Pharmacology Review Cards - Comp

Front 1

What is the mechanism of action of Isoniazid (INH, a structural congener of pyridoxine) used in the treatment of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Back 1

a. Inhibition of enzymes required for the synthesis of mycolic acids and mycobacterial cell walls.

Front 2

Patients taking which of the following antimycobacterial drugs might be advised to test their vision by reading the small print in the newspaper from time to time?

Back 2

d. Ethambutol

Front 3

Which of the following drugs remains the most active drug against M. leprae? The mechanism of action of this drug involves the inhibition of folic acid synthesis.

Back 3

a. Dapsone

Front 4

Which is the antifungal agent that interacts with ergosterol in fungal cell membranes to form artificial pores?

Back 4

b. Amphotericin B

Front 5

Which is the antifungal agent (active against dermatophytes) that inhibits mitosis by disrupting spindle formation (microtubule function)

Back 5

a. Griseofulvin

Front 6

Which is the drug that terminates DNA synthesis in viruses by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase (RNA directed DNA polymerase)?

Back 6

b. Lamivudine

Front 7

Which is the antiviral drug that inhibits neuraminidase that is essential for vial replication? This drug administered via oral inhalation is approved for uncomplicated influenza infection?

Back 7

a. Zanamivir

Front 8

Which is the drug that inhibits HIV-1 aspartate protease, an enzyme that cleaves viral precursor proteins that are critical to the production of mature infections virions?

Back 8

c. Indinavir

Front 9

Comsumption of ethanol along with which of the following drugs can cause nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, flushing and headache in some patients (sisulfram-like reactions)?

Back 9

d. Flagyl

Front 10

A human monoclonal antibody that prevents respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection.

Back 10

a. Palivizumab

Front 11

A monobactam active against gram negative organisms

Back 11

c. Aztreonam

Front 12

Which of the following agents is used in acute gonorrheal infections as an alternative for patients who are allergic to Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)?

Back 12

e. Spectinomycin

Front 13

Which of the following agents is an appropriate choice to treat vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium?

Back 13

c. Quinupristin-Dalfopristin

Front 14

Which of the following drugs, used in the treatment of chloroquine resistant P. falciparum infections may cause overdose abortions?

Back 14

a. Quinine sulfate

Front 15

Which of the following drugs is a broad-spectrum cephalosporin commonly used in the treatment of gonorrhea?

Back 15

d. Ceftriaxone

Front 16

What is the primary mechanism underlying the resistance of organisms to tetracyclines?

Back 16

c. Increased activity of the efflux mechanisms for active extrusion of the drug

Front 17

Which of the following agents that inhibits replication of influenza A is know for its CNS dopaminergic responses (treats Parkinsonism)?

Back 17

e. Amantadine

Front 18

Drugs that can dilate bronchi during an acute asthmatic attack can include all of the following except:

Back 18

c. Nedocromil

Front 19

The responsiveness of bronchial smooth muscle to beta agonists such as Ventolin can be restored by the administration of which following corticosteroids?

Back 19

b. Triamcinolone

Front 20

Which of the following is an anticholinergic bronchodilating agent that may not cause muscle tremors?

Back 20

c. Ipratropium

Front 21

Choose the prophylactic agent that appears to stabilize mast cells by inhibiting mast cells degranulation and histamine release:

Back 21

a. Cromolyn sodium

Front 22

Which of the following histamine receptor antagonists do not enter the central nervous system readily?

Back 22

c. Fexofenadine

Front 23

Which of the following H1 antihistamine has the least sedative effect or somnolence?

Back 23

b. Loratadine

Front 24

Which of the following is a nasal spray that treats allergic rhinitis by the combined mechanisms of H1 receptor antagoniam as well as by inhibiting mast cell histamine release?

Back 24

b. Azelastine

Front 25

Oral administration of which of the following agents is not recommended with antacids due to its action on calcium and other cations?

Back 25

b. Tetracyclines

Front 26

Which is the drug that interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase enzyme in bacteria? This DNA gyrase inhibitor blocks the relaxation of supercoiled DNA in bacteria and is bactericidal in action.

Back 26

a. Ciprofloxacin

Front 27

Which is the anti-herpetic drug that is a phosphate analogue?

Back 27

e. Foscarnet

Front 28

Ototoxicity is the major complication of which of the following classes of antibiotic drugs?

Back 28

a. Aminoglycoside

Front 29

Which of the following drugs is most effective orally for the treatment of UTI due to E. cole and pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram-negative rods)?

Back 29

c. Ciprofloxacin

Front 30

Which is the drug used in the treatment of plague and tularemia? When administered with other agents in TB, this drug delays the emergence of resistant mycobacterium?

Back 30

d. Streptomycin

Front 31

Which is the primary reason for the use of drug combinations in the treatment of TB?

Back 31

d. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance

Front 32

A non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Back 32

E. Delavirdine

Front 33

A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Back 33

A. Zalcitabine

Front 34

An Echinocandin that is active against Aspergillus

Back 34

B. Anidulafungin

Front 35

A streptogramin active against Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci?

Back 35

D. Quinupristin-Dalfopristin

Front 36

What is the mechanism of action of the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), ibuprofen?

Back 36

b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme

Front 37

Which of the following may be analgesic and/or antipyretic but not an anti-inflammatory agent?

Back 37

a. Acetaminophen

Front 38

Upon observation by a toxicologist, which of the following best describes a property or manifestation of opiod overdose?

Back 38

d. Miosis (papillary contriction)

Front 39

Which of the following statements is NOT accurate about benzodiazepines?

Back 39

e. Benzodiazepines may produce general anesthesia

Front 40

Which of the following is a short-acting barbiturate hypnotic with rapid onset of action?

Back 40

c. Thiopental

Front 41

Which of the following is an anticonvulsant agent (a sodium channel blocker) used in partial simple and complex seizures especially initial therapy?

Back 41

a. Carbamazepine

Front 42

Which of the following is a vasodilator used in the management of hypertension with Lupus-like symptoms as an adverse effect?

Back 42

a. Hydralazine

Front 43

Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker useful in treating in hypertension?

Back 43

a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)

Front 44

Which is the drug used sublingually for angina with very rapid onset and brief effect?

Back 44

d. Nitroglycerin pA54

Front 45

Matching:
an antiepileptic drug that is also used in the management of ventricular arrhythmias?

Back 45

c. Phenytoin

Front 46

Matching:
Used in the management of bed-wetting in young children

Back 46

b. Imipramine

Front 47

Matching:
A benzodiazepine used in seizures associated with alcoholism

Back 47

a. Clonazepam

Front 48

Matching:
A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant also used in treating bulimia nervosa

Back 48

d. Fluoxetine

Front 49

Matching:
A monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO) used in atypical depression

Back 49

e. Phenelzine

Front 50

Which of the following statements about antidepressant agents is INACCURATE?

Back 50

c. Lithium is the least toxic of all antidepressive agents

Front 51

All of the following are H2-receptor blocking drugs EXCEPT:

Back 51

d. Loratadine

Front 52

Which one of the following statements on drugs used in GI disorders is FALSE?

Back 52

b. Eradication of H. pylori with a single antimicrobial agent such as amoxicillin is recommended in early stages of infection

Front 53

Which of the following statements on H2-histamine receptor blockers is not stated correctly?

Back 53

e. H2 receptor blockers are not useful in treating nocturnal acid secretions p. B20

Front 54

Which of the following drugs would you recommend for non-infectious traveler’s diarrhea?

Back 54

b. Diphenoxylate

Front 55

Which of the following is a glucocorticoid used in chemotherapy induced vomiting?

Back 55

a. Dexamethasone

Front 56

Which of the following is a drug that irreversibly inhibits the proton pump, H+/K+ ATPase in gastric parietal cells?

Back 56

d. Omeprazole

Front 57

Which of the following drugs is not recommended (used) today in the therapy of _____ peptic ulcer caused by gram negative H. pylori?

Back 57

a. Penicillin G

Front 58

Which of the following is a piperidine derivative, with powerful antidiarrheal actions (available as OTC) but does not penetrate the CNS?

Back 58

a. Loperamide

Front 59

Which of the following (on anti-nausea and entiemetic agents) is NOT correctly matched?

Back 59

b. Prochlorperazine – Dopamine D2 agonistic effects at Chemoreceptor trigger zone

Front 60

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

Back 60

b. Metoclopramide (Reglan) causes persistent hiccups

Front 61

Which of the following is a lubricating agent that treats constipation?

Back 61

c. Mineral oil

Front 62

Which of the following is a bulk forming agent that treats constipation?

Back 62

a. Psyllium

Front 63

What is the mechanism of action of Sucralfate?

Back 63

a. Binds to injured tissue and protects by coating

Front 64

Matching:
An endogenous opioid peptide

Back 64

b. Beta-endorphin

Front 65

Matching:
An opiod agonist analgesic with high efficacy

Back 65

E. Acetaminophen

Front 66

Matching:
An opiod antitussive (anti-cough)

Back 66

C. Dexatromethorphan

Front 67

Matching:
An opiod antagonist

Back 67

D. Naloxone

Front 68

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Back 68

c. Protamine is added to insulin to make a less soluble complex decrease the rate of absorption of insulin

Front 69

Matching:
A meglitinide that causes release of insulin by binding to potassium channels

Back 69

B. Repaglinide

Front 70

Matching:
Reduces insulin resistance by binding to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR-gamma)

Back 70

A. Rosiglitazone

Front 71

Matching:
A biguanide that decreases hepatic glucose output increases glucose utilization

Back 71

C. Metformin

Front 72

Matching:
An alpha glucosidase enzyme inhibitor

Back 72

D. Acarbose

Front 73

Which of the following is the most accurate statement?

Back 73

b. Phenobarbital induces respiratory depression and alcohol may enhance this effect even leading to death b80

Front 74

Which of the following is a vasodilator used in the management of hypertension with Lupus-like symptoms as an adverse effect?

Back 74

a. Hydralazine pA97

Front 75

Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker useful in treating in hypertension?

Back 75

a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)

Front 76

Which is the drug used sublingually for angina with very rapid onset and brief effect?

Back 76

d. Nitroglycerin

Front 77

This drug is mainly used in hypertensive emergencies

Back 77

B. Nitroprusside

Front 78

The adverse effects of this drug are dry cough and fetal malformations?

Back 78

C. Captopril

Front 79

This is a calcium channel blocker that could be used in angina pectoris?

Back 79

D. Amiodipine

Front 80

This drug is known as a renin inhibitor?

Back 80

E. Aliskiren

Front 81

Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with nitroglycerin?

Back 81

b. Throbbing headache

Front 82

Which of the following is a recognized toxicity of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

Back 82

c. Tissue injury and myalgia

Front 83

Lupus-like syndrome can be an adverse effect of which of the following anti-arrhythmic agents?

Back 83

a. Procainamide

Front 84

Which of the following statements about drugs that regulate hemostasis is NOT ACCURATE?

Back 84

c. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme

Front 85

Which of the following drugs used in hypertension does not oppose the vasoconstrictive effects mediated by antiotensin?

Back 85

c. Atenolol

Front 86

Which of the following is a ____ potassium sparing diuretic that works on collecting tubule ____ membrane in direct ____ of ____ receptors?

Back 86

a. Spironolactone

Front 87

Which of the following is not an action or effect of of organic nitrates used in the management of angina?

Back 87

C. Pentaerythritol (Peritrate) (Okay, the other answers are Nitrates ____ so pick the one that doesn't start with Nitrates)

Front 88

Which of the following drugs is correctly paired with its _____ mechanism of action?

Back 88

Amiodarone , Class 3 arrhythmic action, dose-related adverse effects

Front 89

WOT arrhythmic agents
maybe: Which of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs is used in the treatment of Malaria or overdose abortion?

Back 89

Quinidine (Quinidex, Cardioquin) Quinidine causes overdose abortion; it's a class IA drug for arrythmias. The question was probably, "Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of arrythmias can cause overdose abortion?" Quinine, it's steroisomer, is used to treat malaria.

Front 90

Which of the following agents is believed to be _____ in the management of _____?

Back 90

Adenosine? Well, Adenosine is used to manage reentrant paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias(PSVT). Adenosine stimulates adenosine-sensitive potassium channels - the resulting outflow of potassium hyperpolarizes the atrial tissues, reducing the duration of the atrial action potential.

Front 91

Which of the following agents used in hypertension emergencies is known to have adrenergic alpha-blocking action as well as non-selective beta-blocking action?

Back 91

e. Labetalol A100 - Carvedilol is also an alpha- and beta-blocker

Front 92

Prolonged treatment with which of the following anti-hypertensive drugs may increase serum prolactin levels and lactation during therapy?

Back 92

d. Methyldopa

Front 93

An ionizable drug has a pKa of 3.8. The drug is now dissolved in water and was seen to contain equal amounts of ionized and non-ionized forms. What is the pH of the solution?

Back 93

b. 3.8

Front 94

Which of the following statements concerning characteristics of a particular route of administration is INCORRECT?

Back 94

a. Intravenous administration provides slow response.

It's immediate and 100% bioavailable!

Front 95

Which route of administration is likely to have 100% bioavailability?

Back 95

c. Intravenous

Front 96

What is the mechanism of acton of Metoprolol (Lopressor) as an antihypertensive drug?

Back 96

c. Beta – 1 adrenergic receptor antagonism

Front 97

The study of the action of body on drugs

Back 97

B. Pharmokinetics

Front 98

The study of chromosomal factors in the variation of drug response

Back 98

C. Pharmacogenetics

Front 99

The study of bioactive substances of natural origin

Back 99

D. Pharmacognosy

Front 100

The study of the action of drugs on the body

Back 100

E. Pharmacodynamics

Front 101

Which of the following statement about Heparin is INACCURATE?

Back 101

b. Heparin is a drug that is known to cause teratogenicity (fetal malformation)

Front 102

Which of the following statements about warfarin is INACCURATE?

Back 102

b. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme

Front 103

Which of the following agents is used for REVERSAL of effect of heparin action?

Back 103

c. Protamine sulfate

Front 104

Classified under anticoagulant anti-platelet drugs, which of the following is a platelet inhibitor that inhibits ADP pathway?

Back 104

c. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Front 105

Which of the following agents is a partial fatty-acid oxidation (PFox) inhibitor and is useful in the management of ischemic heart disease?

Back 105

a. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

Front 106

What is the mechanism of action of Digitalis glycosides used in the management of Congestive Heart Failure?

Back 106

a. Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase of the cell membrane

Front 107

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin (ASA) as an antiplatelet agent?

Back 107

d. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme

Front 108

Which of the following agents used in the management of lipidemia is a cholesterol ……. In the GI tract?

Back 108

a. Ezetimibe (Zetia)

Front 109

How would you describe Carvedilol (Coreg), a drug that is useful in the management of congestive heart failure?

Back 109

a. A non-selective beta-receptor blocker and alpha1-receptor blocker

Front 110

Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that is contraindicated for concurrent use with nitrates due to the propensity for causing nitrate potentiation?

Back 110

b. Sildenafil (Viagra) -

Front 111

Which of the following agents is known to reduce blood pressure by central alpha 2 mechanisms?

Back 111

c. Clonidine (Catapres)

Front 112

Which is the drug used in depressed cardiac contractility and is known to be a cardio-specific inotropic beta adrenergic agonist and is not known to cause the release of endogenous norepinephrine?

Back 112

b. Dobutamine