Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
207 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
acetylcholine
|
primary neurotransmitter of the autonomic nervous system; also present at somatic neuromuscular junctions and at sympathetic preganglionic nerves
|
|
|
basal ganglia
|
cluster of neurons in the brain that help regulate the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movement
|
|
|
dopamine
|
chemical precursor in the synthesis of norepinephrine; classified as a catecholamine
|
|
|
extrapyramidal system
|
part of the CNS that controls locomotion, complex muscular movements, and posture
|
|
|
gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
|
neurotransmitter in the CNS
|
|
|
glutamate
|
amino acid that is the most common neurotransmitter in the CNS, found in nearly all regions of the brain
|
|
|
limbic system
|
area in the brain responsible for emotion, learning, memory, motivation, and mood
|
|
|
neuron
|
the primary functional cell in all portions of the nervous system; whose purpose is to communicate messages through conduction of an action potential
|
|
|
norepinephrine (NE)
|
primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system
|
|
|
reticular activating system (RAS)
|
responsible for sleeping and wakefulness and performs an alerting function for the cerebral cortex; includes the reticular formation, hypothalamus, and part of the thalamus
|
|
|
serotonin
|
a natural neurotransmitter that is found in high concentrations in the hypothalamus, limbic system,medulla, and spinal cord
|
|
|
synapses
|
a physical space between two neurons that must be crossed before a message can be transferred from one nerve to another, consisting of a presynaptic nerve, a synaptic cleft, and a postsynaptic nerve
|
|
|
agoraphobia
|
an avoidance of closed places where a panic attack might occur such as airplanes, public meetings, or elevators
|
|
|
amygdala
|
a key part of the limbic system that generates feelings of anxiety and fear and stimulates several regions of the brain that begin the stress response
|
|
|
anxiety
|
state of apprehension and autonomic nervous system activation resulting from exposure to a nonspecific or unknown cause
|
|
|
anxiolytic
|
drugs that relieve anxiety
|
|
|
cataplexy
|
sudden loss of muscle strength manifested as slurred speech, sagging of the jaw, head nodding, or even complete collapse of the body
|
|
|
circadian rhythm
|
cyclic basis by which body temperature, blood pressure, hormone levels, and respiration all fluctuate throughout the 24-hour day
|
|
|
generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
|
difficult-to-control, excessive anxiety that lasts 6 months or more, focuses on a variety of life events, and interferes with normal day-to-day functions
|
|
|
hypnagogic hallucinations
|
vivid, dreamlike sensations, sometimes of a frightening nature, that occur with sleep paralysis
|
|
|
insomnia
|
inability to fall asleep or stay asleep
|
|
|
locus coeruleus
|
within the brainstem, an area in the pons that has been associated with fear responses and panic attacks
|
|
|
narcolepsy
|
sleep disorder that is characterized by severe daytime sleepiness and inability to stay awake
|
|
|
non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
|
phase of sleep during which respirations slow, heart rate and blood pressure decrease, oxygen consumption by muscles decreases, and urine formation decreases
|
|
|
obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
|
recurrent, intrusive thoughts or repetitive behaviors that interfere with normal activities or relationships
|
|
|
panic disorder
|
anxiety disorder characterized by intense feelings of immediate apprehension, fearfulness, terror, or impending doom, accompanied by increased autonomic nervous system activity
|
|
|
phobia
|
fearful feeling attached to situations or objects such as snakes, spiders, crowds, or heights
|
|
|
post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
|
type of anxiety that develops in response to reexperiencing a previous life event that was psychologically traumatic
|
|
|
rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
|
stage of sleep characterized by quick, scanning movements of the eyes
|
|
|
rebound insomnia
|
increased sleeplessness that occurs when longterm antianxiety or hypnotic medication is discontinued
|
|
|
sedative-hypnotic
|
drug with the ability to produce a calming effect at lower doses and to induce sleep at higher doses
|
|
|
situational anxiety
|
anxiety experienced by people faced with a stressful environment
|
|
|
social anxiety disorder
|
unreasonable and persistent fear of crowds or of being ridiculed or embarrassed in public; also called social phobia
|
|
|
antidepressants
|
drugs that alter levels of two important neurotransmitters in the brain, norepinephrine and serotonin, to reduce depression and anxiety
|
|
|
atypical antidepressant
|
diverse class of drugs that act by mechanisms other than those of the SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs
|
|
|
bipolar disorder
|
syndrome characterized by extreme and opposite moods, such as euphoria and depression
|
|
|
depression
|
characterized by a sad or despondent mood that becomes out of proportion to actual life events
|
|
|
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
|
treatment used for serious and lifethreatening mood disorders in patients who are unresponsive to pharmacotherapy
|
|
|
hypomania
|
characterized by the same symptoms as bipolar disorder, but they are less severe and do not cause impaired functioning
|
|
|
major depressive disorder
|
a depressed mood lasting for a minimum of 2 weeks that is present for most of the day, every day, or almost every day
|
|
|
mania
|
condition characterized by an expressive, impulsive, excitable, and overreactive nature
|
|
|
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
|
drug inhibiting monoamine oxidase, an enzyme that terminates the actions of neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, and serotonin
|
|
|
mood disorder
|
change in behavior such as clinical depression, emotional swings, or manic depression
|
|
|
mood stabilizer
|
drug that levels mood that is used to treat bipolar disorder and mania
|
|
|
phototherapy
|
Light therapy used for persons suffering from SAD that consists of artificial lighting approximately 5 to 20 times brighter than normal indoor lighting
|
|
|
postpartum onset depression
|
major depression experienced by new mothers following delivery, which is related to hormonal shifts and situational stresses that occur during that period
|
|
|
seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
|
a type of depression experienced during the dark winter months
|
|
|
serotonin syndrome (SES)
|
set of signs and symptoms associated with overmedication with antidepressants that includes altered mental status, fever, sweating, and lack of muscular coordination
|
|
|
suicide
|
the intentional act of ending one's life
|
|
|
tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)
|
class of drugs used in the pharmacotherapy of depression
|
|
|
tyramine
|
form of the amino acid tyrosine that is found in foods such as cheese, beer, wine, and yeast products
|
|
|
absence seizures
|
seizures with a loss or reduction of normal activity, including staring and transient loss of responsiveness
|
|
|
atonic seizures
|
very short-lasting seizures during which the patient may stumble and fall for no apparent reason
|
|
|
automatisms
|
repetitive arm movements, leg movements, head rolling, chewing, lip-smacking, or swallowing that occur in complex partial seizures
|
|
|
complex partial seizures
|
seizures that originate from a single focus and involve sensory, motor, or autonomic symptoms with some degree of altered or impaired consciousness
|
|
|
convulsions
|
uncontrolled muscle contractions or spasms that occur in the face, torso, arms, or legs
|
|
|
eclampsia
|
pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder
|
|
|
epilepsy
|
disorder of the CNS characterized by seizures with or without convulsions
|
|
|
febrile seizures
|
tonic-clonic motor activity lasting 1 to 2 minutes with rapid return of consciousness that occurs in conjunction with elevated body temperature
|
|
|
generalized seizures
|
seizures that travel throughout the entire brain
|
|
|
infantile spasm
|
also called West syndrome, usually occurs in the first year of life and is characterized by a sudden bending forward, body stiffening, or arching of the torso
|
|
|
Lennox-Gestaut syndrome
|
mixed seizure that has characteristics of tonic-clonic, atonic, and atypical absence seizures
|
|
|
myoclonic seizures
|
seizures characterized by brief, sudden contractions of a group of muscles
|
|
|
partial (focal) seizures
|
seizures that start on one side of the brain and travel a short distance before stopping
|
|
|
postictal state
|
period immediately following the seizure
|
|
|
preeclampsia
|
occurs during pregnancy when blood pressure increases to 140/90 mmHg or higher on two separate occasions, and 300 mg of protein is found in the urine over a 24-hour period
|
|
|
seizure
|
symptom of epilepsy characterized by abnormal neuronal discharges within the brain
|
|
|
simple partial seizures
|
seizures that have an onset that may begin as a small, regional focus, and subsequently progress to a generalized seizure
|
|
|
status epilepticus
|
condition characterized by repeated seizures or one prolonged seizure attack that continues for at least 30 minutes
|
|
|
tonic-clonic seizures
|
seizures characterized by intense jerking motions and loss of consciousness
|
|
|
clonic spasms
|
multiple, rapidly repeated muscular contractions
|
|
|
dystonia
|
severe muscle spasms, particularly of the back, neck, tongue, and face; characterized by abnormal tension starting in one area of the body and progressing to other areas
|
|
|
malignant hyperthermia
|
rare condition that is an adverse effect of some general anesthetics characterized by a sudden onset of tachycardia, ventricular dysrhythmia, and hypotension
|
|
|
muscle spasms
|
involuntary contractions of a muscle or group of muscles, which become tightened, develop a fixed pattern of resistance, and result in a diminished level of functioning
|
|
|
muscle spasticity
|
condition caused by damage to the CNS in which certain muscle groups remain in a continuous state of contraction
|
|
|
tonic spasm
|
single, prolonged muscular contraction
|
|
|
anorexiants
|
drugs used to suppress appetite
|
|
|
attention deficit/ hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
|
disorder typically diagnosed in childhood characterized by hyperactivity as well as attention, organization, and behavior control issues
|
|
|
central nervous system (CNS) stimulants
|
agents that raise the general alertness level of the brain
|
|
|
euphoria
|
an intense sense of happiness and well-being
|
|
|
hyperkinetic disorder (HKD)
|
refers to the diagnosis of ADHD in Canada
|
|
|
sleep attacks
|
sudden bouts of sleep that last 10 to 30 minutes and may occur during the daytime without warning
|
|
|
sleep paralysis
|
the temporary inability to move after waking up from sleep
|
|
|
addiction
|
the continued use of a substance despite its negative health and social consequences
|
|
|
adjuvant analgesics
|
drugs that have indications other than pain but are used to enhance analgesia
|
|
|
analgesics
|
drugs used to reduce or eliminate pain
|
|
|
auras
|
sensory cues such as bright lights, smells, or tastes that precede a migraine
|
|
|
endorphins
|
a group of neurotransmitters that function as endogenous opioids or natural pain modifiers in the central nervous system (CNS)
|
|
|
gate control theory
|
proposes a gating mechanism in the spinal cord that blocks the transmission of pain impulses
|
|
|
kappa receptors
|
is one of two major endorphin receptors in the CNS where opioids act
|
|
|
migraine
|
severe headache preceded by auras and that may include nausea and vomiting
|
|
|
mu receptors
|
type of opioid receptor
|
|
|
narcotic
|
natural or synthetic drug related to morphine; may be used as a broader legal term referring to hallucinogens, CNS stimulants, marijuana, and other illegal drugs
|
|
|
neuropathic pain
|
is caused by injury to nerves rather than stimulation of nerves by injury
|
|
|
nociceptor pain
|
pain produced by injury to body tissue
|
|
|
nociceptors
|
receptors connected with nerves that receive and transmit pain signals to the spinal cord and brain
|
|
|
nonopioid analgesics
|
have a peripheral site of action, no dependence potential, and provide the baseline pharmacotherapy for pain management; include NSAIDs, acetaminophen, and a few centrally acting agents
|
|
|
opiates
|
substance closely related to morphine that are extracted from the poppy plant
|
|
|
opioids
|
substance obtained from the unripe seeds of the poppy plant; natural or synthetic morphinelike substance
|
|
|
opium
|
a milky substance extracted from the unripe seeds of the poppy plant, Papaver somniferum, that contains over 20 different chemicals having pharmacologic activity
|
|
|
tension headache
|
common type of head pain caused by stress and relieved by nonnarcotic analgesics
|
|
|
amide
|
type of chemical linkage found in some local anesthetics involving carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen (-NH-CO-)
|
|
|
balanced anesthesia
|
use of multiple medications to rapidly induce unconsciousness, cause muscle relaxation, and maintain deep anesthesia
|
|
|
dissociative anesthesia,
|
a trance-like feeling of being separated from the environment produced by an anesthetic agent
|
|
|
esters
|
types of chemical linkage found in some local anesthetics involving carbon and oxygen (-CO-O-)
|
|
|
general anesthesia
|
medical procedure that produces unconsciousness and loss of sensation throughout the entire body
|
|
|
local anesthesia
|
loss of sensation to a limited part of the body without loss of consciousness
|
|
|
minimum alveolar concentration
|
describes the potency of inhalation anesthetics
|
|
|
monitored anesthesia care (MAC)
|
use of sedatives, analgesics, and other low-dose drugs that allow patients to remain responsive and breathe without assistance
|
|
|
narcoanalysis
|
a procedure in which the patient is placed in a druginduced hypnotic state but is able to answer questions or explore painful memories
|
|
|
neurolept analgesia
|
type of general anesthesia that combines fentanyl with droperidol to produce a state in which patients are conscious though insensitive to pain and unconnected with surroundings
|
|
|
regional anesthesia
|
similar to local anesthesia except that it encompassesa larger body area, such as an entire limb
|
|
|
surgical anesthesia
|
stage 3 of anesthesia, in which most major surgery occurs
|
|
|
aerosol
|
suspension of minute liquid droplets or fine solid particles in a gas
|
|
|
asthma
|
chronic inflammatory disease of the lungs characterized by airway obstruction
|
|
|
bronchospasm
|
rapid constriction of the airways
|
|
|
chronic bronchitis
|
recurrent disease of the lungs characterized by excess mucus production, inflammation, and coughing
|
|
|
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
|
generic term used to describe several pulmonary conditions characterized by cough, mucus production, and impaired gas exchange
|
|
|
dry powder inhaler (DPI)
|
device used to convert a solid drug to a fine powder for the purpose of inhalation
|
|
|
emphysema
|
terminal lung disease characterized by permanent dilation of the alveoli
|
|
|
leukotrienes
|
chemical mediators of inflammation stored and released by mast cells; effects are similar to those of histamine
|
|
|
metered-dose inhaler (MDI)
|
device used to deliver a precise amount of drug to the respiratory system
|
|
|
methylxanthines
|
chemical class for theophylline and caffeine
|
|
|
mucolytics
|
drugs used to loosen thick mucus
|
|
|
nebulizer
|
device used to convert liquid drugs into a fine mist for the purpose of inhalation; also called small volume nebulizer
|
|
|
perfusion
|
blood flow through a tissue or organ
|
|
|
small volume nebulizer
|
device used to convert liquid drugs into a fine mist for the purpose of inhalation; also called nebulizer
|
|
|
status asthmaticus
|
condition characterized by repeated seizures or one prolonged seizure attack that continues for at least 30 minutes
|
|
|
ventilation
|
process by which air is moved into and out of the lungs
|
|
|
allergen
|
anything that is recognized as foreign by the body's defense system; also called antigen
|
|
|
allergic rhinitis
|
inflammation of the nasal mucosa due to exposure to allergens
|
|
|
antitussives
|
drugs used to suppress cough
|
|
|
expectorants
|
drugs used to increase bronchial secretions
|
|
|
H1 receptors
|
sites located on smooth-muscle cells in the bronchial tree and blood vessels that are stimulated by histamine to produce bronchodilation and vasodilation
|
|
|
mast cell stabilizers
|
drugs that inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells
|
|
|
rebound congestion
|
adverse effect of intranasal decongestants; prolonged use causes hypersecretion of mucus and worsening nasal congestion once the drug effects wear off
|
|
|
acquired resistance
|
when a microbe is no longer affected by a drug following treatment with anti-infectives
|
|
|
aerobic
|
pertaining to an oxygen environment
|
|
|
anaerobic
|
pertaining to an environment without oxygen
|
|
|
anti-infective
|
general term for any medication that is effective against pathogens
|
|
|
antibiotic
|
substance produced by a microorganism that inhibits or kills other microorganisms
|
|
|
bacteriocidal
|
a substance that kills bacteria
|
|
|
bacteriostatic
|
substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria
|
|
|
broad-spectrum antibiotic
|
an anti-infective that is effective against many different gram positive and gram negative organisms
|
|
|
conjugation
|
the direct transfer of small pieces of DNA from one bacterium to another
|
|
|
culture and sensitivity (C&S) testing
|
a laboratory test used to identify bacteria and to determine which antibiotic is most effective
|
|
|
endotoxins
|
harmful nonproteins that are part of the normal cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
|
|
|
exotoxins
|
proteins released by bacteria into surrounding tissues that have the ability to inactivate or kill host cells
|
|
|
gram negative
|
bacteria that do not retain a purple stain because they have an outer envelope
|
|
|
gram positive
|
bacteria that stain purple because they have no outer envelope
|
|
|
host flora
|
normal microorganisms found in or on a client
|
|
|
invasiveness
|
is the ability of a pathogen to grow extremely rapidly and cause direct damage to surrounding tissues by their sheer numbers
|
|
|
microbial antagonism
|
condition of various host flora in competition with each other for physical space and nutrients that helps protect the host from being overrun by pathogenic organisms
|
|
|
mutations
|
permanent, inheritable change in the structure of DNA
|
|
|
narrow-spectrum antibiotic
|
an anti-infective that is effective against only one or a small number of organisms
|
|
|
nosocomial infections
|
infections acquired in a health care setting such as a hospital, physician's office, or nursing home
|
|
|
pathogenicity
|
ability of an organism to cause disease in humans
|
|
|
pathogens
|
organisms that are capable of causing disease
|
|
|
peptidoglycan
|
substance containing sugars bound to peptides which is only found in bacteria
|
|
|
superinfections
|
new infection caused by an organism different from the one causing the initial infection; usually an adverse effect of anti-infective therapy
|
|
|
virulence
|
the severity of disease that a pathogen is able to cause
|
|
|
beta lactamase
|
enzyme present in certain bacteria that is able to inactivate many penicillins and some cephalosporins
|
|
|
beta-lactam ring
|
chemical structure found in most penicillins and some cephalosporins
|
|
|
penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)
|
enzymes used by bacteria to build bacterial cell walls that are targets for penicillins and related antibiotics
|
|
|
penicillinase
|
enzyme present in certain bacteria that is able to inactivate many penicillins and some cephalosporins
|
|
|
cholestatic
|
hepatitis a form of liver damage associated with the macrolide erythromycin estolate
|
|
|
gray baby syndrome
|
serious condition seen most often in premature or newborn infants, that occurs when the baby's liver is unable to metabolize or excrete chloramphenicol
|
|
|
oxazolidinones
|
class of antibiotics that act by binding to a part of the bacterial 50S ribosome
|
|
|
postantibiotic effect
|
antimicrobial activity that continues for a time after discontinuation of a drug
|
|
|
pseudomembranous colitis
|
caused by Clostridium difficile, a rare though potentially severe disorder resulting from therapy with tetracyclines and other classes of antibiotics
|
|
|
streptogramin
|
class of antibiotics that act by binding the 50S bacterial ribosome in a manner similar to that of the macrolides
|
|
|
Svedberg unit
|
a unit of measurement represented by the letter "S" which indicates the size or sedimentation rate of the bacterial 70S ribosome
|
|
|
transcription
|
basic steps in protein synthesis
|
|
|
cyclic lipopeptides
|
new class of antibiotics that act on gram-positive pathogens
|
|
|
DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
|
in bacterial DNA replication, the enzyme that relaxes the supercoil
|
|
|
DNA helicase
|
in bacterial DNA replication, the enzyme that unwinds the two DNA strands after the supercoil is relaxed
|
|
|
DNA polymerase
|
in bacterial DNA replication, the enzyme that adds the precursor bases to replicate the original DNA and form new DNA strands
|
|
|
ketolides
|
class of antibiotics that block bacterial protein synthesis by binding to two different sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit
|
|
|
supercoil
|
the highly twisted arrangement of the helix in bacterial DNA
|
|
|
topoisomerase IV
|
in DNA replication, the enzyme that frees the newly formed interlocked strands, allowing them to migrate into the two daughter cells
|
|
|
bacteriuria
|
uropathogens
|
|
|
crystalluria
|
crystals that form in the urine and potentially obstruct the kidneys or ureters
|
|
|
cystitis
|
bladder infection
|
|
|
folic acid
|
B vitamin that is a coenzyme in protein and nucleic acid metabolism
|
|
|
irritative voiding symptoms
|
syndrome of complaints that accompanies cystitis
|
|
|
para-aminobenzoic acid
|
precursor molecule used by bacteria to make their own folic acid
|
|
|
prostatitis
|
bacterial infection of the prostate gland
|
|
|
pyelonephritis
|
an inflammation of the kidney, pelvis, and other renal cells
|
|
|
urethritis
|
infection of the urethra
|
|
|
uropathogen
|
harmful microorganisms that invade the urinary system
|
|
|
acetylation
|
a general biochemical process that adds a two-carbon chain to a drug molecule, which usually renders the drug less effective
|
|
|
atypical mycobacterial infections (AMI)
|
nontuberculosis opportunistic diseases caused by mycobacteria
|
|
|
directly observed therapy (DOT)
|
requires that a health care provider directly observe the patient swallowing the pills, whether it is in the hospital, office, or home care setting
|
|
|
leprosy
|
a chronic infection caused by Mycobacterium leprae
|
|
|
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
|
infection that usually arises as a secondary infection due to the immunosuppression caused by HIV-AIDS
|
|
|
mycolic acid
|
a complex lipid that covers the cell surfaces of the genus Mycobacterium, which protects them and makes them resistant to many disinfectants
|
|
|
purified protein derivative (PPD)
|
Tuberculin skin test
|
|
|
pyridoxine (vitamin B6 )
|
B complex vitamin supplement that has been shown to prevent peripheral neuropathy in tuberculosis patients
|
|
|
tubercles
|
cavity-like lesions in the lung characteristic of infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
|
|
|
tuberculosis (TB)
|
a highly contagious infection caused by the organism Mycobacterium tuberculosis
|
|
|
azole
|
term for the major class of drugs used to treat mycoses
|
|
|
dermatomycoses
|
fungal infections of the skin and hair
|
|
|
ergosterol
|
lipid substance in fungal cell membranes
|
|
|
fungi
|
kingdom of organisms that includes mushrooms, yeasts, and molds
|
|
|
mycoses
|
diseases caused by fungi
|
|
|
onychomycosis
|
the invasion of the nail plate by a fungus; also called tinea unguium
|
|
|
ß-glucan
|
an essential component that shapes and strengthens the cell walls of fungi
|
