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78 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Failure of the HT to pump sufficient bld to meet the needs of the body?
a. COPD
b. Myocardial Infarction
c. Congestive HT Failure
d. All of the above
c. Congestive HT Failure
What is the Etiology for Congestive HT Failure?
a. Impaired ability of the cardiac muscle to contract
b. Increased workload imposed on the HT
c. Decreased workload imposed on the HT
d. a and c
e. a and b
e. a and b
What is the therapeutic goal for treating Congestive HT Failure?
a. Decrease blood pressure
b. Decrease cardiac output
c. Increase cardiac output
e. increase peripheral artery resistance
c. Increase cardiac output
Which one of the following is not a category of drugs used the treat Congestive HT Failure?
a.Calcium channel blocker
b. ACE Inhibitor/ARB
c. B-Adenergic antagonists
d. Diuretic
e. Direct Vasodilators
f. Aldosterone antagonists
g. Inotropic drugs
a.Calcium channel blocker
The pathophysiology of Congestive HT Failure is the compensatory physiological responses that include increased __________, ________, and ________, while decompensated state is the condition in which adaptive mechanisms fail to maintain cardiac output.
a. Sympathetic activity
b. Fluid retention
c. Myocardial hypertrophy
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
What is the function of ACE inhibitors Enalapril (Vasotec®)?
a. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin II, causing decreased preload and afterload and increased cardiac output
b. Extremely potent competitive antagonists of angiotensin II receptors
a. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin II, causing decreased preload and afterload and increased cardiac output
What is the function of ARBs Losartan (Cozaar®)?
a. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin II, causing decreased preload and afterload and increased cardiac output
b. Extremely potent competitive antagonists of angiotensin II receptors
b. Extremely potent competitive antagonists of angiotensin II receptors
True or False: ACE Inhibitors and ARB are both Renin-angiotensin system inhibitors.
True
What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glyocsides (Digitalis)?
a. Inhibit the calcium-potassium pumps, resulting in increased intracellular sodium concentration, and stronger cardiac muscle concentration
b. Inhibits the sodium-potassium pumps, resulting in increased intracellular Ca concentration, and stronger cardiac muscle concentration
c. Inhibits the sodium-calcium pumps, resulting in increased intracellular potassium concentration, and stronger cardiac muscle concentration
b. Inhibits the sodium-potassium pumps, resulting in increased intracellular Ca concentration, and stronger cardiac muscle concentration
True or False: Examples of Cardiac Glycosides are Digitoxin (Digitaline®) and Digoxin (Lanoxin®).
True
What is abnormalities in impulse formation and conduction in the myocardium, which may occur in the atria, AV node, or ventricles?
a. Cardiac output
b. Arrhythmias
c. HT Murmurs
b. Arrhythmias
What are the etiologies of Arrhythmias?
a. Abberations in impulse generation (abnormal automaticity)
b. Defects in impulse conduction (reentry)
c. Defects in impulse deduction (reentry)
d. a and b
e. a and c
d. a and b
True or false abnormal automaticity is the most common cause of Arrhythmias?
False: Reentry (Defects in impulse conduction)
Chest pain caused by coronary blood flow that is insufficient to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium is:
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Congestive HT Failure
c. Angina pectoris
c. Angina pectoris
What is the most common Type of Angina?
a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Prinzmetal or Variant
a. Stable
What Type of Angina has burning, heavy, or squeezing feeling in the chest, caused by reduction of coronary perfusion due to atherosclerosis, and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin?
a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Prinzmetal or Variant
a. Stable
What type of Angina occurs with progressively increasing frequency and precipitated with progressively less effort, often unrelated to exercise or could happen at rest, and not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin?
a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Prinzmetal or Variantype of Angina has
b. Unstable
What type of Angina has uncommon pattern of episodic angina that occurs at rest and is due to coronary artery spasm, attacks are unrelated to physical activity, heart rate, or blood pressure, and generally respond promptly to nitroglycerin and calcium channel blockers?
a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Prinzmetal or Variant
c. Prinzmetal or Variant
Patients who have Angina, with Recent MI are commonly treated with what drugs?
a. Nitrates and B-Blockers
b. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
c. Nitrates and Ca Channel Blockers
a. Nitrates and B-Blockers
Patients who have Angina, with COPD/Asthma,Chronic Renal Disease, and Diabetes Mellitus are commonly treated with what drugs?
a. Nitrates and B-Blockers
b. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
c. Nitrates and Ca Channel Blockers
c. Nitrates and Ca Channel Blockers
Patients who have Angina, with Hypertension are commonly treated with what drugs?
a. Nitrates and B-Blockers
b. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
c. Nitrates and Ca Channel Blockers
b. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
Match the following stages of Hypertension:
1. Normal bld pressure
2. Prehypertension
3. Stage 1
4. Stage 2

a: greater than 160/100 mmHg
b. 140-159/90-99 mmHg
c. less than 120/80 mmHg
d. 120-139/80-89 mmHg
1. c, 2. d, 3. b, 4. a
True of False: More than 90% of essential hypertension are idiopathic (unknown cause).
True
What are the two major control mechanisms in the regulation of blood pressure (more than one answer)?
a. Autonomic Nervous System
b. Rennin-angiotensin-aldostreone systems
c. Parasympathetic Nervous System
d. Sympathetic Nervous System
all of the above: Parasympathetic and Sympathetic Nervous System are branches of the Autonomic Nervous System
What are the first line of drug therapy drugs used to treat hypertension? (more than one answer)
a. ACE Inhibitors
b. B-blockers
c. Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics
e. α-Blockers
f. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs
g. Vasodilators
b. B-blockers and d. Diuretics
What Hypertension drugs are used when the first line agents are contraindicated or ineffective (more than one answer)?
a. ACE Inhibitors
b. B-blockers
c. Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics
e. α-Blockers
f. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs
g. Vasodilators
a. ACE Inhibitors and c. Ca Channel Blockers
If a hypertension patient does not respond to the first and second line of drug therapy. What drugs are used (more than one answer)?
a. ACE Inhibitors
b. B-blockers
c. Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics
e. α-Blockers
f. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs
g. Vasodilators
e. α-Blockers
f. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs
g. Vasodilators
Match the following Classification Antiarrhythmic Drugs and their mechanisms of actions:
a. I A
b. I B
c. I C
d. II
e. III
f. IV

1. B-Adrenoreceptor
2. Ca Channel Blockers
3. K Channel Blockers
4. Na Channel Blockers
a, b, and c: 4: Na Channel Blockers
d. 1. B-Adrenoreceptor
e. 3. K Channel Blockers
f. 2. Ca Channel Blockers
What drug used to treat Hypertension is used to reduces bld volume and decreased cardiac output?
a. B-Blockers, Propranolol (Inderal®)
b. Diuretics, Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®) and Furosemide (Lasix®)
c. α-Blockers, Prazosin (Minipress®) and Terazosin (Hytrin®)
d. ACE Inhibitors, Captopril (Capoten®), Enalapril (Vasotec®), Lisinopril (Zestril®)
b. Diuretics, Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®) and Furosemide (Lasix®)
What drug used to treat Hypertension reduces bld pressure to decrease cardiac output?
a. B-Blockers, Propranolol (Inderal®)
b. Diuretics, Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®) and Furosemide (Lasix®)
c. α-Blockers, Prazosin (Minipress®) and Terazosin (Hytrin®)
d. ACE Inhibitors, Captopril (Capoten®), Enalapril (Vasotec®), Lisinopril (Zestril®)
a. B-Blockers, Propranolol (Inderal®)
What drug used to treat Hypertension lowers bld pressure by reducing peripheral resistance without reflexly increasing cardiac output, rate, and contractility?
a. B-Blockers, Propranolol (Inderal®)
b. Diuretics, Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®) and Furosemide (Lasix®)
c. α-Blockers, Prazosin (Minipress®) and Terazosin (Hytrin®)
d. ACE Inhibitors, Captopril (Capoten®), Enalapril (Vasotec®), Lisinopril (Zestril®)
d. ACE Inhibitors, Captopril (Capoten®), Enalapril (Vasotec®), Lisinopril (Zestril®)
What drug used to treat Hypertension produce a competive block of α1 adrenergic receptors, decreasing peripheral vascular resistance and lowering bld pressure?
a. B-Blockers, Propranolol (Inderal®)
b. Diuretics, Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®) and Furosemide (Lasix®)
c. α-Blockers, Prazosin (Minipress®) and Terazosin (Hytrin®)
d. ACE Inhibitors, Captopril (Capoten®), Enalapril (Vasotec®), Lisinopril (Zestril®)
c. α-Blockers, Prazosin (Minipress®) and Terazosin (Hytrin®)
What drug used to treat Hypertension which are α2 adrenergic agonists that diminish adrenergic outflow from CNS, leading to reduced total peripheral resistance and decreased bld pressure?
a. Ca Channel Blocker, Verapamil (Calan®), Diltiazem (Cardizem®)
b. Angiotensin II Antagonists, Losartan (Cozaar®), Valsartan (Diovan®), Olmesartan (Benicar)
c. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, Clonidine (Catapres®) and α-methyldopa (Aldomet)
d. Vasodilators, Hydralazine (Apresoline®) and minoxidil (Rogaine®)
e. Drugs used in Hypertensive Emergency, Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride®) and Labetalol (Normodyne®)
c. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, Clonidine (Catapres®) and α-methyldopa (Aldomet)
What drug used to treat Hypertension by using highly selective angiotensin II receptor blcokers, whose pharmaclogic effects are similar to ACE inhibitors?
a. Ca Channel Blocker, Verapamil (Calan®), Diltiazem (Cardizem®), Nifedipine (Adalat® or Procardia®), Amlodipine (Norvasc®), Nicardipine (Cardene®)
b. Angiotensin II Antagonists, Losartan (Cozaar®), Valsartan (Diovan®), Olmesartan (Benicar)
c. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, Clonidine (Catapres®) and α-methyldopa (Aldomet)
d. Vasodilators, Hydralazine (Apresoline®) and minoxidil (Rogaine®)
e. Drugs used in Hypertensive Emergency, Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride®) and Labetalol (Normodyne®)
b. Angiotensin II Antagonists, Losartan (Cozaar®), Valsartan (Diovan®), Olmesartan (Benicar)
What drug used to treat Hypertension that has significant effects on both cardiac and vascular smooth muscle cells and has much greater affinity for vascular Ca channel than for cardiac Ca channel?
a. Ca Channel Blocker, Verapamil (Calan®), Diltiazem (Cardizem®), Nifedipine (Adalat® or Procardia®), Amlodipine (Norvasc®), Nicardipine (Cardene®)
b. Angiotensin II Antagonists, Losartan (Cozaar®), Valsartan (Diovan®), Olmesartan (Benicar)
c. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, Clonidine (Catapres®) and α-methyldopa (Aldomet)
d. Vasodilators, Hydralazine (Apresoline®) and minoxidil (Rogaine®)
e. Drugs used in Hypertensive Emergency, Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride®) and Labetalol (Normodyne®)
a. Ca Channel Blocker, Verapamil (Calan®), Diltiazem (Cardizem®), Nifedipine (Adalat® or Procardia®), Amlodipine (Norvasc®), Nicardipine (Cardene®)
What drug used to treat Hypertension administered intravenously (poisonous if taken orally) and causes prompt vasodilation with reflex tachycardia and is both α/B blocker an is given as an intravenous bolus or infusion w/o side effect of reflex tachycardia?
a. Ca Channel Blocker, Verapamil (Calan®), Diltiazem (Cardizem®), Nifedipine (Adalat® or Procardia®), Amlodipine (Norvasc®), Nicardipine (Cardene®)
b. Angiotensin II Antagonists, Losartan (Cozaar®), Valsartan (Diovan®), Olmesartan (Benicar)
c. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, Clonidine (Catapres®) and α-methyldopa (Aldomet)
d. Vasodilators, Hydralazine (Apresoline®) and minoxidil (Rogaine®)
e. Drugs used in Hypertensive Emergency, Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride®) and Labetalol (Normodyne®)
e. Drugs used in Hypertensive Emergency, Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride®) and Labetalol (Normodyne®)
What drug used to treat Hypertension which act by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, but also reflexly stimulating the HT, thus resulting in competing symptoms of increased myocardial contractility, HT rate, and oxygen consumption?
a. Ca Channel Blocker, Verapamil (Calan®), Diltiazem (Cardizem®), Nifedipine (Adalat® or Procardia®), Amlodipine (Norvasc®), Nicardipine (Cardene®)
b. Angiotensin II Antagonists, Losartan (Cozaar®), Valsartan (Diovan®), Olmesartan (Benicar)
c. Centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, Clonidine (Catapres®) and α-methyldopa (Aldomet)
d. Vasodilators, Hydralazine (Apresoline®) and minoxidil (Rogaine®)
e. Drugs used in Hypertensive Emergency, Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride®) and Labetalol (Normodyne®)
d. Vasodilators, Hydralazine (Apresoline®) and minoxidil (Rogaine®)
A hypertension patient with concomitant Angina Pectoris uses what drugs?
a. Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
b. B-Blockers and ACE Inhibitors
c. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics, B-Blockers, ACE Inhibitors
e. ACE Inhibitors or ARB
c. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
A hypertension patient with concomitant Diabetes uses what drugs?
a. Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
b. B-Blockers and ACE Inhibitors
c. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics, B-Blockers, ACE Inhibitors
e. ACE Inhibitors or ARB
a. Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
A hypertension patient with concomitant Congestive HT Failure uses what drugs?
a. Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
b. B-Blockers and ACE Inhibitors
c. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics, B-Blockers, ACE Inhibitors or ARBs
e. ACE Inhibitors or ARB
d. Diuretics, B-Blockers, ACE Inhibitors or ARBs
A hypertension patient with concomitant Previous MI uses what drugs?
a. Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
b. B-Blockers and ACE Inhibitors
c. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics, B-Blockers, ACE Inhibitors
e. ACE Inhibitors or ARB
b. B-Blockers and ACE Inhibitors
A hypertension patient with concomitant Recurrent Stroke and Chronic Renal Disease uses what drugs?
a. Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
b. B-Blockers and ACE Inhibitors
c. B-Blockers and Ca Channel Blockers
d. Diuretics, B-Blockers, ACE Inhibitors
e. ACE Inhibitors or ARB
e. ACE Inhibitors or ARB
What are examples of platelet inhibitors Aspirin?
a. Plavix®
b. Ecotrin ® and Aspergum®
c. Persantine®)
b. Ecotrin ® and Aspergum®
What are examples of platelet inhibitors Clopidogrel?
a. Plavix®
b. Ecotrin ® and Aspergum®
c. Persantine®
a. Plavix®
What are examples of platelet inhibitors Dipyridamole?
a. Plavix®
b. Ecotrin ® and Aspergum®
c. Persantine®
c. Persantine®
What is example of Anticoagulants Heparin?
a. Coumadin (Vit. K antagonists): Oral anticoagulant that acts by antagonizing the cofactor function of Vit. K
b. Thrombin Inhibitors: injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrobin II
b. Thrombin Inhibitors: injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrobin II
What is example of Anticoagulants Warfarin?
a. Coumadin (Vit. K antagonists): Oral anticoagulant that acts by antagonizing the cofactor function of Vit. K
b. Thrombin Inhibitors: injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrobin II
a. Coumadin (Vit. K antagonists): Oral anticoagulant that acts by antagonizing the cofactor function of Vit. K
Which one of the following is an example of Thrombolytic agents tPA which activate the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin that hydrolyzes fibrin and thus dissolves clots?
a. Anistreplase (Eminase®)
b. Streptokinase (Streptase®)
c. Urokinase (Abbokinase®)
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which one of the following is not a category of antihyperlipdemic drugs?
a. HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
b. ACE Inhibitors or ARBs
c. Niacin
d. Fibrates
e. Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors,
f. Bile Acid Binding
b. ACE Inhibitors or ARBs
Match the following with antihyperlipidemis drugs that have the strongest effect on LDL, HDL, and TG?
1. HMG-CoA Reducatase Inhibitors
2. Niacin
3. Fibrates

a. TG
b. LDL
c. HDL
1. b, 2. c, 3. a
True or False: Furosemide (Lasix®) and Spironolacton (Aldactone ®) are diuretics drugs that retain Ca and K in the body.
True: Furosemide (Lasix®) (because retain CA++) and Spironolacton (Aldactone ®) (Retains K++)
What is the acting site for Thiazide Diuretics: Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®)?
a. Proximal convoluted tubules
b. Distal convoluted tubules
c. Loop of Henle
b. Distal convoluted tubules
What is the acting site for Furosemide (Lasix®)?
a. Proximal convoluted tubules
b. Distal convoluted tubules
c. Loop of Henle
c. Loop of Henle
True or False: Thiazide Diuretics: Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril®) inhibits reabsorption of Na and Cl ions is the convoluted tubule. Most commonly used of all Diuretics.
True
A synthetic analog of gonadotropin releasing hormone, and is effective in suppressing production of gonadal hormones through down-regulation mechanism, so it’s effective in treating prostate & breast cancers, endometriosis, and precocious puberty. It is also used to control ovarian stimulation in IVF.
a. Leuprolide
b. Gonadotropins (hMG and hCG)
c. Bromocriptine
d. Oxytocin
e. Vasopressin
a. Leuprolide
Human menopausal gonadotropin is partially broken down into FSH and LH, and is obtained from the urine of menopausal women. Human chorionic gonadotropin is a placental hormone excreted in the urine of pregnant women and is an LH agonist. Both hormones are injected into muscle, and are used in treatment of infertility of men & women.
a. Leuprolide
b. Gonadotropins (hMG and hCG)
c. Bromocriptine
d. Oxytocin
e. Vasopressin
b. Gonadotropins (hMG and hCG)
A dopamine agonist, and is used to treat galactorrhea and hypogonadism.
a. Leuprolide
b. Gonadotropins (hMG and hCG)
c. Bromocriptine
d. Oxytocin
e. Vasopressin
c. Bromocriptine
This drug is used only in obstetrics, to stimulate uterine contraction to induce or reinforce labor, or to promote breast milk ejection. It’s contraindicated in in abnormal fetal presentation, fetal distress, and premature births.
a. Leuprolide
b. Gonadotropins (hMG and hCG)
c. Bromocriptine
d. Oxytocin
e. Vasopressin
d. Oxytocin
has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects. Its major use is to treat diabetes insipidus. It also can control bleeding from esophageal varices or colonic diverticula.
a. Leuprolide
b. Gonadotropins (hMG and hCG)
c. Bromocriptine
d. Oxytocin
e. Vasopressin
e. Vasopressin
What is the drug of choice to treated hypothyroidism?
a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
c. Methimazole (Tapazole)
d. all of the above
b. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
Which one of the following is not a treatment for Hyperthyroidism?
a. Removal of part or all of the thyroid
b. Inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis
c. Block the release of iodide
d. B-Blockers
e. ACE Inhibitors
e. ACE Inhibitors
What is the most serious and common adverse reaction to an overdose of insulin?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Cells become insulin resistance
d. Cells become glucagon resistance
a. Hypoglycemia
Match the following Oral hypoglycemic agents?
1. Insulin secretagogues (Sulfonylureas)
2. Meglitinide analogs
3. Insulin sensitizers (Biguanides)

a. close K+ channels & open Ca++ channels in B cells to stimulate insulin secretion
b. stimulate insulin release from B cells of the pancreas, reduce blood glucose levels, and increase binding of insulin to target tissues & receptors
c. act by increasing glucose uptake & utilization by target tissues,
decreasing insulin resistance. Thiazolidinediones or glitazones- Increase insulin sensitivity in adipose tissue, liver, and skeletal muscle.
1. b. stimulate insulin release from B cells of the pancreas, reduce blood glucose levels, and increase binding of insulin to target tissues & receptors
2. a. close K+ channels & open Ca++ channels in B cells to stimulate insulin secretion
3. c. act by increasing glucose uptake & utilization by target tissues,
decreasing insulin resistance. Thiazolidinediones or glitazones- Increase insulin sensitivity in adipose tissue, liver, and skeletal muscle.
What is the mode of action of Metformin (Glucophage)?
a. acts by increasing glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance
b. acts by decreasing insulins absorption, thus increasing glucose in the blood
a. acts by increasing glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance
True or False: Estrogen and Progesterone are mostly common used for contraception?
True
Which one of the following is not an adverse side effect of oral hyperglycemia drugs?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Weight loss
c. Weight gain
d. GI disturbances
e. Hepatotoxicity
b. Weight loss
Clompihene ( Clomid ®) and tamoxifen ( Nolvadex ®) are both Antiestrogen drugs, which one of the following increases the secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins, leading to a stimulation of ovulation?
a. Clompihene ( Clomid ®)
b. Tamoxifen ( Nolvadex ®)
a. Clompihene ( Clomid ®)
Clompihene ( Clomid ®) and tamoxifen ( Nolvadex ®) are both Antiestrogen drugs, which one of the following is currently used in palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women?
a. Clompihene ( Clomid ®)
b. Tamoxifen ( Nolvadex ®)
b. Tamoxifen ( Nolvadex ®)
What is the most common type of OPCs, contain both estrogen and progestin, the former suppresses ovulation and the latter prevents implantation in the endometrium and makes the cervical mucus impenetrable to sperm, then for 21 days followed by a 7 day withdrawal period to induce to menses?
a. Combination pills
b. Progestin pills
c. Progestin implants
d. Postcoital contraception
a. Combination pills
This pill contains a progestin only, usually norethindrone or norgestrel (called “mini pill”), less effective than combination pills, but more frequently irregular menstrual cycles than combination pills?
a. Combination pills
b. Progestin pills
c. Progestin implants
d. Postcoital contraception
b. Progestin pills
Subdermal capsules containing levonorgestrel (Norplant ®) offer contraceptive protection for app. 5 years, main side effects are irregular menstrual bleeding and headaches?
a. Combination pills
b. Progestin pills
c. Progestin implants
d. Postcoital contraception
c. Progestin implants
A high dose estrogen (the ‘morning-after” pill), for ex., ethinyl estradiol or diethylstilbestrol (DES, Stilphostrol ®), which isadministered within 72 hours of coitus and continued twice daily for 5 days, alternatively, two dose of ethinyl estradiol plus norgestrel are given within 72 hours of coitus, followed by another two doses 12 hours later or a single dose of mifepristone (Mifeprex ® or RU 486) has also been used?
a. Combination pills
b. Progestin pills
c. Progestin implants
d. Postcoital contraception
d. Postcoital contraception
What is the clinical indication of Danazol (Danocine)?
a. a progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
b. a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
c. the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
d. a competitive inhibitors of androgens, and inhibit the action of androgens at the tarrget cell, the former is used treatment of the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair lossprostatic carcinoma in males
b. a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
What are the clincal indications of antiandrogens Flutamide (Eulexin)?
a. a progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
b. a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
c. the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
d. a competitive inhibitors of androgens, and inhibit the action of androgens at the tarrget cell, the former is used treatment of the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss prostatic carcinoma in males
d. a competitive inhibitors of androgens, and inhibit the action of androgens at the tarrget cell, the former is used treatment of the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss prostatic carcinoma in males
What are the clincal indications of antiandrogens Finasterids: (Proscar ®) ?
a. a progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
b. a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
c. the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
d. a competitive inhibitors of androgens, and inhibit the action of androgens at the tarrget cell, the former is used treatment of the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair lossprostatic carcinoma in males
c. the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
What are the actions of Mifepristone (Mifeprex ® or RU 486)?
a. a progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
b. a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
c. the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
d. a competitive inhibitors of androgens, and inhibit the action of androgens at the tarrget cell, the former is used treatment of the steroid-like drug that inhibits 5-α-redyctase, resulting in decrease in the formation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) from testosterone, and is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair lossprostatic carcinoma in males
a. a progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
Which one of the following is not a long term adverse effects of Cortisteroid therapy?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Increase risk of infection
c. Increased appetite
d. Hypertension
e. Edema
f. Peptic ulcers
g. Euphoria and phychosis
h. Spasms
h. Spasms
True of False: Adrenal Corticosteroids are primary for adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease) and secondary (anterior pituitary) or tertiary (hypothalamus) adrenocortical insufficiency?
True