - Pyridostigmine |
Physostigmine
|
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Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anaesthesia: - Neostigmine - Physostigmine - Edrophonium - Donepezil - Pyridostigmine |
Neostigmine |
|
|
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer's disease: - Neostigmine - Physostigmine - Edrophonium - Donepezil - Pyridostigmine |
Donepezil |
|
|
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is not used in Myasthenia Gravis: - Neostigmine - Physostigmine - Edrophonium - Donepezil - Pyridostigmine |
Physostigmine |
|
|
Which of the following is not a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor: - Tacrine - Echothiophate - Sarin, Toban, Soman - Malathion, Parathion - Isoflurophate |
Tacrine |
|
|
By what mechanism do irreversible AChE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site of the enzyme: - Hydroxylation - Hydrolysis - Phosphorylation - Peptide - Methylatioon |
Phosphorylation
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A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to a certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or OP pesticides. The kit has 2 drugs, and AChEi and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect in this kit: - Pralidoxime and echothiophate - Parathion and adenosine - Scopolamine and tropicamine - Mecamylamine and pralidoxime - Atropine and pralidoxime |
- Atropine and pralidoxime
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|
|
Some OP AChEi insecticides have 40 hour half life. What is the approximate half life of Soman: - 6 seconds - 6 minutes - 1 hour - 60 hours |
6 minutes |
|
|
What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down the entire ANS) still available in USA: - Mecamylamine - Scopolamine - Pralidoxime - Echothiophate - Parathion |
Mecamylamine
|
|
|
Which of the following is not an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking: - Mydriasis - Tachycardia - Hypertension - Cycloplegia |
Hypertension
|
|
|
Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor, Neostigmine: - Succinylcholine - Suxamethonium - Atracurium - Edrophonium |
Succinylcholine
|
|
|
How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work: - Decrease BP due to histamine release - Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic ACh receptor channel, and produce or prevent depolarisation of cell membrane - Unusual mechanism - Combine reversible with esteratic site of AChE enzyme, rendering it inactive for about 30 min |
- Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic ACh receptor channel, and produce or prevent depolarisation of cell membrane
|
|
|
What are the adverse effects of anti-cholinesterase: - Tachycardia - Bradycardia - Hypokalaemia - Hyperkalaemia - Arrhythmia |
Bradycardia |
|
|
In cats it is a useful emetic drug - Xylazine - Clonidine - Medetomidine - Propofol |
Xylazine
|
|
|
Not allowed in pseudopregnant animals: - Acepromazine - Detomidine - Medetomidine - Dexmedetomidine |
Acepromazine
|
|
|
Contraindicated in patients with epilepsy: - Morphine - Acepromazine - Metohexital - Ketamine |
Acepromazine
|
|
|
Only effective according to IV application: - Detomidine - Acepromazine - Ketamine - Propofol |
Propofol
|
|
|
Of these four injectable anaesthetics, which one is effective after IM injection: - Ketamine - Propofol - Thiopental - Metomidate |
Ketamine |
|
|
In dogs the primarily chosen drug for status epilepticus: - Sodium valproate - Diazepam - Phenobarbital - Sodium bromide |
Diazepam
|
|
|
In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive opioid agents as well: - Fentanyl - Codeine - Butorphanol - Tramadol |
Butorphanol
|
|
|
Which agents are antidotes for sedative drugs: - Dexmedetomidine - Phencyclidine - Atipamezol - Flumazenil |
Flumazenil and Atipamezole, as both BZD and Alpha-2 agonists are sedative drugs) |
|
|
"Slower to act" transmitters in CNS: - Dopamine - Endorphines - Enkephalins - Serotonin (5-HT) |
Enkephalins
|
|
|
Ultra short acting barbiturate: - Thiopental - Pentobarbital - Butobarbital - Phenobarbital |
Thiopental
|
|
|
It is a GSH category: - Mutagenic - Not toxic for fish - Unknown mechanism of action - Highly toxic |
- Highly toxic
|
|
|
What does "hypnotic effect of a substance" mean: - Pain killing effect - Causes sleeping - Causes hallucinations - Causes catalepsy |
- Causes sleeping |
|
|
Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle: - Solution - Emulsion - Suspension |
Emulsion
|
|
|
Can be combined with carcinogenic studies: - Acute toxicity studies - Repeated-dose toxicity studies - Teratogenicity studies - Preclinical and pharmalogical investigations |
- Repeated-dose toxicity studies
|
|
|
Inhalational anaesthetic, it is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic, and immunologic, lead to it being banned in the EU: - Halothane - Desflurane - Isoflurane - Sevoflurane |
Halothane
|
|
|
Sedative that can lead to paradoxical reaction in horses: - Romifidine - Detomidine - Midazolam - Acepromazine |
Acepromazine
|
|
|
Gels are a dosage form with the following attributes: - High water content - Its vehicle is gel of animal or other origin - Only oral application - None of these |
- Its vehicle is gel of animal or other origin |
|
|
Duration of action of thiopental: - 5-10 minutes - 30 minutes - 1 hour - 10-20 minutes |
5-10 minutes |
|
|
Because of its anxiolytics effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases: - Diazepam - Ketoprofen - Xylazine - Acepromazine |
Diazepam
|
|
|
Which drug can be used as premedication to reverse the cardiovascular effects of Xylazine: - Naloxone - Flumazenil - Xylometazoline - Glycopyrrolate |
Glycopyrrolate
|
|
|
Duration of action of Propofol: - 5-8 minutes - 10 minutes - 15 minutes - 30 minutes |
5-8 minutes |
|
|
How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies: - 2 years - 3 years - 5 years - 10 years |
2 years |
|
|
A drug with potential visceral analgesic properties - Xylazine - Butorphanol - Ketamine - Propofol |
Butorphanol
|
|
|
In which animal species are local tolerance studies performed most frequently: - Rat - Rabbit - Beagle - Mouse |
Rabbit |
|
|
Most important side effect of ultra short acting barbiturates: - Respiratory depression - Vomiting - Paralysis - Blindness |
- Respiratory depression
|
|
|
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the plasma concentration maximum, or steady state after multiple administrations: |
C-maxcc |
|
|
What is the most ulceragenic agent in dogs: |
Diclofenac (NSAID) |
|
|
Calcitriol decreases the urinary retention of: |
Phosphate |
|
|
This ectoparasitic agent is not active aganst ticks: |
Imidacloprid |
|
|
The most important toxicological properties of Gentamicin |
Nephro-, and ototoxicity |
|
|
At which of the following mentioned combinations, do you expect the least respiratory depression: |
Droperidol + Fentanyl |
|
|
In this type of prescription, the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medication is given: |
Prescriptions of veterinary licensed medicine |
|
|
It is the antidote (competetaive antagonist) of coumarin type anti-coagulants: |
Vitamin K |
|
|
What is the primary choice of AB in Rickettsia injections: |
Tetracyclines |
|
|
This is a prodrug, in practice only used against immature liver flukes, inactive against adult flukes and other types of worms: |
Diamphenethide |
|
|
This macrolide AB can be supplied SC to cattle: |
Tilmicosin |
|
|
IV dosage of Xylazine in Eq: |
0.4-1.1 mg/kg BW |
|
|
The most active drug against Rhodococcus equi infection in horses (foals): |
Erythromycin |
|
|
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol for the theoretical plasma concentration maximum, using the IV pharmacokinetic model: |
C-0 |
|
|
Bacterial susceptibility to certain AB is usually determined by this method: |
Disc diffusion method |
|
|
It can provide super-ovulation in donor cows during embryo transfer: |
EcG - Equine chorionic gonadotropin (PMSG - Pregnant Mare Serum Gonadotropin) |
|
|
Dose of Ivermectin in Eq: |
0.2mg/kg BW PO |
|
|
Broad spectrum anti-fungal drug, effective against yeasts and dermatophytes alike: |
Ketaconazole |
|
|
It increases the liberation of prolactin, hence is unsuitable for administration in pseudopregnant animal: |
Chlorpromazine (Phenothiazine, tranquilliser) |
|
|
Its important side effects are bradycardia, severe respiratory depression, and hypotension: |
Fentanyl |
|
|
Usually for mixing these types of drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders do not need a prescription for medicated feedstuff: |
Pharmacy and Merchant List medicines (PML) |
|
|
This antiemetic drug is an antagonist of neurokinin-1 receptors in the CNS: |
Maropitant |
|
|
Which drug would you use in cats for the prevention of tick infestation: |
Propoxur as a collar |
|
|
Which term is abbreviated MRL-value: |
Maximum Recidue Limit (max concentration of drug left) |
|
|
Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administered in severely dehydrated animals: |
Acepromazine |
|
|
Which active substance can be used as a combination in cats for the treatment of flea infestation: |
Fipronil + Methoprene spot-on |
|
|
Anti-fungal drug that is active in the case of dermatophytes, and can be teratogenic: |
Griseofulvin |
|
|
This anthelminthic drug belongs to the group Tetrahydropyrimidine: |
Morantel |
|
|
What does the abbreviation GLP stand for: |
Good Laboratory Practice |
|
|
The most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoid of the four: |
Flumetasone |
|
|
Dose of Butorphanol in dogs, IV/IM: |
0.1-1.4mg/kg BW |
|
|
Used in the eye as an anaesthetic: |
Tetracaine |
|
|
Premix prescription: |
MFS (Medicated Feeding Stuff Prescription) |
|
|
What is normally contraindicated with Tiamulin: |
Ionophore antibiotics |
|
|
Which is the 4th generation Cephalosporins: |
Cefquinome (Cefepime) |
|
|
Which penicillin administered IM has long effect: |
Benzathine Penicillin |
|
|
Which endocrine drug has few side effects, but allergy can be one: |
HcG (Human chorionic Gonadotropin= |
|
|
Which drug can cause mesenteric plexus paralysis with long term use: |
Aloe |
|
|
Which one has the least cardiovascular SE: |
Etomidate (Thiopental) |
|
|
This drug has adrenocorticoid suppression: |
Etomidate |
|
|
Anti-progesterone drug: |
Aglepristone |
|
|
Sigmund test, what is used to stimulate pain: |
It is the "writhing" test, so pain stimulator injected IP (Acetic acid 1%) |
|
|
What is used to measure drug concentration in the chicken experiment: |
Spectrophotometry |
|
|
Combined with Cephalosporins, the nephrotoxicity of this drug is enhanced: |
Gentamicin |
|
|
Polypeptide AB, when applied in injection, can be highly neuromuscular-, and nephrotoxic: |
Colistin sulphate |
|
|
Its mode of action is coccidiostatic, it is active against 2nd generation schizonts: |
Sulphachloropyrazine |
|
|
What is characteristic for Thiopental: |
It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time (ultra short barbiturate) |
|
|
Appropriate for treatment of enteritis caused by E. coli and Salmonella: |
Gentamicin |
|
|
Mode of action of Lincosamides: |
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
The amoxicillin-clavulenic acid combination is inactive against: |
Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
|
|
How did we measure the free Hb content in the in vitro tissue irritation test: |
Light absorbency at specific wavelength, Spectrophotometry |
|
|
This AB can be used in treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus: |
Oxacillin |
|
|
Among the listed Macrolides, this one has cardiotoxic effect (ex. In goats): |
Tilmicosin |
|
|
In the case of keratoconjuntivitis sicca, this substance applied in eyedrop form, may enhance the tear production: |
Procaine |
|
|
Which is characteristic for Polypeptide ABs: |
They have bactericidal effect |
|
|
Which bacterium is highly sensitive to Cephalexine: |
Staphylococcus pseudointermedius |
|
|
This AB has a very short lasting effect, it has to be applied IV approximately 6 times a day: |
Benzylpenicillin Na
|
|
|
This antiprotozoal drug should be applied in food producing mammals and birds: |
Halofuginone |
|
|
The lowest manpower requirement during mass treatment by application: |
Spraying |
|
|
Of the listed Aminoglycosides, this agent is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa: |
Amikacin |
|
|
Among the Quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives, this agent is important in veterinary medicine, but is licensed for human use: |
Ciprofloxacin |
|
|
Recommended application route for treatment of sick swine with elevated body temperature: |
Medicated water or parenteral treatment (Pigs don't loose their appetite before very ill!, this might be wrong) |
|
|
Procaine Benzylpenicillin is inactive against: |
E. coli |
|
|
What is the main site for blood taking in chicken: |
Vena antebrachii |
|
|
Of the listed Quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives, which one is active against anaerobes bacteria: |
Pradofloxacin |
|
|
Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants: |
Tensides |
|
|
1st generation Cephalospoirin, it cannot be applied orally, in veterinary medicine it is frequently used in intramammary infusions: |
Cephapirin |
|
|
When animals are infected with anthrax, what should you administer: |
Penicillin |
|
|
Which anti-coccidial drugs would you use in a rotation program to prevent coccidiosis in broiler chickens: |
Monensin- Amprolium |
|
|
Aminoglycoside that is active against Mycoplasma: |
Spectinomycin |
|
|
This Macrolide is not intended for treatment of young foals: |
Tylosin |
|
|
Frequently occurring active substance in ear drops, eyedrops: |
Neomycin, Gentamycin |
|
|
This group has a very low therapeutic index, mammals, especially horses and dogs, are extremely sensitive: |
Ionophore antibiotics |
|
|
Which of these is a parenteral application route: - Oral - Buccal - Intra-ruminal - None |
None |
|
|
Beta-lactam AB which is suitable for treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa UTI: |
Piperacillin tazobactam |
|
|
Not appropriate for treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus: - Oxacillin - Cefalexin - Amoxicillin-clavulenic acid - Penethamate |
Penethamate
|
|
|
This ionophore antibiotic is less subject to development of cross-resistance: |
Lasalocid |
|
|
In which animal specie might intra-osseous (IO) administration be of high significance: |
Small animals (exotics), young |
|
|
This penicillin AB has long acting effect applies IM: |
Benzathine-penicillin |
|
|
Which is the least toxic Aminoglycoside: |
Spectinomycin |
|
|
Imidazole anti-fungal that can only be used locally: |
Enilconazole |
|
|
The AB in this group belongs to the 30S sub-unit of the bacterial ribosome, they interact with protein synthesis: |
Aminoglycosides |
|
|
Anti-coccidial with -cidal effect: |
Monensin |
|
|
This AB inhibits cell wall synthesis of bacteria, due to its high nephrotopxicity it is used only topically or locally: |
Bacitracin zinc |
|
|
Which is the normally used animal in the "hot plate test": |
Mouse |
|
|
This AB can penetrate intracellularly: |
Doxycycline |
|
|
Which Tetracycline would you recommend in an animal with renal failure: |
Doxycycline |
|
|
When used alone as an anti-coccidial agent, it can cause heat stress in chickens, and should not be used in summer months: |
Nicarbazin (Narasin) |
|
|
This anti-mycoplasma agent can be used concomitantly with Monensin: |
Erythromycin (Tiamulin should NOT be given) |
|
|
This antiseptic is not used for mammary gland disinfection: - Sodium hypochloride - Chlorhexidine - Bradophen - Povidone iodine |
- Sodium hypochloride
|
|
|
Where should the test material be applied in case of tissue irritation test: |
Large muscles (gluteal and dorsal region) |
|
|
Antifungal drug that is active against Malassezia pachydermatis: |
Clotrimazole |
|
|
Because of its pharmacokinetic profile, it is not recommended for treatment of UTIs: |
Enrofloxacin |
|
|
What is the right order of listing the parts for a prescription: |
Heading (1+2), Superscription, Inscription, Subscription, Signature |
|
|
What is the main goal in laying and breeding hens to prevent Coccidiosis: |
Development of immunity
|
|
|
Of which of the listed AB would you use for treatment of a bite wound: - Amoxicillin-clavulenic acid - Gentamicin - Enrofloxacin - Colistin |
- Amoxicillin-clavulenic acid |
|
|
In which case would you not use beta-2 bronchodilator: |
Congestive heart failure (due to positive inotropic and chronotropic effect) |
|
|
IV anaesthetic with important side effect of adrenocortical suppression: |
Etomidate |
|
|
Mass medication is not recommended in: |
Cats |
|
|
Streptomycin is normally combined with this AB: |
Procaine-, and Benzathine penicillin |
|
|
Given together with this drug, you would expect pharmacodynamic interactions with Gentamicin: |
Diazepam |
|
|
The new solid dosage form can be prescribed using the following type of prescription: |
Licensed |
|
|
This drug is used for treatment of prostatitis: |
Potentiated sulphonamide |
|
|
The most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoid: - Prednisolone - Flumethasone - Cortisol - Triamcinolone |
Flumethasone |
|
|
Which factor has to be eliminated from a poultry farm to decrease problems caused by coccidiosis: |
Overflow troughs, leaking water pipes |
|
|
What solution was used for the reaction in the pharmacokinetic investigation in the chicken experiment: |
Naftyl-ethylenediamine ethanol solution |
|
|
This ACE inhibitor is safe also for patients with hepatic failure: |
Lisinopril |
|
|
This Aa has hepato-protective action as well: |
Carnithine |
|
|
Which substance can be used intramammary against penicillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus: |
Cloxacillin |
|
|
Gels are dosage forms: |
Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin |
|
|
An Aa, in its absence, the heart musculature of cats will be hypertrophic: |
Taurine |
|
|
Dose of Ramipril in cats and dogs: |
0.125mg/kg BW PO (An ACE inhibitor) |
|
|
Generally, how often should we apply intramammary infusion in a dry-cow: |
Only once |
|
|
This drug has a narrow therapeutic margin, side effects are salivation, vomiting and bronchoconstriction: |
Diazinon |
|
|
What solution was used for diazotisation in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken: |
Sodium nitrate water solution |
|
|
How long is the tested substance applied to the experimental animals in chronic toxicity studies: |
2 years |
|
|
Which drug has significant anti-Giardia effect as well: |
Fenbendazole |
|
|
Water soluble vitamin, with significant skin protective action: |
Vitamin C |
|
|
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the distribution phase co-efficient in two compartment model: |
Alpha |
|
|
Most appropriate method for the extraction of water-soluble, heat sensitive substances from medicinal herbs: |
Preparing an infusion |
|
|
Long acting Cephalospirin for treatment in dogs and cats: |
Cefovecin |
|
|
If the aim of the investigation is to determine the accelerated stability of the drug product, what are the appropriate conditions: |
40*C, 75% RH, 0, 3 and 6 months |
|
|
The most frequently used drug in combination with Spectinomycin: |
Lincosamide |
|
|
This is obligatory when drugs are supplied to owners by vets: |
Label |
|
|
Expectorant drug, can be applied in combination with anti-tussive: |
Guaifenesine |
|
|
In the case of E. coli septicaemia in swine, which drug would you apply in medicated water: |
Enrofloxacin |
|
|
Among the listed agents, this one is not intended against infections caused by anaerobic bacteria: - Pradofloxacin - Metronidazole - Trimethoprim - Clindamycin |
Trimethoprim
|
|
|
IV dose of butorphanol in Eq: |
0.1 mg/kg BW |
|
|
In the case of fowl cholera (Pasteurella multocida A, D, F), which of the following AB would you apply in medicated water: |
Amoxicillin |
|
|
Frequently combined with Dihydrostreptomycin: |
Procaine-, and Benzathine penicillin |
|
|
A drug with potent visceral analgesic action: |
Butorphanol |
|
|
Its membrane protective effect can partially replace that if vitamin E: |
Selenium |
|
|
Bronchodilator, which relatively specific beta-2 agonist effect can be applied primarily by inhalation: |
Salbutamol |
|
|
Which vehicle is useful for eye ointment: |
White Vaseline |
|
|
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes: |
Lucerne meal |
|
|
Alpha-2 agonist molecule, its side effects are less frequent than that of Xylazine: |
Medetomidine |
|
|
This active substance can be used for treatment of varroosis in honey bees: |
Amitraz |
|
|
Dose of Atropine Sulphate as an antidote in poisoning: |
0.25-1mg/kg BW SC, one third of the dose slowly IV |
|
|
Overdosage of this substance has a hepatotoxic effect: |
Vitamin D (Or vitamin A) |
|
|
Primary mechanism of action of macrolide endectocides: |
Stimulation of glutamine mediated Cl-channels |
|
|
Which controlled drugs are normally not used in veterinary medicine: |
Schedule 1 |
|
|
This drug group is normally incompatible with Tiamulin and Macrolide ABs: |
Ionophore antibiotics |
|
|
IM dose of Tiamulin in Su: |
2-10mg/kg BW |
|
|
Besides babesiosis, its other indication is anaplasmosis: |
Imidocarb dipropionate |
|
|
This Macrolide reaches high concentration in bronchial fluid, and persists for a long time: |
Tulathromycin |
|
|
When this anaesthetic is applied alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness cannot be achieved: |
Ketamine |
|
|
Usually in this application method, the onset of action is very fast: |
IV |
|
|
Using an oil-type injection may lead to life-threatening effects in this route of application: |
IV - Embolism |
|
|
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in the CNS: |
Diazepam |
|
|
The classical ingredients of electuaries are: |
Powder (active ingredient), Syrup or Jam |
|
|
The presence of Ca-ions in intestinal lumen does not influence its bioavailability: |
Doxycycline |
|
|
This name is given to a drug by the manufacturers that produce the drug: |
Proprietary name (Fantasy name) |
|
|
Because of its pharmacokinetic profile, it is not recommended to use for UTIs: |
Doxycycline |
|
|
Long acting glucocorticoid: |
Dexamethasone |
|
|
Among the listed agents, this AB should not be used in treatment of anaerobic bacteria: |
Trimethoprim |
|
|
Systemic endectocides, which is active against fleas and also roundworms: |
Selamectin |
|
|
What kind of active substance was used in our pharmacokinetic investigation during the semester: |
Sulphachloropyrazine sodium |
|
|
Which method would you use to detect sulphonamide derivatives for analytical purposes: |
Britton-Marshall method |
|
|
Drugs that can be used as non-divided powders: |
Only drugs with a broad therapeutic margin |
|
|
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible: |
Diazepam, Etomidate |
|
|
Systemic antifungal drug that can also be safely applied in cats: |
Itraconazole |
|
|
Drug for prevention of tick infestation in cat: |
Fipronil |
|
|
A less typical, only a possible secondary action of certain NSAIDs: |
Inhibition of platelet-aggregation |
|
|
Which drug is useful for treatment in pseudopregnant dogs: |
Cabergonile and Bromocriptine |
|
|
Which ectoparasitic drug is not effective against ticks: |
Imidocloprid (A neonicotinyl substance, only kills adult fleas, and lice) |
|
|
Which bacterium is highly sensitive of Cefalexin: |
Staphylococcus pseudointermedius |
|
|
This drug, due to its cycloplegic properties can be applied in uveitis to decrease pain: |
Atropine |
|
|
Local and systemically available antifungal drug: |
Terbinafine |
|
|
Which juvenile hormone analogue can be applied in salt lick blocks: |
Methoprene |
|
|
Pro-vitamin, but it has well documented direct action on reproductive function in large herbivores: |
(Beta) Carotene |
|
|
Its analgesic activity is negligible: |
Thiopental |
|
|
AB with bactericidal effect: |
Gentamicin (Aminoglycoside) |
|
|
When must a drug label contain the warning "Unsuitable for cats": |
When it contains paracetamol |
|
|
This vitamin has liver protective effect, and anti-ulcer action as well: |
Vitamin U (S-Methylmethionine, a derivative of methionine, not a real vitamin) |
|
|
Which examinations are carried out according to GCP rules: |
Human and veterinary clinical drug examinations |
|
|
Which of the following is characteristic for creams: |
Higher water content (than ointment) |
|
|
What is characteristic to Ketamine: |
Produces catalepsy |
|
|
This anthelmintic drug is not safe when used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitors: |
Levamisole |
|
|
Necessary amount of chlorinated lime to disinfect a drilled well: |
100g |
|
|
In case of risk of septicaemia in swine, which AB would you apply in medicated water: |
Enrofloxacin |
|
|
Hypocalcaemia can occur with IV administration of this AB: |
Oxitetracycline |
|
|
Aminoglycoside with the best oral bioavailability: |
Apramycin |
|
|
Normal dose of Dexamethasone: |
0.1mg/kg BW IV or IM |
|
|
What is characteristic for suppositories: |
Dissolves at body temperature |
|
|
Vehicle in licking stone that can have growth promoting abilities in ruminants: |
Bentonite |
|
|
This macrolide can only be applied in young horses in certain cases: |
Erythromycin |
|
|
Normal dosage of Diazepam: |
0.1-0.5mg/kg BW |
|
|
In dogs, its rapid re-administration does not cause emesis: |
Apomorphine |
|
|
Butyrophenone used to reduce stress in pigs: |
Azaperone |
|
|
It can be given to birds and reptiles for control of sub acute egg retention: |
Oxytocin |
|
|
If the aim is to determine the stability of the drug product after opening the package, what are the appropriate conditions: |
Room temperature for 0-4 weeks |
|
|
It is not obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs, when administered to food productions animals: |
Homeopathic drugs |
|
|
Usual dose of Gentamicin: |
1-4mg/kg BW IM |
|
|
This anthelminthic drug is safe to use even when using cholinesterase inhibitors: |
Flubendazole |
|
|
Which bacterium is used in the AMES test: |
Salmonella typhimurium |
|
|
Injected SC, this drug is appropriate for the treatment of Scabies infestation: |
Doramectin |
|
|
This drug has a very low Ti, and its IV administration is forbidden: |
Imidocarb dipropionate |
|
|
General anaesthetic with narrow therapeutic margin: |
Thiopental |
|
|
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore is less sedative than the other three: |
Cetirizine (2nd generation?) |
|
|
Most effective treatment of chemotherapeutic induced emesis, but less effective in other cases: |
Ondansetron |
|
|
Anti-coccidial that can be administered via drinking water: |
Toltrazuril |
|
|
Dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinking water: |
500mg/L |
|
|
Dosage of Ketamine in cats: |
20mg/kg BW IM |
|
|
A general anaesthetic with broad therapeutic margin, although it might induce cardiovascular side effects or apnoea: |
Propofol |
|
|
Dosage of Medetomidine in cats: |
50-150ug/kg BW (microgram) IV or IM |
|
|
The Aminoglycosides are accumulated in this organ, hence their WP is very long: |
Kidney |
|
|
Among the listed Macrolides, following a single administration, this one has a high concentration and long action (6-8d) in the bronchial fluid: |
Tulathromycin |
|
|
Systemic endectocide which is active against fleas and roundworms: |
Selamectin |
|
|
Which statement is true regarding the CYP-450 enzymes: |
They are part of the microsomes electron transport chain |
|
|
Bronchodilator, with high beta-2-specificity, can be applied primarily by inhalation: |
Salbutamol |
|
|
This AB group inhibits cell wall synthesis, and are active against E. coli: |
Aminopenicillins |
|
|
It is effective against pseudopregnancy in bitches, but may cause emesis: |
Cabergoline |
|
|
Dosage of Xylazine in cattle: |
0.05-0.2mg/kg BW IM |
|
|
Frequently applied substances in the form or oral gel or oral paste in Eq: |
Anthelmintics |
|
|
In which animal specie is the local tolerance test most commonly performed: |
Rabbits |
|
|
Which of the following organisms are sensitive to Tetracyclines: |
Mycoplasma, Borrelia, Rickettsia |
|
|
Anti-tussive, well tolerated in cats: |
Dextromethorphan |
|
|
Mechanism of action of Carbamate insecticidal: |
Inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme |
|
|
This coccidiostatic is a pyrimidine derivative, acts as a competative agent of vitamin B1: |
Amprolium |
|
|
Some of them require safe custody: |
POM |
|
|
Are the alcohol based disinfectants allowed to be rinsed: |
No, it is prohibited |
|
|
What is the indication of GnRH in cattle: |
Both control of time of ovulation, and ovarian follicular cysts |
|
|
This Aminoglycoside is not used alone due to its widespread resistance: |
Streptomycin |
|
|
Which compound forms, as a by product, in the de-methylation reaction of Dextromethorphan: |
Formaldehyde |
|
|
Well absorbed through the nasal mucosa of sows, can be applied in MMA syndrome: |
Oxytocin |
|
|
Which beta-lactam acts against Chlamydia: - Cefquinome - Amoxiclav - Piperacillin-tazobactam - None |
None |
|
|
This drug is contraindicated in animals with DM due to hyperglycaemia: |
Xylazine |
|
|
Aminoglycoside active against Mycoplasma: |
Spectinomycin |
|
|
Which drug is prohibited in food producing animals: |
Chloramphenicol |
|
|
In case of Fentanyl OD, what is the antidote: |
Naloxone |
|
|
Frequently used vehicle in dusting powders: |
ZnO (Zinc oxide) |
|
|
This Benzimidazole anthelminthic can be used in porcine and chicken industry as well: |
Flubendazole |
|
|
Among the listed agents, which is most effective against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae: |
Tiamulin |
|
|
Appropriate antidote for Xylazine and Medetomidine: |
Atipamezole |
|
|
The most effective Macrolide for treatment of swine dysentery: |
Tylvalosin |
|
|
What disinfectant should be used before milking: |
Diluted ionophore (not forming film layer) |
|
|
Mechanism of action of Imidazothiazoles: |
Nicotinergic stimulation |
|
|
The use is contraindicated in case of glaucoma: |
Atropine (increases intraocular pressure) |
|
|
Which of the following drugs makes a complex with both monovalent and divalent ions: |
Lasalocid |
|
|
Mode of actions of Phenicols: |
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
First generation Cephalosporin, cannot be given PO, in veterinary medicine it is frequently used as intra-mammary infusion: |
Cephapirin |
|
|
Systemic endectocide, accumulated in fat tissue and sub cutaneous tissue: |
Moxidectin |
|
|
Which material is appropriate for gas disinfection: |
Formaldehyde |
|
|
This anti-coccidal drug has a low Ti, and can cause skin tears in chicken: |
Halofuginone |
|
|
This drug is exclusively licensed for treatment of GI infections of non-food producing pigeons: |
Furazolidone |
|
|
What is "the firs pass effect": |
The immediate metabolism in the liver, directly after absorption of drug from GI tract (vena portae) |
|
|
Not appropriate method of preventing and treating scabies in sheep: |
Pyrithione SC |
|
|
The antidote to this anthelminthic drug, following a serious OD is not Atropine: |
Albendazole |
|
|
This AB is prohibited to use in food producing animals: |
Metronidazole |
|
|
Can be given PO to adult Ru: |
Fenbendazole |
|
|
Among the Aminoglycosides, this agent is often combined with penicillin in injections: |
(Dehydro)Streptomycin |
|
|
In which case would you expect miosis in the eye after application of this drug: |
Pilocarpine |
|
|
AB and anticoccidial drug, its long term use can cause "haemorrhagic syndrome" in poultry: |
Sulphaquinoxaline |
|
|
This substance is not used on its own, because of its low achieved plasma concentration: |
Benzathine-penicillin |
|
|
Not approved for the treatment of enteritis caused by E. coli and Salmonella : |
Bacitracin |
|
|
Can the "in vivo tests" be substituted by other experiments: |
No it is obligatory to perform |
|
|
Most frequently applied oral dosage form in Eq: |
Oral gel or oral paste |
|
|
This agent inhibits the bacterial folic acid synthesis, by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthase: |
Sulphadimidine |
|
|
Mode of action of Tetracycline: |
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
What is the advantage of combining Xylazine and Ketamine: |
Together they induce more analgesic effect than the substance alone |
|
|
The oral bioavailability of Aminoglycosides (except Apramycin): |
0-10% |
|
|
Divalent Ionophore coccidiostatic drug: |
Lasalocid |
|
|
The AB in this group inhibit cell wall synthesis, and act against E. coli: |
Aminoglycosides |
|
|
This drug is an inhibitor of beta-lactamase: |
Clavulenic acid |
|
|
Administration of this AB drug to herbivores is not recommended, due to the risk of dysbacteriosis: |
Lincosamide |
|
|
Given directly after fertilisation, this can increase the rate of fertility: |
Buserelin |
|
|
In the majority of animals, this is not an essential vitamin: |
Vitamin C |
|
|
In form of a sterile product, this can also be given slowly as IV infusion: |
Micro-suspension |
|
|
Dosage of Gentamicin: |
2-4mg/kg BW IM |
|
|
What is the formulation type of Burrow ointment (ugumentum aluminii acetici tartarici): |
W/O type emulsion |
|
|
The primary choice of treatment in swine erysipelas: |
Penicillin |
|
|
During the late pregnancy, its application is allowed while the soft birth canal is dilated: |
Oxytocin |
|
|
What is the primary purpose of drug application according to European rules: |
Treatment |
|
|
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of area under curve after a single application: |
AUC |
|
|
Anti-coccidial with -cidal effect: |
Semduramicin |
|
|
Important indications for use of Tetracycline: |
Metritis, foot root, local treatment of wounds |
|
|
Which of the following would you administer to a risk patient with cardiovascular disease: |
Midazolam |
|
|
What is the purpose of residual drug analysis: |
To determine WP according to food-and-health legislations |
|
|
Juvenile hormone analogue, which is combined with Fipronil in a spot-on preparation: |
Methoprene |
|
|
Concentration of Atropine in mydriatic eye drops: |
0.5-1% |
|
|
In the course of registration of licensed drugs, which documentation part is the safety documentation, according to EUDRALEX requirements: |
Part 3 |
|
|
Organisms related to E. coli and Salmonella: |
Spectinomycin |
|
|
Which drug would you apply for treatment of horse botfly larval infestation: |
Moxidectin PO |
|
|
It is intended for the control of benign prostatic hyperplasia in male dogs, but its continuous administration can lead to bone marrow depression: |
Oestradiol |
|
|
Which of the following is not a prerequisite of anaesthesia: - Total unconsciousness - Somatic and visceral analgesia - Pre-operative anti-inflammatory action - Muscle relaxant |
- Pre-operative anti-inflammatory action |
|
|
Selective COX2 inhibitor : |
Firocoxib |
|
|
Dosage of Ketamine in cats: |
20mg/kg BW IM |
|
|
It has a very potent liver protective activity: |
Selenium |
|
|
Most frequently applied drug in combination with Spectinomycin: |
Lincomycin |
|
|
In adult female rabbits, it will provoke oestrus regardless of oestrus cycle: |
Gonadorelin |
|
|
This drug has severe harmful effect of the intestinal flora: |
Enrofloxacin |
|
|
Sedative drug with pronounced anti-emetic activity: |
Acepromazine |
|
|
Concentration of Amitraz as sheep dip: |
0.025-0.05% solution |
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Partial opioid agonist, it is frequently combined with Medetomidine: |
Butorphanol |
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Anti-parasitic drug with narrow therapeutic margin, its side effects are, salivation, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bronchoconstriction: |
Diazinon |
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This drugs has high activity against Campylobacter infections in poultry: |
Erythromycin |
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Broad therapeutic margin, pronounced muscle relaxant and anti-convulsive action: |
Diazepam |
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Which if the following are not water-soluble bases: - Wool fat - Sunflower oil - Both - None |
Both |
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Frequent combination partner with Nicarbazin: |
Narasin |
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This anthelminthic drug has very low bioavailability, but it is highly effective in horses against nematodes in the large bowel due to its high concentration there: |
Pyrantel |
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Which AB would you apply in an animal with severe renal failure: |
Enrofloxacin |
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Sedative that lowers the body's temperature, and is thus contraindicated in dehydrated animals: |
Acepromazine |
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Benzimidazole used in the porcine and poultry industry: |
Flubendazole |
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Dose of ionophore, Maduramicin: |
5mg/kg food |
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Uterotonic drug: |
Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin and Carbetocin
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Cephalosporins active against Mycoplasma: |
None |
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Potassium sparing diuretic: |
Spironolactone |
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Overdose on this vitamin is hepatotoxictoxic: |
Vitamin A (fat soluble) |
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What bacteria are susceptible to Macrolides: |
Mycoplasma, Bachyspira hyodysenteriae |
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What drug would you use in a UTI: |
Gentamicin |
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What drug would you use in renal failure: |
Cephalosporins, Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone, Cefador |
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What anthelminthic drug is used in the large intestine of the horse: |
Pyrantel paste, Tetrahydropyrimidine |
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What kind of formulation is covered in a thin polymer layer: |
Tablet |
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What can be injected IV: |
Micro-emulsion (micro-suspension, infusions) |
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What vitamin is beneficial for animals under stress: |
Vitamin C |
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Doxycycline is used for treating which disease: |
Lyme disease (Borrelia), intracellularly bacteria |
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What program is not used in broiler chickens: |
Combined |
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Which program is used twice in one raising period: |
Shuttle |
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What would you use against tick infestation in dogs: |
Permethrin |
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What is used for neuroleptanalgesia: |
Neuroleptic and opioids |
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What binds toxins, including E. coli enterotoxins: |
Activated charcoal |
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What two drugs should be used in the switch program: |
Ionophore and Thiazine |
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The major component of pastes: |
Minimum 40% solid, high solid content |
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What part of the drug legislation contains clinical trials documentation: |
Part 3 |
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What part of drug legislation contains toxicology documentation: |
Part 3 |
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What can be measured with carcinogenicity: |
Mutagenicity |
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What drug is used for inducing oestrus: |
Progesterone |
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What can cause dysbacteriosis in (herbivorous) rodents: |
Penicillin, Lincomycin, Tetracycline, Macrolides |
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Gentamicin is not effective if it is applied this route: |
PO |
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Least manpower procedure needed to make: |
Medicated drinking water |
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Which one of these are not water-soluble: - Polysorbate - Methylcellulose - Both - None |
None, both are water soluble |
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Requirement for medicated feedstuff: |
MFS prescription |
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Which AB is toxic to rodents: |
Lincomycin |
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What drug is used to treat Babesiosis: |
Imidocarb dipropionate |
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|
What drug causes adrenocortical depression |
Trilostane (the treatment for Cushing's, and Etomidate) |
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Whic one is a diuretic: |
Furosemide |
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Which drug is used for treatment of swine dysentery: |
Lincomycin, Tylvalosin, Tiamulin, Tylosin |
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Whic drug can be used to treat swine dysentery both PO and IV: |
Tiamulin |
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What spot-on application is not used in cats: |
Amitraz |
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What drug is used to treat "haemorrhagic syndrome" in chickens: |
vitamin K |
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What drug has a pronounced ionotropic effect: |
Pimobendan, Digitalis glycosides |
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What is found in European Pharmacopeia: |
Human medicine indications |
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What anthelminthic is used in cattle against warble flies: |
Pour on with OP or Macrolides |
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|
What animal did we use in the pharmacokinetic investigation lab: |
Chicken |
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What AB causes yellow discolouration of teeth in puppies: |
Oxitetracycline |
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What are the most accurately dispensed drug: |
Dispensed powders |
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|
What drugs are not suitable for lower UTIs |
Penicillins, Cephalosporins |
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This drug is a micro-emulsion, susceptible for bacterial contamination: |
Propofol |
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|
If no veterinary licensed drug is available, what should we use: |
Human licensed (if no vet. licensed drug for other specie or condition is available too) |
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|
Slowest acting NSAIDs: |
Methazone, Flunixin meglumine |
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|
What part of the drug development is not preclinical: |
Field trials, Pharmacovigilance |
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|
What can you use for treatment of Candida infection: |
Myostatin |
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What is the measurement unit for pharmacokinetic distribution: |
Vd |
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|
What is the distribution co-efficient in a two- compartment model: |
Alpha |
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|
What can you use as Tuberculosis treatment in humans: |
Streptomycin |
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|
Prevents abortion in ewe with toxoplasmosis: |
Quinone / Quinate |
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|
Who are sensitive to Tetracycline: |
Rodents, horses, puppies and kittens (young), last trimester pregnancy |
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|
Treatment for feline asthma: |
Zafirlukast and Terbutaline |
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Which of these drugs have no analgesic effect: |
Chlorpromazine |
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|
Which product can be used in food: |
Premix |
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|
What is active against both larvae and adult worms: |
Levamisole and Tetrahydropyrimidine |
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|
What dosage form is free of particles: |
Solution |
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|
Which form is insoluble in water:
|
Hydrous W/O |
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|
Treatment of Cusching's syndrome: |
Trilostane |
|
|
Treatment for pseudopregnancy: |
Ergolines |
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|
Which drug causes mydriasis: |
Atropine |
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|
What drug is not suitable for herbivorous rodents: |
Lincomycin and Macrolides |
|
|
Is polysorbate 20 water soluble: |
Yes |
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|
What is the most common intra-ruminal drug administration technique(?): |
Pulsatile release bolus |
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|
What tranquilliser is less sedative due to penetration of BBB: |
Promethazine (less potent) |
|
|
NSAID and Spasmolytic drug: |
Metamizole + Butylscopolamine |
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|
Treatment of Candidiasis: |
Chitin inhibitors |
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|
Treatment of mosquitos, ants and beetles: |
JHA, Juvenile Hormone Analogue |
|
|
Ectoparasitic drug toxic to fish: |
Pyrethions, Synthetic pyrethrins |
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|
Preclinical phase consists of: |
Pharmacological investigation, toxicity studies, target animal studies and toxicity test |
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|
Slow developing NSAID (?) |
Flunixin meglumine |
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|
Best drug for long term treatment of epilepsy: |
Phenobarbital |
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|
Which Macrolide is not given to cardiovascular risk patients: |
Tilmicosin |
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|
Which organ is normally affected if systemic anti-fungals are given for a prolonged time: |
Liver |
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|
In which case would you use antibacterial Metaphylaxis: |
Swine dysentery |
|
|
Systemic anti-fungal that can safely be applied in cats: |
Itraconazole |
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|
Which NSAID has good spasmolytic effect: |
Flunixin meglumine |
|
|
Can be used to disinfect wells: |
Chlorinated lime and Sodium hypochloride |
|
|
Quinolone drug that does not contain Flourine atom: |
Nalidixic acid |
|
|
Used to prevent nidation in bitches: |
Oestradiol |
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|
Which of the following is not effective against E. coli: |
Narrow spectrum penicillins |
|
|
Which animal specie is normally not dipped: |
Swine |
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|
Propofol effect duration: |
5-8minutes |
|
|
Beta-lactam used against Pseudomonas aeruginosa: |
Piperacillin-tazobactam |
|
|
Where is the injection site, and how much should be injected in a mouse: |
Caudal vein, 2mg/kg (of a specific drug?) |
|
|
AB active against fungi, can be applied orally: |
Griseofulvin (give with fatty meal to increase uptake) |
|
|
Which application is suitable for the treatment of a large number of poultry, sick with fowl cholera: |
Oral powder dissolved in drinking water |
|
|
Which drugs can be sold/used with no restrictions: |
GSL (General Sales List) |
|
|
This name is given by the International Pharmacopeia Commission, and is mainly uniform world wide: |
Approved name |
|
|
Best way to give de-wormer to a horse: |
Oral paste or drench by nasogastric tube |
|
|
From the fastest to the slowest (absorption) application route: |
IV, IM, SC, ID |
|
|
Which of the following is a water-soluble base: |
Gelatine |
|
|
Which one is a narrow spectrum anthelminthic: |
Triclabendazole |
