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78 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the FOUR main assumptions of Receptor Theory
1. receptor must possess STRUCTURAL and STERIC specificity
2. receptors are SATURABLE and FINITE
3. receptors must possess HIGH AFFINITY for its endogenous ligand at physiological concentrations
4. once the endogenous ligand binds to the receptor, SOME RECOGNIZABLE EARLY CHEMICAL EVENT MUST OCCUR
what is the concentration-response relationship
1. the more receptors occupied, the greater the response to the ligand.
2. up to the point at which cell signaling mechanisms are saturated and cannot be further driven
what does the equilibrium dissociation constant say about the system.
the concentration of ligand that produces 50% receptor occupancy at equilibrium

1. relationship between affinity, drug concentration, and receptor occupancy

potent drugs: high affinity: low Kd
weak drugs: low affinity: high Kd
what is the difference between potency and efficacy
1. potency: (how fast it gets there) the concentration of ligand required to yield an effect
2. efficacy: (how high the ceiling is) the quantitative ability of a drug to produce a biologic effect
what is the difference between an ANTAGONIST and AGONIST
1. antagonist: binds to receptor WITHOUT causing an effect, thereby preventing an active substance from gaining access (NO INTRINSIC ACTIVITY, NO DOWNSTREAM EFFECT)
2. agonist: occupy receptors and activate DOWNSTREAM effector mechanisms, producing a response
what is a competitive pharmacological antagonist
1. binds to the same site as the agonist
2. CAN be overcome by increasing the concentration of agonist
what is an irreversible pharmacological antagonist
CANNOT by overcome by increasing the concentration of agonist
what is a physiological antagonist
a drug that counters the effects of another by binding to a DIFFERENT RECEPTOR and causing an opposing effect
what is a chemical antagonist
a drug that counters the effects of another by BINDING TO THE AGONIST DRUG (inactivating it) and NOT the receptor
what is the difference between FULL and PARTIAL agonist
1. full: produces maximum biologic response and are maximally efficacious, INDEPENDENT of potency
2. partial: produce less than 100% of maximum biological response, even at max receptor occupancy
what is the difference between COMPETITIVE and NONCOMPETITIVE antagonism
1. competitive: binding to receptor preventing agonist from binding
2. noncompetitive: both antagonist and agonist can bind to receptor, BUT antagonist prevents or reduces effect of agonist

COMPETITIVE can be overcome with increased concentration of agonist
what is the difference between reversible and irreversible antagonism
1. reversible: antagonist is readily dissociated from the receptor (antihistamine)
2. irreversible: antagonist forms a strong COVALENT bond with receptor (phenyloxybenzamine)
agonist and antagonist in relation to efficacy...how does an agonist graph look with presentation of competitive antagonist
1. agonist: full or partial efficacy
2. antagonist: NO EFFICACY

SHIFT TO THE RIGHT with presence of antagonist

REDUCED POTENCY
NO CHANGE IN EFFICACY
how does an agonist graph look with presentation of noncompetitive antagonist
SHRINKING and RIGHT SHIFT

DECREASE in potency
DECREASE in efficacy

because receptors removed from available pool
what are spare receptors?
when are spare receptors said to be present?
1. receptors that upregulate their complement of specific receptors to increase their sensitivity to ligands
2. shift graph RIGHT, altering apparent potency WITHOUT altering max efficacy
3. present when 50% of EC50 is less than the concentration of 50% of Kd
what is LD50/ED50 ratio?
therapeutic index:
1. a measure of the safety of a therapeutic agent

HIGH INDEX=GOOD
LOW INDEX=BAD
what is the largest class of receptors
receptors that activate G-proteins
what are intracellular RECEPTORS
lipid-soluble or diffusible agents may cross the membrane and combine with an intracellular receptor that ultimately regulate gene transcription

corticosteriods, sex steriods, thyroid hormones, vitamin D, etc
what are intracellular ENZYMES
ligands can bind to enzymes, altering their activity, which has direct effect on cell physiology

NSAIDS...like aspirin (cyclooxygenase blocker)
name the four membrane-spanning receptors
1. ion channels
2. enzymes
3. receptors activating separate intracellular tyrosine kinase
4. receptors that activate G-proteins
what are the general determinants of absorption rates
1. dissolution into aq. fluids at absorption site
2. lipid solubility
3. concentration gradient
4. blood flow at absorption site
5. surface area of absorption site
what is volume of distribution
Vd= (amount of drug in the body)/(plasma drug concentration)

an indicator of how well the drug is distributed in the tissue IN RELATION to other drugs. NOT how much is reaching the site of action
what are the factors that influence volume distribution
1. drug pKa
2. extent of drug-plasma protein binding
3. partition coefficient of the drug in fat (lipid solubility)
4. gender, age, disease state, body composition
what is the relationship of volume distribution with lipid solubility and half life
DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL

HIGH Vd= high lipid solubility and longer half life

vis versa
what is drug clearance
Cl= (rate of elimination of drug)/(plasma drug concentration)

the volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed per unit time
what are the TWO most important organs for clearing drugs
1. kidneys
2. liver
what are the factors affecting hepatic clearance
1. blood flow
2. extent of plasma-bound drugs
3. high extraction ratio drugs (first pass)
what is first order kinetics
1. constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time
2. rate of elimination is proportional to the amount of drug in the body
3. higher drug concentration, the greater the amount of drug eliminated per unit time

MOST DRUGS are eliminated this way
what is zero order kinetics
the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration

LINEAR GRAPH
what are the EIGHT important zero order drugs
1. Phenytoin
2. Ethanol
3. Warfarin
4. Heparin
5. Aspirin
6. Theophylline
7. Tolbutamide
8. Salicylate
what is half life and how is it calculated
time required for the amount of drug to fall to 50% of an earlier measurement

half life= (0.7 x Vd)/(clearance)

this is for a single compartment
what are the general determinants of absorption rates
1. dissolution into aq. fluids at absorption site
2. lipid solubility
3. concentration gradient
4. blood flow at absorption site
5. surface area of absorption site
what is volume of distribution
Vd= (amount of drug in the body)/(plasma drug concentration)

an indicator of how well the drug is distributed in the tissue IN RELATION to other drugs. NOT how much is reaching the site of action
what are the factors that influence volume distribution
1. drug pKa
2. extent of drug-plasma protein binding
3. partition coefficient of the drug in fat (lipid solubility)
4. gender, age, disease state, body composition
what is the relationship of volume distribution with lipid solubility and half life
DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL

HIGH Vd= high lipid solubility and longer half life

vis versa
what is drug clearance
Cl= (rate of elimination of drug)/(plasma drug concentration)

the volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed per unit time
what are the TWO most important organs for clearing drugs
1. kidneys
2. liver
what are the factors affecting hepatic clearance
1. blood flow
2. extent of plasma-bound drugs
3. high extraction ratio drugs (first pass)
what is first order kinetics
1. constant fraction of the durg in the body is eliminated per unit time
2. rate of elimination is proportional to the amount of drug in the body
3. higher drug concentration, the greater the amount of drug eliminated per unit time

MOST DRUGS are eliminated this way
what is zero order kinetics
the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration

LINEAR GRAPH
what are the EIGHT important zero order drugs
1. Phenytoin
2. Ethanol
3. Warfarin
4. Heparin
5. Aspirin
6. Theophylline
7. Tolbutamide
8. Salicylate
what is half life and how is it calculated
time required for the amount of drug to fall to 50% of an earlier measurement

half life= (0.7 x Vd)/(clearance)

this is for a single compartment
first order kinetics: half life is CONSTANT regardless of concentration

zero order kinetics: rate of elimination is CONSTANT regardless of concentration
first order kinetics: half life is CONSTANT regardless of concentration

zero order kinetics: rate of elimination is CONSTANT regardless of concentration
what is biotransformation
metabolism of lipophilic drugs to hydrophilic derivatives
what organ plays a major role first pass metabolism
LIVER (HIGHEST enzymatic activity)

other:
GI tract
kidneys
skin
what is added in phase 1 on metabolism
functionalization reaction

introduction of a new functional group:
-OH
-SH
-NH2

usually after this the drug is polar enough to be eliminated. if not it goes through phase II
what does phase 1 reaction require
1. cytochrome P450 hemoprotein
2. NADPH-CYP450 reductase
3. NADPH
4. O2
where does phase 1 metabolism occur? phase 2 metabolism?
1. phase 1 metabolism occur in the SMOOTH ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM of the LIVER
2. phase 2 metabolism occur in the CYTOSOL
what is the most abundant human isoform of CYP? what is it induced by?
CYP3A4

induced by barbiturates, rifampicin, glucocorticoids
what CYP is induced by ethanol
CYP2E1

plays a major role in ethanol metabolism
what is the enzyme and cofactor that is responsible for GLUCURONIDATION
MOST IMPORTANT of all the PHASE II conjugations!!!!

enzyme: UDP-glucuronosyl transferase (UGT)
cofactor: UDP-glucuronic acid (UGA)
what is the enzyme and cofactor that is responsible for SULFATION
transfer SO3 to drug

enzyme: sulfotransferase
cofactor: PAP-sulfate
what is the enzyme and cofactor that is responsible for ACETYLATION
transfer acetyl group to drug

enzyme: N-acetyltransferase
cofactor: acetyl-CoA
what is the enzyme and cofactor that is responsible for GLUTATHIONE conjugation
transfer glutathione to drug

enzyme: glutathione-S-transferase
cofactor: glutathione
what is the enzyme and cofactor that is responsible for METHYLATION
add methyl to drug

enzyme: S-adenosylmethionine
cofactor: transmethylase
what is enzyme induction
induction resulting from selective increase in synthesis of CYP450-dependent drug oxidizing enzymes
what is the result of enzyme induction
1. increase biotransformation
2. decrease in plasma conc.
3. decrease drug activity if metabolite is INACTIVE
4. increase drug activity if the metabolite is ACTIVE

DECREASE THERAPEUTIC EFFECT
what is the most common form of enzyme inhibition
1. competition for the same isozyme
2. leads to serious adverse effects
what a suicide inhibitors
drugs that are metabolized to products that IRREVERSIBLY inhibit the metabolizing enzyme
what are the THREE routes of excretion
1. urine: most important for nonvolatile drugs and their metabolites
2. bile: most important for drugs/metabolites which are actively transported by hepatocytes
3. sweat, tears, repro fluid, etc are minor routes
how does decreased cardiac output affect metabolism
1. reduces hepatic perfusion
2. decrease delivery of drug to the liver for metabolism
how does increase body fat affect metabolism
1. INCREASE Vd
2. tend to prolong clearance time
3. promotes accumulation of highly lipid-soluble drugs
what are the THREE factors that affect bioavailability
1. first pass metabolism
2. incomplete absorption
3. distribution to other tissues before entering the systemic circulation
how is bioavailability calculated
F=[desired route]/[IV route]
loading dose formula
LD= Vd x TC

loading dose=vol. distribution x target conc.
dosing rate formula
DR=RoE=Cl x TC

Dosing rate=rate of elimination

=clearance x target conc.
maintenance dose formula
maintenance dose=dosing rate x dosing interval

MD=DR x DI
correct dose formula
corrected dose=avg. dose x (patient creatinine clearance/100)
what are the conditions that affect pharmacokinetics to the fetus
1. lipid solubility: lipophilic readily diffuse across the placenta
2. MW: under 500 can cross, 500-1000 difficult time crossing, greater than 1000 very poorly
3. placental transporters: can carry large molecules to the fetus
4. protein binding: drugs bound to plasma proteins may have a decreased rate of transfer to fetus
5. drug metabolism: placenta is a site of drug metabolism
how does decreased cardiac output affect metabolism
1. reduces hepatic perfusion
2. decrease delivery of drug to the liver for metabolism
how does increase body fat affect metabolism
1. INCREASE Vd
2. tend to prolong clearance time
3. promotes accumulation of highly lipid-soluble drugs
what are the THREE factors that affect bioavailability
1. first pass metabolism
2. incomplete absorption
3. distribution to other tissues before entering the systemic circulation
how is bioavailability calculated
F=[desired route]/[IV route]
loading dose formula
LD= Vd x TC

loading dose=vol. distribution x target conc.
dosing rate formula
DR=RoE=Cl x TC

Dosing rate=rate of elimination

=clearance x target conc.
maintenance dose formula
maintenance dose=dosing rate x dosing interval

MD=DR x DI
correct dose formula
corrected dose=avg. dose x (patient creatinine clearance/100)
what are the conditions that affect pharmacokinetics to the fetus
1. lipid solubility: lipophilic readily diffuse across the placenta
2. MW: under 500 can cross, 500-1000 difficult time crossing, greater than 1000 very poorly
3. placental transporters: can carry large molecules to the fetus
4. protein binding: drugs bound to plasma proteins may have a decreased rate of transfer to fetus
5. drug metabolism: placenta is a site of drug metabolism