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335 Cards in this Set
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A company plans to market a new antiseptic solution that prevents the spread of disease on hands and surgical equipment. The marketing department wants to name the product based on pioneer in the field of chemical sterilization. What are two pioneers would you choose? Explain your answer.
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Ignaz Phillip Semmelweis who discovered that the use of chlorinated lime water in maternity wards. Joseph Lister introduced the use of carbolic acid in sterilization of surgical equipment.
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You are applying for a pharmacy technician job at retail pharmacy in another state. What are the requirements are not part of the job description?
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Transferring prescriptions, preparing prescription labels, and maintaining allergy information in the pharmacy system.
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How can a patient obtain a schedule I drug?
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Its only used in research studies.
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Why are the achievements of Claude Bernard important to the science of pharmacology?
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He demonstrated that certain drugs have specific sites of action within the body and used lab methods to study drugs.
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Groups related to pharmaceutical practice and the year they were created in order according to the year of their creation.
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USP (1820), APh (1852), FDA (1927), DEA (1973)
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You are reading a newspaper ad about a drug named BPPA469 for the treatment of osteoarthritis. The ad states that healthy adults, ages 18 to 45 years, are to take the drug and come in once a week to be examined while on BPPA469. What phase of clinical trial do you think BPPA469 is in? Explain.
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Phase I because researchers are recruiting a small number of healthy people to study what happens to the drugs in the human body.
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A pharmaceutical company is attempting to market a product with the brand name Rivernex and the generic name superatenolol. The drug is a modified form of atenolol that has a lower incidence of hypotension. What is unacceptable about the generic name of the drug?
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The generic name superatenolol could lead the public to possibly form the opinion that this drug is superior to atenolol.
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If you were a student of Galen, what would you consider the sources of disease?
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The body's humors: blood, yellow bile, black bile, & phlegm.
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Which two drug classes require that medication guides be given to patients at the time they pick up their prescriptions?
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NSAIDs & Antidepressants
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Is a vaccine considered a therapeutic or a prophylactic drug? Explain.
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A vaccine is a prophylactic drug, because it prevents disease. A vaccine does not treat disease.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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During phase II of a clinical trial, patients are randomized to take either an active drug or a placebo.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Methotrexate should never be used by pregnant women because of demonstrated harm to the fetus. This drug is in FDA Pregnancy Category X.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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A good source for determining whether a generic drug is interchangeable whit a brand name drug is the Orange Book.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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To be made available without a prescription, a legend drug must have its status changed to OTC.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Pharmacy technicians must be recertified every 2 years by the PTCB.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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The use of generic drugs help to keep the overall cost healthcare down.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Problems with OTC products should be reported to the FDA's MedWatch or the ISMP.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Valerius Cordis published the Dispensatorium in 1546.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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The Pharmacopoeia of the United States was published by the Massachusetts Medical Society.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Metoprolol tartrate and metoprolol succinate are examples of the same chemical that are available as two different salts.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Homeopathic remedies use minute doses of drugs.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Each drug seeking marketing status in the United States must have submitted and received an approved New Drug Application (NDA).
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Title II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse prevention and Control Act of 1970 designated five schedules for controlled substances according to the abuse probability of the drugs.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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Insulin was the first isolated by Sir Frederick Banting & Charles Best.
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Evolution of Medicinal Drugs
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In a double blind study, neither trail participants nor research staff knows which subjects are in the experimental group and which subjects are in the control group.
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Black Box Warning
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Information printed on a drug package to alert prescribers to potential problems with the drug.
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Brand Name
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The name under which the manufacturer markets a drug; also known as the trade name.
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C-I
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A drug with the highest potential for abuse, which may be used only for research under a special license. Examples are heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana.
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C-II
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A drug with a high potential for abuse, for which dispensing is severely restricted and prescriptions may not be refilled. Examples morphine, oxycodone, meperidine, hydromorphone, fentanyl
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C-III & C-IV
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A drug with a moderate potential for abuse, which can be refilled no more than 5 times in 6 months and only if authorized by the physician for this time period. Examples of C-III are codeine with aspirin, codeine with acetaminophen, anabolic steroids. Examples of C-IV are benzodiazepines, meprobamate, phenobarbital.
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C-V
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A drug with a slight potential for abuse, some of which may be sold without a prescription depending on state law, but the purchaser must sign for the drug and show identification. Examples are liquid codeine preparations.
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Controlled Substance
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A drug with potential for abuse; organized into five categories or schedules that specify whether and how the drug may be dispensed.
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Double Blind Study
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A clinical trial in which neither the trial participants nor the study staff know whether a particular participant is in the control group or the experimental group.
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Drug
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A medicinal substance or remedy used to change the way a living organism functions; also called a medication.
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DEA
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The branch of the U.S. Justice Department that is responsible for regulating the sale and use of specified drugs, especially controlled substances.
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Drug Sponsor
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The entity, usually a pharmaceutical company, responsible for testing the efficacy and safety of a drug and proposing the drug for approval.
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FDA
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The agency of the federal government that is responsible for ensuring the safety of a drugs and food prepared for the market.
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Generic Name
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A name that identifies a drug independently of its manufacturer; sometimes denotes a drug that is not protected by a trademark; also referred to as a USAN (United States Adopted Name).
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Homeopathy
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A system of therapeutics in which diseases are treated by administering minute doses of drugs that, in healthy patients, are capable of producing symptoms like those of the disease being treated.
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Legend Drug
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A drug that may be sold only by prescription and must be labeled "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription" or "RX only".
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Medication Guide
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Specific information about certain types of drugs that is required by the FDA to be made available to the patient.
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OTC
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A drug that may be sold without a prescription.
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Patent
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A government grant that gives a drug company the exclusive right to manufacture a drug for certain number of years; protects the company's investment in developing the drug.
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Pharmacist
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One who is licensed to prepare and sell or dispense drugs and compounds and to fill prescriptions.
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Pharmacognosy
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The study and identification of natural sources of drugs.
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Pharmacology
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The science of drugs and their interactions with the systems of living animals.
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Pharmacy Technician
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An individual working in a pharmacy who, under the supervision of licensed pharmacist, assists in activities not requiring the professional judgement of a pharmacist.
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Placebo
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An inactive substance with no treatment value.
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Prophylactic Drug
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A drug that prevents or decreases the severity of a disease.
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PTCB
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A national organization that develops pharmacy technician standards and serves as a credentialing agency for pharmacy technicians.
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Pharmakon
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Greek word meaning magic spell
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Heart rate increases when beta-1 receptors are stimulated. A drug taken by a patient binds to the beta receptors. As a result, the patient's heart rate increases. Was the drug an antagonist or an agonist? Explain.
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The drug is an agonist because it triggered a response similar to the action of the body's own chemical messengers.
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What is the goal of drug therapy?
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The goal is to produce in the body a response that cures or controls a specific disease or medical condition.
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Why does the body act to maintain homeostasis?
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The body acts to maintain homeostasis to keep the body's living processes in balance.
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Ciclopirox (Penlac) is an antifungal used to treat oncychomycosis, a type of nail fungus. The directions say to apply the lacquer to each affected nail daily. Will the ciclopirox have a local or system effect? Explain.
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The drug has a local effect because it must be applied to each affected nail.
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Rifampin is a CYP450 3A4 inducer. If a patient is on other drugs that are metabolized by the same isoenzymes, what would you expect to happen to the levels of those drugs when taken in conjunction with Rifampin?
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After one to two weeks of Rifampin therapy, drug levels of the pther CYP450 3A4 drugs would decrease due to enzyme induction.
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Mrs. Holly, a patient with cancer, has been on high doses of Oxycontin for six months for pain. Her medication is being managed by an oncologist. Mrs. Holly does not experience euphoria when taking the prescribed dosage. Is she dependent on or addicted to Oxycontin? Explain.
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Because Mrs. Holly is not seeking the use of Oxycontin for euphoria, she is dependent on the drug for prevention of cancer related pain.
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When a Z Pak is dispensed, the patient is told to take 2 tablets on the first day, theen one a day until all tablets are gone. What is the purpose of this and what name is given to the first 2 tablets?
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The loading dose will rapidly bring the blood concentration to a therapeutic level. The first 2 tablets are the loading dose.
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You read in a medical journal about a patent who developed an enlarged liver after taking a drug that has been available for 15 years. Although the enlarged liver can definitely be attributed to the drug, no such reactions has previously been reported. Is the response in this case allergic, anaphylactic, and idiosyncratic?
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Idiosyncratic
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Drug A & Drug B are both anticholinergics. To have equal effects, drug A must be dosed six times a day, and drug B must be dosed two times a day. Which drug has longer duration of action? Explain.
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Since drug B is dosed less often, it has the longer duration of action. The free level will be 1.5mcg/ml X 15mcg/ml X 0.9= 13.5 mcg; 15mcg-13.5,cg= 1.5 mcg/ml
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What is half-life? How many half lives are needed to eliminate a drug from the body?
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A half-life is the amount of time it takes for the body to eliminate half of the original concentration of a drug from the body. 5-7 half lives are necessary to eliminate nearly all of a drug from the body.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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The blood brain barrier prevents many drugs from penetrating the brain.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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Vancomycin is usually dosed every 12 hours. If a dose was administered at 10 am, and the concentration of the drug in the blood had fallen to its lowest level at 9:30 pm that level would be considered a trough.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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General anesthetics are excreted by the kidney, liver, and respiratory system. The sum excretion of all these systems is known as total body clearance.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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Many geriatric patients experience a condition called gastroparesis, which greatly delays gastric emptying time. You would expect that this condition would also delay drug absorption.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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Patients with impaired liver function who take drugs that are not excreted by the kidneys might expect drugs to be present for a longer amount of time in the blood compared to patients with normal liver function.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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Drugs that undergo extensive first pass effect will have a lower bioavailability than those that do not.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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Digoxin levels should be between 0.8ng/ml and 2ng/ml. A reading between those two numbers is considered to be in the Therapeutic range.
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Basic Concepts of Pharmacology
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A drug has a blood plasma concentration of 20mcg/ml. Ten hours later, the plasma concentration is 5mcg/ml. This drug has a half life of 5 hours.
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Absorption
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The process whereby a drug enters the circulatory system.
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Affinity
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The strength by which a particular chemical messenger binds to its receptor site on a cell.
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Agonist
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Drugs that bind to a particular receptor site and trigger the cell's response in a manner similar to the action of the body's own chemical messenger.
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Anaphylactic Reaction
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A severe allergic response resulting in immediate life threatening respiratory distress, usually followed by vascular collapse and shock and accompanied by hives.
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Antagonist
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Drugs that bind to a receptor site and block the action of the endogenous messenger or other drugs.
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Antigen
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A specific molecule that stimulates an immune response.
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Bioavailability
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The degree to which a drug or other substance becomes available to the target tissue after administration.
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Blood Brain Barrier
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A barrier that prevents many substances from entering the cerebrospinal fluid from the blood; formed by glial cells that envelope the capillaries in the central nervous system, presenting a barrier to many water soluble compounds though they are permeable to lipid soluble substances.
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Ceiling Effect
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A point at which no chemical response occurs with increased dosage.
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Dependence
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A state in which a person's body has adapted physiologically and psychologically to a drug and cannot function without it.
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Distribution
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The activity of a drug within the body over a period of time; includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination.
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Elimination
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Removal of a drug or its metabolites from the body by excretion.
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First Pass Effect
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The extent to which the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation.
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Half Life
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The time necessary for the body to eliminate half of the drug in the body at any time; written as T1/2
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Induction
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The process whereby a drug increases the concentration of certain enzymes that affect the pharmacologic response to another drug.
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Inhibition
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The process whereby a drug blocks enzyme activity and impairs the metabolism of another drug.
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Interaction
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A change in the action of a drug caused by another drug, a food, or another substance such as alcohol or nicotine.
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Lipid
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A fatty molecule, an important constituent of cell membranes
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Loading Dose
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Amount of a drug that will bring the blood concentration rapidly to a therapeutic level.
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Local Effect
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An action of a drug that is confined to a specific part of the body.
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Maintenance Dose
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Amount of a drug administered at regular intervals to keep the blood concentration at a therapeutic level.
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Metabolism
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The process by which drugs are chemically converted to other compounds.
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Prophylaxis
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Effect of a drug in preventing infection or disease.
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Pruritis
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Itching sensation
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Receptor
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The process by which a drug moves from the blood into other body fluids and tissues and ultimately to its sites of action.
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Solubility
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A drug's ability to dissolves in body fluids.
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Systemic Effect
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An action of a drug that has a generalized, all inclusive effect on the body.
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Trough
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The lowest level of a drug in the blood.
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Volume of Distribution
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Mathematical relationship between the blood concentration attained and the amount of drug administered.
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How can a patient achieve relief with sublingual nitroglycerin when the oral route typically has an absorption phase of 15 to 30 minutes?
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Sublingual nitroglycerin enters the bloodstream directly from the membrane of the mouth and produces its effects more quickly than nitroglycerin that is swallowed.
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What is the route of choice for general anesthetics? Explain.
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General anesthetics are administered by respiratory route because of the rapid administration, which is due to the large surface area for absorption.
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If a patient is vomiting and IV antiemetics are not available, what other route could be considered?
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Rectal Route
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Why might Zantac need to be dose adjusted in older adults? (30 to 70% of a Zantac dose is excreted unchanged in the urine)
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Older adults tend to have decreasing renal function, requiring many of their medications to be dosed adjusted.
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How many different vaccinations should a child have received by the age of six months?
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A 6 month old child should have been vaccinated with six different vaccines, with a total of 15 doses.
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Breastfed newborns begin developing their immunity through the antibodies contained in breast milk. Is this active or passive immunity?
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Passive Immunity
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How can a patient have positive tuberculin skin tests, but have no signs or symptoms of active disease?
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A positive skin test indicates exposure to tuberculosis, but not necessarily active disease. It is also possible that the patient received the BCG vaccine and will have positive results on subsequent skin tests.
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Dispensing Medications
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The only vaccination on the pediatric schedule that does not require a booster is varicella vaccine.
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Dispensing Medications
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The sig or signa is the part of a prescription that tells the patient how to take the medication.
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Dispensing Medications
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Using MSO4 as an abbreviation for morphine sulfate is dangerous because it can easily be confused with magnesium sulfate.
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Dispensing Medications
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The parenteral route bypasses the first pass effect and increases bioavailability.
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Dispensing Medications
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The topical route uses skin absorption as a mode of delivery for medication.
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Dispensing Medications
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Older adults generally have decreased exercise tolerance because of age related degeneration of the cardiovascular system.
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Dispensing Medications
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The decrease in testosterone production experienced by older adult men is an example of hormonal changes.
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Dispensing Medications
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Having too many medications to take can cause a decrease in patient compliance.
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Dispensing Medications
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Synthetic vaccines contain antigens that cause the body to form an immune response to a certain disease.
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Dispensing Medications
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Histamine is produced in the mast cells.
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Dispensing Medications
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Nizatidine (Axid) is an example of an H2 blocker.
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Dispensing Medications
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A histamine reaction causes dilation of blood vessels.
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Dispensing Medications
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A medication label contains instructions for the patient as well as the physicians name, the date the prescription was filled, and the drugs name.
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Allergy
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A state of heightened sensitivity as a result of exposure to a particular substance.
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Antigen
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The molecule that an antibody recognizes.
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Beers List
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A list of drugs for which monitoring is especially important in elderly patients.
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Buccal
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To be placed between the cheek and the gums.
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Compliance
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A patients adherence to the dose schedule and other particular requirements of the specified regimen.
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E-Prescribing
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The process which allows a prescriber's computer system to talk to the pharmacy's computer system and the medication order/prescription is transmitted to the pharmacy.
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Histamine
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A chemical produced by the body that evokes the symptoms of an allergic reaction and is blocked by antihistamines.
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Immunization
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The process by which the immune system is stimulated to acquire protection against a specific disease; usually achieved by use of a vaccine.
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Inhalation
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Administration of a medication through the respiratory system.
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Inscription
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Part of a prescription that identifies the name of the drug, the dose, and the quantities of the ingredients.
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Instillation
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Administration of a medication drop by drop
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Intradermal
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To be injected into the skin
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Intramuscular
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To be injected in the muscle; abbreviated IM.
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Intrathecal
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To be injected into the spinal cord
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Intravenous
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Administration of medication through a vein, thereby avoiding the first pass effect; abbreviated IV
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Medication Reconciliation
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The providing of a complete and accurate drug profile to each health care provider who cares for a patient.
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Morbidity
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Death rate from a particular disease.
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Mortality
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Rate of occurrence of a diseased state or condition.
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Ophthalmic
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To be administered through the eye
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Oral
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Administration of a medication by mouth in either solid form, as a tablet or capsule, or in liquid form, as a solution or syrup.
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Otic
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Administered in the ear
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Polypharmacy
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The concurrent use of multiple medications
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Prescription
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A direction for medication to be dispensed to a patient, written by a physician or a qualified licensed prescriber and filled by a pharmacist; referred to as an order when the medication is requested in a hospital setting.
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Signa
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Part of a prescription that provides directions to be included on the label for the patient to follow in taking the medication.
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Subcutaneous
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To be injected into the tissue just beneath the skin
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Sublingual
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To be placed under the tongue
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Systemic
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Pertaining to or affecting the body as a whole
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Topical
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Applied to the surface of the skin or mucous membranes
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Three Times A Day
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TID
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Twice A Day
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BID
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Broad Spectrum Antibiotic
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An antibiotic that is effective against multiple organisms.
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Arrhythmia
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Variation in heartbeat, irregular heart beat
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Infection
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A condition in which bacteria grow in body tissues and causes tissue damage to the host either by their presence or toxins they produce.
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Stevens Johnson Syndrome
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A sometimes fatal form or erythema multiforme (an allergic reaction marked)
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Hypotension
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Low Blood Pressure
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pH
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A measurement of acidity or alkalinity.
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Superinfection
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A new infection complicating the course of therapy of an existing infection.
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Sepsis
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A systemic inflammatory response to infection resulting from blood borne infections.
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Empirical Treatment
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Treatment begun before a definite diagnosis can be obtained.
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Antibiotic
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A chemical substance with the ability to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria by interfering with bacteria life processes.
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Which HIV drug must be dispensed with a card for the patient to carry at all times?
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Epzicom
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With which antiviral should you use chemotherapeutic precautions?
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Granciclovir
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Which antivirals are available in both intravenous and by mouth dosage forms?
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Acyclovir & Granciclovir
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Which NNRTI decrases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
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Nevirapine
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Which NRTI should be stored in an airtight container?
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Hivid
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Which HIV medication should be dispensed with alcohol pads to clean the injection site before administration?
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Fuzeon
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Which auxiliary label would be place on an itraconazole prescription?
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Take with food
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A dose of intravenous acyclovir has already been made. Would you store it in the refrigerator or at room temperature?
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The IV acyclovir should be stored at room temperature.
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Which antiviral would a pharmacy stock, but never dispense directly to a patient?
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Granciclovir Intraviral Implant (Vitrasert)
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Which auxiliary label should accompany Ziagen (abacavir)?
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Do not drink alcoholic beverages when taking this medication.
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How would you store Cancidas (casofungin) vials before reconstitution?
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In the Refrigerator
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How would you store any amphotericin B formulation before reconstitution?
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In the Refrigerator
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What 3 auxiliary labels should be affixed to a Crixivan (indinavir) prescription?
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Drink plenty of water, Dispense in original container, & Do not drink grapefruit juice.
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Which NRTIs should have a "Do not take with alcoholic beverages" auxiliary label?
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Didanosine & Entricitabine
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Which protease inhibitor should have an "Avoid exposure to sunlight" auxiliary label?
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Amprenavir
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Boost
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One drug given to increase the serum concentration of another drug.
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Cholesterol
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An eukaryotic sterol that in higher animals is the precursor of bile acids and steroid hormones and is key constituent of cell membranes.
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Interferon
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Tamiflu
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Pulse Dosing
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A regimen of dosing one week per month; commonly used for treating fungal nail infections.
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Ritonivir
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Norvir
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Hepatitis
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Viral inflammation of the liver
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Oseltamivir
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A substance that exerts virus-nonspecific antiviral activity by inducing genes coding for antiviral proteins that inhibit the synthesis of viral RNA.
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Latency
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The ability of a virus to lie dormant and then, under certain conditions reproduce and again behave like an infective agent, causing cell damage.
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Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
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A retrovirus transmitted in body fluids that causes acquired deficiency syndrome (AIDS) by attacking T lymphocytes.
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Immunocompromised
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Having a deficiency in the immune response system.
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What drug is used as the standard against which all other narcotic analgesics are measured?
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Morphine
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What is the chemotrigger zone?
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an area of the brain on which narcotics act, which in turn stimulate the vomiting center.
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What are the two categories of treatment for migraine headaches?
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Prophylactic & Abortive
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How should persistent pain be treated? (Hint: analgesic ladder)
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in a stepwise fashion: first acetaminophen, then NSAIDs and then opioids.
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Why is the acetaminophen and aspirin component of combination narcotic analgesic drugs important?
|
Prescribers unknowingly can overdose a patient on these drugs which can be fatal over time.
|
|
|
Why are neuromuscular blocking agents important?
|
Neuromuscular blocking agents paralyze the patient during surgery.
|
|
|
When is prophylactic treatment indicated for migraines?
|
If migraines occur more than twice a month
|
|
|
Which drug is approved for the treatment of hiccups?
|
Chlorpromazine
|
|
|
You work in a childrens hospital and notice many inhaled anesthetics except desflurane. Why is desflurane unavailable?
|
Desflurane can cause mild to severe upper respiratory tract irritation in children.
|
|
|
What is the dose equivalent of Percocet to 10mg IM morphine?
|
30 mg Oral
|
|
|
Which class of local anesthetic should be avoided in patients with liver insufficiency?
|
Amides
|
|
|
Is ketamine (Ketalar) an appropriate anesthetic for a patient with uncontrolled hypertension? Why or why not?
|
No, ketamine is not appropriate because it can increase blood pressure and heart rate.
|
|
|
Does the autonomic nervous system regulate body systems under voluntary or involuntary control?
|
The autonomic nervous system regulates system under involuntary control.
|
|
|
What are the five components of a classic migraine headache?
|
Podrome, aura, headache relief, and postdrome.
|
|
|
What is the class of drug for eletriptan (Relpax)?
|
Triptan-Selective 5HT receptors agonists.
|
|
|
What dosage forms are commercially available for metoclopramide (Reglan)?
|
Injection, Oral Liquid, and Tablet
|
|
|
Why would find fflumazenil (Romanzicon) in an emergency room kit? What are the possible side effects?
|
It is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose. Possible side effects are headache, nausea, vomiting, and agitation.
|
|
|
Tylenol With Codeine
|
Acetaminophen-Codeine
|
|
|
Valium
|
Diazepam
|
|
|
Lortab
|
Hydrocodone-Acetaminophen
|
|
|
Ativan
|
Lorazepam
|
|
|
Reglan
|
Metoclopramide
|
|
|
Imitrex
|
Oxycodone-Acetaminophen
|
|
|
Darvocet-N 100
|
Propoxyphene-Acetaminophen
|
|
|
Percocet
|
Sumatriptan
|
|
|
Addiction
|
A compulsive disorder that leads to continued use of a drug despite harm to user.
|
|
|
Analgesic
|
A drug that alleviates pain.
|
|
|
Analgesic Ladder
|
A guideline for selecting pain relieving medications according to the severity of the pain and whether agents lower on the ladder have been able to control the pain.
|
|
|
Antagonists
|
Drugs used to reverse the effects of other drugs, such as in treatment of benzodiazepine or narcotic overdoses.
|
|
|
Aura
|
A subjective sensation or motor phenomenon that precedes and marks the onset of a migraine headache.
|
|
|
Autonomic Nervous System
|
The part of the efferent system of the PNS that regulates activities of body structures not under voluntary control.
|
|
|
Beta-1 Receptors
|
Nerve receptors on the heart that control the rate and strength of the heartbeat in response to epinephrine.
|
|
|
Beta-2 Receptors
|
Nerve receptors that control vasodilation and relaxation of the smooth muscle of the airways in response to epinephrine.
|
|
|
Central Nervous System
|
The brain and spinal cord.
|
|
|
Dependence
|
A physical and emotional reliance on a drug.
|
|
|
General Anesthesia
|
A condition characterized by reversible unconsciousness, analgesia, skeletal muscle relaxation, and amnesia on recovery.
|
|
|
Local Anesthesia
|
The production o transient and reversible loss of sensation in a defined area of the body.
|
|
|
Malignant Hyperthermia
|
A rare, but serious, side effect of anesthesia associated with an intracellular calcium and a rapid rise in body temperature.
|
|
|
Migraine Headache
|
A severe throbbing unilateral headache, usually accompanied by nausea, photophobia, phonophobia, and hyperesthesia.
|
|
|
Narcotic Analgesic
|
Pain medication containing an opioid.
|
|
|
Neurotransmitter
|
A chemical substance that is selectively released from a neuron and stimulates or inhibits activity in the neuron's target cell.
|
|
|
Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug
|
A drug such as aspirin or ibuprofen that reduces pain and inflammation.
|
|
|
What is the most common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?
|
Cardiotoxicity
|
|
|
What side effects of some antipsychotic medications causes involntary movements and may be irreversible?
|
Tardive Dyskinesia
|
|
|
Why is clozapine not more commonly used?
|
It can cause a drop in white blood cell count. Counts should be obtained weekly for the duration of therapy. Weekly blood draws decreases patient compliance.
|
|
|
What are benefits of diphenhydramine compared to oxazepam for sleep disorders?
|
Diphenhydramine has little potential for dependence, it is available OTC, and it can be given to children and older adults.Continued dosing of oxazpam can cause physical dependence and stopping the drug abruptly may result in withdrawal side effects.
|
|
|
Which antidepressant works only on dopamine receptors?
|
Bupropion
|
|
|
What are the major effects of long term alcoholism on the body?
|
Vitamin deficiency, fatty liver tissue buildup (cirrhosis), brain damage, and dementia.
|
|
|
MAOIs have many side effects and are not much used in psychotic disorders. What other use do these drugs have?
|
Used in treatment of Parkinson Disease.
|
|
|
Which drugs discussed in this chapter are Schedule II controlled substances?
|
Amobarbital (Amytal) & Secobarbital (Secona)
|
|
|
Which class of medications is considered the safest for insomnia?
|
Antihistamines
|
|
|
With which drug will patients commonly self medicate their anxiety or insomnia?
|
Alcohol
|
|
|
What are the effects of tardive dyskinesia?
|
Involuntary movements of the mouth, lips, and tongue.
|
|
|
Ambien
|
Zolpidem
|
|
|
Ativan
|
Lorazepam
|
|
|
Buspar
|
Bupropion
|
|
|
Celexa
|
Citalopram
|
|
|
Desyrel
|
Trazedone
|
|
|
Effexor
|
Venlafaxine
|
|
|
Lexapro
|
Escitalopram
|
|
|
Lunesta
|
Eszopiclone
|
|
|
Prozac
|
Fluoxetine
|
|
|
Restoril
|
Temazepam
|
|
|
Risperdal
|
Risperdone
|
|
|
Seroquel
|
Olanzprine
|
|
|
Topamax
|
Topiramate
|
|
|
Valium
|
Diazepam
|
|
|
Wellbutrin
|
Buspirone
|
|
|
Xanax
|
Alprazolam
|
|
|
Zyprexa
|
Quetiapine
|
|
|
Anxiety
|
A state of uneasiness characterized by apprehension and worry about possible events.
|
|
|
Bipolar Disorder
|
A condition in which a patient presents with mood swings that alternate between periods of major depression and periods of mild to severe chronic agitation.
|
|
|
Ghost
|
Empty shell of an OROS tablet, excreted in the stool after the drug has dissolved.
|
|
|
Hypnotic
|
A drug that induces sleep.
|
|
|
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOIs)
|
A class of antidepressant drugs, developed earlier than the SSRIs and SNRIs, that also prevent neuron reuptake or norepinephrine and/or serotonin.
|
|
|
Osmotic-Controlled Realease Oral Delvery System (OROS)
|
A drug delivery system that allows the drug to dissolve through pores in the tablet shell; the empty shell, called a ghost, tablet is passed in the stool.
|
|
|
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
|
An antidepressant drug that blocks the reuptake or serotonin with little effect on norepinphrine and fewer side effects than other antidepressant drugs.
|
|
|
Serotonin Syndrome
|
A possibly fatal condition caused by combining antidepressants that increase serotonin levels with other medications that also stimulate serotonin receptors.
|
|
|
Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
|
An antidepressant drug that inhibits the activity of the enzymes that break down catecholamines (such as norepinephrine) and serotonin.
|
|
|
What are the different types of generalized seizures?
|
Tonic-Clonic, Absence, Myoclonic, Atonic
|
|
|
Loss of dopaminergic neurons from which region of the brain leads to Parkinson disease?
|
Substantia Nigra
|
|
|
What is the benefit of levodopa-carbidopa compared to levodopa alone?
|
The addition of carbidopa reduces the amount of levopdopa that is metabolized in the body. More levodopa per dose reaches the brain, allowing for less levodopa needed per dose, and has fewer side effects.
|
|
|
What is the most common reason for drug therapy failure in epilepsy?
|
The most common reason for failure is that inappropriate agent is selected.
|
|
|
What are the first line treatments and route of administration for status epilepticus?
|
Diazepam (Valium) is the drug of choice followed by phenytoin or barbiturates. All are given IV for staticus epilepticus.
|
|
|
What are signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis?
|
Weakness, lacking strength in skeletal muscles, ptosis, diplopia, dysarthria, dysphagia, respiratory dificulty.
|
|
|
Adderall
|
Dextroamphetamine-Amphetamine
|
|
|
Depakene
|
Valporic Acid
|
|
|
Depakote
|
Divalproex
|
|
|
Klonpin
|
Clonazepam
|
|
|
Lamictal
|
Lamotrigine
|
|
|
Neurontin
|
Gabapentin
|
|
|
Strattera
|
Atomoxetine
|
|
|
Adjunct
|
A drug used with another drug.
|
|
|
Alzheimer Disease
|
A degenerative disorder of the brain that leads to progressive dementia and changes in personality and behavior.
|
|
|
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
|
A degenerative disease of the motor nerves; also called Lou Gehrig disease.
|
|
|
Anticonvulsant
|
A drug to control seizures.
|
|
|
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
|
A neurological disorder characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and distractibility.
|
|
|
Area Under The Curve
|
A measure of drug concentration in the blood.
|
|
|
Dysphagia
|
Involuntary contraction or series of contractions of the voluntary muscles.
|
|
|
Isomer
|
One of two or more compounds that contain the same number and type of atoms but have different molecular structures.
|
|
|
On-Off Phenomenon
|
A wide fluctuation between abnormally increased and abnormally diminished motor function, present in many Parkinson patients after about 5 years of levodopa therapy.
|
|
|
Parkinson Disease
|
A neurological disorder characterized by akinesia, resting tremor, and muscle rigidity.
|
|
|
Restless Leg Syndrome
|
An overpowering urge to move the legs, especially at rest.
|
|
|
Seizure
|
Difficulty swallowing
|
|
|
Status Epilepticus
|
A serious disorders involving tonic-clonic convulsions that last at least 30 minutes.
|
|
|
Substance P
|
A potent neurotransmitter mediating sensations of pain, touch, and temperature.
|
|
|
Advair Diskus
|
Fluticasone-Salmeterol
|
|
|
Allegra
|
Fexofenadine
|
|
|
Clarinex
|
Desloratadine
|
|
|
Mucinex
|
Guaifenesin
|
|
|
Mucinex D
|
Guaifenesin Pseudoephedrine
|
|
|
Nasonex
|
Mometasone
|
|
|
Robitussin A-C
|
Guaifenesin-Codeine
|
|
|
Singulair
|
Montelukast
|
|
|
Tussionex
|
Hydrocodone-Chlorpheniramine
|
|
|
Zyrtec
|
Cetirizine
|
|
|
Antihistamines
|
Common term for drugs that block the H1 receptors.
|
|
|
Antitussives
|
Drugs that block or suppress the act of coughing.
|
|
|
Bronchitis
|
A condition in which the inner lining of the bronchial airways becomes inflamed, causing the expiration of air from the lungs to be obstructed.
|
|
|
Corticosteroid
|
A drug that chemically resembles substances produced by the adrenal gland and acts as an inflammatory agent to suppress the immune response by stimulating adenylate cyclase.
|
|
|
Decongestant
|
An agent that causes the mucous membranes to shrink, thereby allowing the sinus cavities to drain.
|
|
|
Expectorant
|
An agent that decreases the thickness and stickiness of mucus, enabling the patient to rid the lungs and airway of mucus when coughing.
|
|
|
Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI)
|
A device that delivers a specific amount of medication (as for asthma) in a fine enough spray to reach the innermost parts of the lungs using a puff of compressed gas.
|
|
|
Mucolytic
|
An agent that destroys or dissolves mucus.
|
|
|
Nebulizer
|
A device used in the administration of inhaled medications, using air flowing past a liquid to create a mist.
|
|
|
Rhinitis Medicamentosa
|
A condition of decreased response that results when nasal decongestants are used over prolonged periods.
|
|
|
Spacer
|
A device used with a metered dose inhaler (MDI) to decrease the amount of spray deposited in the back of the throat and swallowed.
|
|
|
Xanthine Derivative
|
A drug that causes relaxation of the airway smooth muscle, thus causing airway dilation and better air movement.
|
|
|
Asthma
|
A reversible lung disease with intermittent attacks in which inspiration is obstructed; provoked by airborne allergens.
|
|
|
Mrs. Copeland is 28 years old, 168 cm tall, and 170 lbs. Would she qualify for Xenical therapy? Explain.
|
Yes, the patients BMI is 27.5. Xenical patients must have a BMI of least 27.
|
|
|
Which medication can treat both constipation and diarrhea?
|
Psyllium
|
|
|
What is the class prototype for stool softeners?
|
Docusate (Colace)
|
|
|
Which class of antiemetics is used for treatment of emesis in chemotherapy?
|
Serotonin Receptors Antagonists
(Dolasetron (Anzemet) & Kytril (Granisetron). |
|
|
Prilosec
|
Omeprazole
|
|
|
Pepcid
|
Famotidine
|
|
|
Carafate
|
Sucralfate
|
|
|
Tagamet
|
Cimetidine
|
|
|
Antivert
|
Meclizine
|
|
|
Colace
|
Docusate
|
|
|
Reglan
|
Metoclopramide
|
|
|
Actigall
|
Ursodiol
|
|
|
Alinia
|
Nitazoxanide
|
|
|
Enulose
|
Lactulose
|
|
|
Dulcolax
|
Bisacodyl
|
|
|
Antiemetic
|
A drug that inhibits impulses that cause vomiting from going to the stomach.
|
|
|
Body Mass Index (BMI)
|
A guide to use in determining whether to initiate pharmacologic treatment for obesity; calculated by dividing the patient's weight (in kilograms) by the patient's height (in meters) squared (kg/m2).
|
|
|
Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)
|
An area below the floor of the fourth ventricle of the brain that can trigger nausea and vomiting when certain signals are recieved.
|
|
|
Empty Stomach
|
2 Hours before or after eating.
|
|
|
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
|
A GI disease characterized by radiating burning or pain in the chest and an acid taste, caused by backflow of acidic stomach contents across an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter; also referred to as heartburn.
|
|
|
H2 Histamine Receptor Antagonist
|
An agent that blocks acid and pepsin secretion in response to histamine, gastrin, foods distention, caffeine, or cholinergic stimulation; used to treat GERD and H.Pylori.
|
|
|
Hepatitis
|
A disease of the liver that causes inflammation, can be acute or chronic, and has several forms A through G.
|
|
|
IVIG
|
The notation for immune globulin that is given intravenously.
|
