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206 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
True/False
M2 receptors on norpeinephrine neurons are autoreceptors. |
False. acetylcholine
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True/False
Amphetamine directly activates alpha and beta receptors. |
False. ?
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The rank order potency for B1 receptors is:
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ISO > EPI =NE
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The three enzymes in Norpeinephrine synthesis are?
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Tyrosine hydroxylase (rate limiting)
Aromatic-L-amino acid decarboxylase (DOPA decarboxylase) Dopamine –Beta-hydroxylase. |
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The second messengers for alpha 1 receptors are _______________.
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IP3 and DAG
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Epinephrine would increase /decrease pupil diameter.
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increase
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True/False
Ephedrine shows tachyphylaxis |
True
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True/False
M2 receptors on Acetylcholine neurons are autoreceptors |
True
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Sympathetic norepinephrine stimulation sphincters constrictions/relaxes, pupils dilate/constricts, heart rate increases/decrease
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constricts
dilates increases |
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Alpha 1 therapeutic uses:
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Blood pressure/Nasal decongestant
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List 2 receptors that act on norepinephrine.
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Auto: Alpha-2a, 2c
Hetero: M2, M4 |
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B1 potency order
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ISO > EPI = NE
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The second messenger for alpha 2 receptors is _________.
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↓cAMP
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True/False
Alpha 2 receptors on Acetylcholine neurons are autoreceptors |
False. M2 or M4
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True/False
Ephedrine directly activates alpha and beta receptors. |
True
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The rank order potency for alpha1 receptors is ___________.
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EPI ≥ NE >> ISO
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The second messenger for beta receptors is ________.
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↑ cAMP
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Cocaine directly activates alpha and beta receptors
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False.
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True/False
Reserpine blocks transport into vesicles |
True
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True/False
Tyramine rapidly releases transmitter |
True
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True/False
Cocaine blocks uptake into neurons. |
True
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_______________ is the rate limiting enzyme in Norepinephrine synthesis
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Tyrosine hydroxylase
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List two presynaptic receptors which would increase Norepinephrine release
_________ and ________. |
Beta 2
Ang II or PG or opiate |
|
True/False
Bretylium inhibits sympathetic nerve activity by preventing Norepinephrine release from the nerve terminal. |
True
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The rank order potency for alpha 2 receptors is ________
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EPI =NE>>ISO
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In general terms the therapeutic use of alpha 1 antagonists is as _________ while beta 1 agonists facilitate / inhibit cardiac function.
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antihypertensive
facilitate |
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List three possible side effects of Epinephrine administration _______, ________, _______.
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Increased HR, tremors, arrhythmias
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Pretreatment with a beta blocker before infusion of Epinephrine would result in the following effects on cardiovascular function
Heart rate Mean blood pressure Peripheral resistance |
reflex decrease
Increase Increase |
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Alpha 1 receptors activate which G protein _____ to produce _________. as second messengers.
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Gq
IP3 and DAG |
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opamine is converted in the vesicle to Norepinephrine by _________.
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Dopamine BetaHydroxylase
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List two presynaptic receptors which would inhibit Norepinephrine release ___________ and __________.
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alpha 2 and Y2 also P1,D2, opiate, PG, M2, 5HT,H3
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True/False
Cocaine rapidly displaces Norepinephrine out of vesicle to increase synaptic levels. |
False. ?
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The rank order potency for beta 1 receptors is ____________.
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ISO > EPI = NE also ISO >EPI ≥ NE
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The major therapeutic uses of alpha 1 agonists are _________ and ___________.
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increase blood pressure
Nasal decongestant |
|
Epinephrine would increase / decrease pupil size, contract / relax GI sphincters,
increase / decrease peristaltic movements in the GI tract |
increase
contract decrease |
|
Pretreatment with a alpha blocker before infusion of Epinephrine would result in the following effects on cardiovascular function?
Heart rate Diastolic blood pressure Peripheral resistance |
Increase
Decrease Decrease |
|
Alpha 2 receptors activate which G protein ____ which results in ___________ as second the messenger.
|
Gi
Decreased cAMP |
|
Phenoxybenzamine would cause which of the following?
a) Increase insulin secretion b) Watery salivation c) Interfere with uterine contractions during delivery d) Contract the spleen e) A and C are correct f) B and D are correct |
e) A and C are correct
|
|
A muscarinic agonist would cause?
a) Viscous salivation b) Contraction of the gall bladder c) Localized sweating d) Contraction of GI sphincters e) All of the choices are correct f) B and D are correct |
b) Contraction of the gall bladder
|
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Clonidine at normal doses would cause which of the following?
a) Mydriasis b) Watery salivation c) Glycogen breakdown d) Decrease insulin secretions e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) Decrease insulin secretions
|
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a) Dopamine –Beta-hydroxylase is located in the cytoplasm b) Aromatic-L-amino acid decarboxylase is bound to the mitochondria c) Catechol-O-methyl transferase rapidly converts norepinephrine to epinephrine d) Tyrosine hydroxylase is found in Dopamine neurons e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) Tyrosine hydroxylase is found in Dopamine neurons
|
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Which of the following is/are characteristics of the Uptake 2 process?
a) Temperature sensitive b) Energy dependent c) Specific for norepinephrine d) Not saturable e) A, B and C are correct f) All of the choices are correct |
d) Not saturable
|
|
Which of the following is/are true about presynaptic receptors?
a) They are always autoreceptors b) The muscarinic autoreceptor is M2 c) D2 presynaptic receptors can increase norepinephrine release d) Angiotensin II (A1) presynaptic receptors can increase norepinephrine release e) All of the choices are correct f) B and D are correct |
f) B and D are correct
|
|
Cocaine could:
a) Increase cardiac contractility b) Cause miosis c) Cause profuse sweating d) Contract bronchial smooth muscle e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
a) Increase cardiac contractility
|
|
Which of the following rank order potencies is/are correct?
a) Beta 3: ISO = NE = EPI b) Alpha 1: NE ≥ EPI >> ISO c) Beta 1: ISO > EPI >> NE d) Beta 2: ISO > EPI = NE e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
f) None of the choices are correct
|
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G-coupled receptors
a) Always activate either Gs or Gi b) Always have 7 membrane spanning units c) Always have 3 identical intracellular loops d) Always have similar phosphorylation sites on the extracellular loops e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
b) Always have 7 membrane spanning units
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|
Epinephrine
a) Effective orally for asthma attacks b) Increases cardiac contractility by enhancing cardiac calcium channels c) Stabilizes mast cells by an activity on beta 2 receptors d) Lowers intra-ocular pressure by decreasing fluid production e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
b) Increases cardiac contractility by enhancing cardiac calcium channels
|
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Isoproterenol
a) Has a higher affinity for beta 1 than beta 2 receptors b) Is not metabolized by COMT or MAO c) Stabilizes mast cells in allergic reactions d) Can produce arrhythmias e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) Can produce arrhythmias
|
|
Pseudoephedrine
a) Has a short duration of action due to metabolism by COMT b) Selective alpha 1 agonist c) Useful in sustained weight loss d) Can enhance norepinephrine release e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) Can enhance norepinephrine release
|
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Phenoxybenzamine
a) Would cause mydriasis b) Has a long half life c) Produces hyperglycemia d) Has been used in combination with papaverine to enhance erections in males e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
b) Has a long half life
|
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Mr. Green has undergone a successful heart transplant, in which his badly damaged heart was replaced with a donor heart. If given amphetamine Mr. Green would show no elevation in heart rate, the normal response to amphetamine. To which of the following drugs would Mr. Green ‘s new heart show the expected increase in heart rate?
1) Epinephrine 2) Isoproterenol 3) Ephedrine 4) Tyramine A = 1, 2 and 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choice are correct |
A = 1, 2 and 3 are correct
|
|
Alpha 2 agonists:
a) All have imidazoline receptor activity b) All except Guanfacine cause sedation c) Are useful in male sexual dysfunction d) Mediate their effects mainly through presynaptic receptors e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
f) None of the choices are correct
|
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Which of the following is/are true about beta 2 agonists?
a) Are all available orally and by inhalation b) Are resistant to COMT c) Salmeterol is useful for acute asthma attacks d) All may cause hypoglycemia e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
b) Are resistant to COMT
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Phentolamine
a) Orally available, alpha 1 selective b) Is preferred over Phenoxybenzamine in Pheochromocytoma because it also effects imidazoline receptors c) Is useful in tyramine/MAO reactions d) May lead to reflex Bradycardia e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
c) Is useful in tyramine/MAO reactions
|
|
Which of the following is/are true?
a) Prazosin produces significant reflex tachycardia b) The ALLHAT trial showed Doxazosin is superior to calcium channel blockers in long term control of hypertension c) Prazosin can produce rebound nasal stuffiness d) Alfuzosin is used specifically as an antihypertensive e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
c) Prazosin can produce rebound nasal stuffiness
|
|
Tamsulosin
a) Selective alpha 1 A agonist b) May cause orthostatic hypotension c) Produces significant reflex tachycardia d) Inhibits insulin release e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
b) May cause orthostatic hypotension
|
|
Propranolol
a) Lowers normal blood pressure by lowering cardiac output b) Would be useful to lower anxiety in a marathon runner c) Increases intra-ocular fluid outflow in glaucoma d) May produce vivid dreams and hallucinations e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) May produce vivid dreams and hallucinations
|
|
The potential side effects of Butoxamine would be?
a) Bronchoconstriction b) Elevated blood pressure c) Decreased insulin release d) Decreased glycogenolysis e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
e) All of the choices are correct
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Labetelol
a) Decreases blood pressure but increases heart rate b) Has agonistic activity at alpha 1 receptors c) May cause sedation and fatigue d) May increase renin secretion e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
c) May cause sedation and fatigue
|
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Which of the following is/are 2nd generation (selective) beta blockers
a) Pindolol b) Nadolol c) Carvedilol d) Atenolol e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) Atenolol
|
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a) Phenylepherine should decrease heart rate in a patient pretreated with Phenoxybenzamine b) Isoproterenol should decrease heart rate in a patient pretreated with Phentolamine c) Norepinephrine should increase heart rate in a patient treated with a cholinergic antagonist d) Epinephrine should increase blood pressure in a patient treated with Metoprolol e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
c) Norepinephrine should increase heart rate in a patient treated with a cholinergic antagonist
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Which of the following is/are true of Metaproterenol?
a) May decrease nervousness b) May be used to decreases tremors c) Resistant to COMT d) Only available by inhalation e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
c) Resistant to COMT
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Propranolol would be contraindicated in:
a) Pheochromocytoma b) Angina pectoris c) Hyperthyroidism d) Bradycardia e) All of the choices are correct f) None of the choices are correct |
d) Bradycardia
|
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Terbutaline
a) Causes mydriasis b) Increases glucose production c) Decreases insulin secretion d) Selectively activates beta 2 receptors e) All of the choices are correct f) B and D are correct |
f) B and D are correct
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Administration of the agonist by itself causes an increase in systolic and diastolic blood pressure, a reflex decrease in heart rate and thick viscous salivation in a normal 45 year old man. When the agonist is given after pretreatment with the antagonist, it no longer increases systolic or diastolic blood pressure, but causes an increase in heart rate. Salivation returns to normal and the next day the patient complains of feeling dizzy on standing up
The agonist is ______ The antagonist is ______ AGONISTS a) Dobutamine b) Epinephrine c) Norepinephrine d) Phenylepherine e) Terbutaline ANTAGONISTS f) Metoprolol g) Propranolol h) Prazosin i) Yohimbine j) Atropine |
NE
Prazosin |
|
Administration of the agonist alone increases heart rate, increases systolic blood pressure slightly, lowers diastolic blood pressure slightly and dilates bronchial smooth muscle. After pretreatment with the antagonist, the agonist no longer increases heart rate, still lowers diastolic blood pressure and still dilates bronchial smooth muscle.
The agonist is ______ The antagonist is ______ AGONISTS a) Dobutamine b) Epinephrine c) Norepinephrine d) Phenylepherine e) Terbutaline ANTAGONISTS f) Metoprolol g) Propranolol h) Prazosin i) Yohimbine j) Atropine |
EPI
Metoprolol |
|
Isoproterenol could
a) Enhance ejaculation b) Increase tear production c) Decrease insulin release d) Enhance contractility of skeletal muscle e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Enhance contractility of skeletal muscle
|
|
A muscarinic agonist would cause?
a) Increased bronchial secretions b) Relaxation of the gall bladder c) Localized sweating d) Contraction of sphincters e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Increased bronchial secretions
|
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Phenylepherine would cause which of the following?
a) Increased watery salivation b) Contraction of the detruser muscle c) Increased contractility of the ventricles d) Mydriasis e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Mydriasis
|
|
Parasympathetic nerves:
1. Always release acetylcholine 2. Have a thoraco-lumbar outflow from the spinal cord 3. Have a localized area of stimulation 4. Have short pre-ganglionic fibers A = 1,2,3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
B = 1 and 3 are correct
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Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) In animals pretreated with reserpine amphetamine would be less effective b) Bretylium blocks the norpeinephrine uptake transporter c) Ephedrine would have no effect in animals treated with quanethidine d) Inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO) would decrease sympathetic nerve activity e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) In animals pretreated with reserpine amphetamine would be less effective
|
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase is the rate limiting enzyme in NE synthesis b) Dopamine-beta-hydroxylase is inhibited by alpha-methyl-para-tyrosine c) COMT (catechol-O-methyl-transferase) is found in both the pre and post synaptic neurons d) Dopamine is formed inside of the vesicle e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
|
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Which of the following statements are correct?
a) Uptake of tyrosine into neurons is by simple diffusion b) Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl-transferase (PNMT) is found in epinephrine containing vesicles c) Adenosine presynaptic receptors increase NE release d) Dopamine presynaptic receptors inhibit NE release e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Dopamine presynaptic receptors inhibit NE release
|
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Epinephrine’s therapeutic indications include?
a) Asthma b) Use with local anesthetics c) Cardiac stimulant d) Stabilize mast cells e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
|
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Phenylepherine
a) Causes ciliary muscle contraction b) Interferes with accommodation c) Increases heart rate d) Should be avoided in late pregnancy e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Should be avoided in late pregnancy
|
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Which of the following rank order potencies is/are correct?
1) Beta 2: EPI ≥ NE = ISO 2) Beta 1: ISO ≥ NE >> EPI 3) Alpha 1: NE > EPI ≥ ISO 4) Alpha 2; EPI ≥ NE >> ISO A = 1,2,3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
D = 4 only
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Reserpine
a) Prevents release of NE from vesicles b) Could interfere with an erection in males c) Would increase glucose production d) Could lead indirectly to contraction of the pupil e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Could lead indirectly to contraction of the pupil
|
|
Which of the following is/are correct?
a) Alpha1B receptors activate Gq and increase IP3 and DAG b) Alpha 2B receptors activate Gs and increase cyclic AMP c) Beta 2 receptors activate Gs and decrease cyclic AMP d) Alpha 2C receptors activate Gi and decrease potassium channels e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Alpha1B receptors activate Gq and increase IP3 and DAG
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Mr. Brown has undergone a successful heart transplant in which his badly damaged heart was replaced with a donor heart. If given amphetamine Mr. Brown would show no elevation in heart rate, the normal response to someone given amphetamine. Which of the following sympathetic responses will Mr. Brown also probably show a decreased response to.
1) Vasoconstriction 2) Increased glucose production 3) Pupil dilation 4) CNS stimulation A = 1,2,3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the above are correct |
F = None of the above are correct
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Phenylepherine
a) Activates both alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors at therapeutic doses b) Is metabolized by COMT c) May cause reflex tachycardia d) Can be used to maintain blood pressure in spinal anesthesia e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Can be used to maintain blood pressure in spinal anesthesia
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At therapeutic doses Oxymetazoline affects which receptors?
a) Beta 1 b) Beta 2 c) M3 d) Alpha 1 e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Alpha 1
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Ephedrine
a) Is metabolized rapidly by COMT and MAO b) Causes weight loss by stimulating GI motility c) Is used to treat narcolepsy d) Shows tachyphylaxis with repeated use. e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Shows tachyphylaxis with repeated use.
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Metaproterenol
1) May cause nervousness 2) Decreases tremors 3) Therapeutic useful bronchial relaxant 4) Significantly increases renin release A = 1,2,3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1 and 3 are correct
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Phenoxybenzamine
a) Selectively alkylates the alpha 1 receptor b) Directly increases heart rate and cardiac contractility c) Can be used to reverse the miosis caused by a muscarinic agonist d) May cause hypoglycemia e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) May cause hypoglycemia
|
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Dobutamine
a) Selectively activates beta 1 receptors to increase cardiac contractility and heart rate b) Is effective orally c) Could increase renin release d) Would be contraindicated in asthma e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) Could increase renin release
|
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Terbutaline
a) Only relaxes bronchial smooth muscle contracted by muscarinic receptors. b) Shows tachyphylaxis on repeated use c) May stimulate beta 2 receptors on skeletal muscle to cause tremors d) Rapidly metabolized by COMT e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) May stimulate beta 2 receptors on skeletal muscle to cause tremors
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Clonidine
a) Is used for its presynaptic actions to decrease NE release in the treatment of drug withdrawal. b) Can initially increase blood pressure slightly by an action on vascular alpha 2 receptors followed by a decrease in pressure c) Actions to lower blood pressure are through presynaptic inhibition of NE release d) Can be used to prolong local anesthesia e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
b) Can initially increase blood pressure slightly by an action on vascular alpha 2 receptors followed by a decrease in pressure
|
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Which of the following would be the drug of choice to reduce uterine contractions?
a) Phentolamine b) Salmeterol c) Metaproterenol d) Ritodrine e) Reserpine f) None of the above |
d) Ritodrine
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Epinephrine
a) Increases heart rate by PKA dependent phosphorylation of calcium channels b) Relaxes GI and bladder sphincters c) Decreases intra-ocular pressure by decreasing ocular fluid production d) Decreases peristalsis of the GI tract e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Decreases peristalsis of the GI tract
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G coupled receptors
1) Contain seven membrane spanning units 2) Have multiple phosphorylation sites on the 3 intracellular loops 3) All have 3 extracellualr loops 4) Only respond to catecholamines A = 1,2,3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1 and 3 are correct
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Prazosin
1) Causes Mydriasis 2) Relaxes the spleen 3) Relaxes non-pregnant uterine smooth muscle 4) Inhibits ejaculation in males A = 1,2,3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the above are correct |
C = 2 and 4 are correct
|
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Tyrosine hydroxylase is found localized on the mitochondrial membrane. b) L- Dopa is converted to Dopamine inside vesicles c) Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase is specific for the conversion of L-Dopa to Dopamine. d) Phenylethanolamine – N - methyl transferase is expressed inside of vesicles e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
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The amount of Norepinephrine in the synapse is regulated by which of the following?
1) Central sympathetic outflow 2) Autoreceptors 3) Activity of uptake transporters 4) Enzymatic activity A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1, 3 are correct C = 2, 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
E = All are correct
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Which of the following is/are correct for presynaptic activity on sympathetic nerves?
a) eta 2 - inhibits release b) 2 – stimulates release c) Adenosine A2 – inhibits release d) Angiotensin II – inhibits release e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) Adenosine A2 – inhibits release
|
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Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
1) Alpha methyl-p-tyrosine - inhibits Dopamine-Beta-hydroxylase 2) Guanethidine - slowly displaces Norepinephrine form vesicles 3) Cocaine – rapidly displaces Norepinephrine out of vesicles 4) Bretylium - Prevents Norepinephrine release A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
C = 2 and 4 are correct
|
|
Which of the following is/are correct?
a) Alpha 2 receptors work through Gq to increase IP3 and DAG b) Alpha 1 receptors work through Gs to stimulate increases in cAMP c) Beta 2 receptors work through Gi to inhibit cGMP d) Alpha 2B receptors work through Gi to inhibit cAMP e) A and C are correct f) B and D are correct |
d) Alpha 2B receptors work through Gi to inhibit cAMP
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G coupled receptors
a) Have 7 membrane spanning units b) Have 3 intracellular and 4 Extracellular loops c) Lack protein phosphorylation sites d) Only activate second messenger systems e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Have 7 membrane spanning units
|
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Which of the following rank order potencies is/are correct?
1) Alpha 2 = EPI ≥ NE >> ISO 2) Alpha 1 = EPI = NE = ISO 3) Beta 2 = ISO > EPI >> NE 4) Beta 1 = ISO > EPI > NE A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
B = 1 and 3 are correct
|
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Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
a) Alpha 1 agonists – antihypertensive b) Alpha 2 antagonists – antihypertensive c) Beta 1 agonists – antihypertensive d) Beta 2 antagonists - antihypertensive e) All are correct f) None are correct |
f) None are correct
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Epinephrine
a) Increases PKA dependent phosphorylation of L-type calcium channels to increase contractility b) Decreases insulin release c) Decreases intraocular pressure d) Increases glycogenolysis e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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In a patient given Norepinephrine you would see which of the following?
1) Mydriasis 2) Bradycardia 3) Increased diastolic blood pressure 4) Erection A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
A = 1,2 3 are correct
|
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Isoproterenol could:
a) Stimulates conduction in the atria but not the ventricles b) Relaxes uterine smooth muscle c) Stimulate profuse sweating d) Contract Ciliary muscle of eye e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
b) Relaxes uterine smooth muscle
|
|
Ephedrine
a) Can act as an indirect agonist b) Can cause sedation c) Can cause vasoconstriction of nasal mucosa d) Can cause blurred vision e) A and C are correct f) All of the above are correct |
e) A and C are correct
|
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Therapeutic uses of Phenylepherine would include?
1) Mydriasis 2) Ophthalmic decongestant 3) Vasoconstriction 4) Cycloplegia A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
A = 1,2 3 are correct
|
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Clonidine
1) May initially increase blood pressure due to actions on postsynaptic peripheral alpha 2 receptors. 2) May initially decrease Norepinephrine release due to actions on presynaptic peripheral alpha 2 receptors 3) May decrease blood pressure due to actions on postsynaptic central alpha 2 receptors 4) May be used in Attention deficit disorder to stimulate Beta 2 receptors centrally to increase attention A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
A = 1,2 3 are correct
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Dobutamine
a) Is effective orally in heart failure b) Stimulates beta 1 receptors to increase rate and force of contraction of heart c) Activates baroreflex d) Has both alpha agonistic and antagonistic activity e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Has both alpha agonistic and antagonistic activity
|
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Reserpine would:
a) Increase the actions of amphetamine b) Potentate the effects of cocaine c) Block the effects of Phenylepherine d) Decrease the actions of tyramine e) All of the above |
d) Decrease the actions of tyramine
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Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of:
1) Prazosin 2) Terbutaline 3) Phentolamine 4) Yohimbine A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
B = 1 and 3 are correct
|
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Which of the following is/are correct?
1) Norepinephrine should increase heart rate in a patient pretreated with Phentolamine 2) Isoproterenol should increase heart rate in a patient pretreated with Phenoxybenzamine 3) Phenylepherine should increase blood pressure in a patient pretreated with a cholinergic antagonist 4) Phentolamine should decrease blood pressure in a patient treated with metoprolol A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
E = All are correct
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Mrs. Johnson had a recent accident in which the sympathetic nerves to her SA node were damaged. You want to determine the level of activity in the nerves. If you gave the following drugs, you could tell the degree of damage by which of the drugs worked and which did not. From the list below, which would you expect to work in Mrs. Johnson, the way they would work in a normal individual.
a) Norepinephrine to increase heart rate b) Tyramine to increase heart rate c) Propranolol to decrease heart rate d) Amphetamine to increase heart rate e) A and C are correct f) B and D are correct |
e) A and C are correct
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Phenoxybenzamine
a) Can cause mydriasis b) Can block alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors c) May cause hypoglycemia d) May cause miosis e) Choices B, C and D are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) Choices B, C and D are correct
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Prazosin
1) Blocks alpha 2a receptor in prostate 2) Causes orthostatic hypotension 3) Can cause mydriasis 4) Blocks alpha 1b receptor in blood vessels A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1, 3 are correct C = 2, 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
C = 2, 4 are correct
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Propranolol would cause:
a) Decreased cardiac output b) Increased ocular fluid outflow from eye c) Hyperglycemia d) Increased Angiotensin II levels e) All are correct f) None are correct |
a) Decreased cardiac output
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Which of the following would be situations where Propranolol would be useful in treating the symptoms mentioned?
1) Anxiety and nervousness before you ran a marathon 2) Premature ventricle contractions associated with a myocardial infarction 3) Tachycardia and sweating associated with hypoglycemia 4) Heart palpitations and panic associated with a Pharmacology exam A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1, 3 are correct C = 2, 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
C = 2, 4 are correct
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Mixed alpha and beta antagonist
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
e) Labetalol
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Selective Beta 1 antagonist
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
f) Metoprolol
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Increases force of contraction more then rate of contraction
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
c) Dobutamine
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Acute treatment of asthma a) Albuterol
b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
a) Albuterol
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Ocular decongestant
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
j) Oxymetazoline
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Increased incidence of CHF
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
?
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Used in erectile dysfunction and pheochromocytoma
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
g) Phentolamine
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Nasal decongestant
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
h) Psuedoephedrine
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Beta 2 antagonist
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
b) Butoxamine
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Benign prostatic hyperplasia
a) Albuterol b) Butoxamine c) Dobutamine d) Doxazosin e) Labetalol f) Metoprolol g) Phentolamine h) Psuedoephedrine i) Tamsulosin j) Oxymetazoline |
d) Doxazosin
i) Tamsulosin ? |
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Phentoalmine
A) Can cause hyperglycemia B) Can inhibit erections in males C) Is a non-competitive antagonist D) Can enhance Norepinephrine release E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
D) Can enhance Norepinephrine release
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Propranolol
A) Can limit hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetics B) Is often used to control profuse sweating C) Is used to control cardiac effects in hyperthyroidism D) In contraindicated in angina E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
C) Is used to control cardiac effects in hyperthyroidism
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Metaproterenol could cause which of the following?
A) Increased pulmonary resistance B) Mydriasis C) Tachycardia D) Glycogen production E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
C) Tachycardia
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Contraindications for Propranolol include?
A) Hyperthyroidism B) Peptic Ulcers C) Glaucoma D) Asthma E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
D) Asthma
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Reserpine decreases blood pressure by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Activating alpha 2 receptors B) Blocks neuronal release of norepinephrine C) Directly relaxes vascular smooth muscle D) Displaces Norepinephrine from vesicles E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
D) Displaces Norepinephrine from vesicles
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Phenylepherine
A) Can block accommodation B) Can increase insulin release C) Can decrease salivation D) Could be used to treat atrial tachycardia E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
D) Could be used to treat atrial tachycardia
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Epinephrine
1) Stimulates glycogen breakdown 2) Blocks mast cell degranulation 3) Contracts radial muscle in the eye 4) Increases oxygen utilization in heart muscle A = 1, 2,and 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
E = All are correct
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A 60 year old patient presents with severe asthma and glaucoma. Your therapy could include which of the following?
A) Epinephrine B) Timolol C) Phenylepherine D) Butoxamine E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
A) Epinephrine
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Albuterol at therapeutic doses:
1) Reduces heart rate 2) Would cause mydriasis 3) Increase blood pressure due to baroreflex activation 4) Relax bronchial smooth muscle A = 1, 2,and 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
D = 4 only is correct
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Mr. Brown has recently had a successful cardiac transplant in which his badly damaged and failing heart was replaced by a healthy heart. Which of the following drugs would still be expected to affect his heart function?
1) Norepinephrine 2) Propranolol 3) Ephedrine 4) Amphetamine A = 1, 2,and 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
A = 1, 2,and 3 are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
1) L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase is the rate limiting enzyme in norepinephrine synthesis 2) Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl-Transferase (PNMT) is found in vesicles 3) Catechol-O methyl-transferase (COMT) is found mainly on the presynaptic membrane 4) Inhibition of Monoamine oxidase (MAO) will increase NE levels in the synapse A = 1, 2,and 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 only is correct E = All are correct F = None are correct |
D = 4 only is correct
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Uptake 2 for catecholamines:
A) Is saturable B) Would occur at 0 degrees C) Is selective for Norepinephrine D) Requires ATP E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
B) Would occur at 0 degrees
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Which of the following presynaptic receptors would increase Norepinephrine release?
A) Beta 2 B) Adenosine C) D2 dopamine D) M 2 E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
A) Beta 2
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Which of the following is/are indirect agonists?
A) Amphetamine B) Bretylium C) Tyramine D) methyldopa E) A and C F) B and D |
E) A and C
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Which of the following agents could be used in benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Tamsulosin B) Prazosin C) Terazosin D) Doxazosin E) All of the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
E) All of the above are correct
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Metoprolol is a selective beta 1 antagonist
Ritodrine may cause hypoglycemia If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
C
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Beta 2 agonists only relax pregnant uterine smooth muscle
Alpha 1 antagonists are useful in premature labor If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
B
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Accommodation is due to contraction of the circular muscle in the eye.
Tamsulosin is selective for alpha 1 A adrenergic receptors. If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
D
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Indirect acting agonist
A) Amphetamine B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
A) Amphetamine
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Direct acting alpha and beta agonist
A) Amphetamine B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
E) Epinephrine
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Alpha antagonist, beta agonist A) Amphetamine
B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
G) Labetalol
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Non-selective beta blocker
A) Amphetamine B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
J) Sotolol
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Selectively increases force of contraction
A) Amphetamine B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
C) Dobutamine
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Could selectively blocks mydriasis
A) Amphetamine B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
D) Doxazosin
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Used to treat nocturnal asthma
A) Amphetamine B) Clonidine C) Dobutamine D) Doxazosin E) Epinephrine F) Isoproterenol G) Labetalol H) Phenylepherine I) Salmeterol J) Sotolol |
I) Salmeterol
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A 24 year old woman presents with Glaucoma. Your therapy could include which of the following ?
@Epinephrine @Pilocarpine @Timolol @Physostigmine @All of the above @None of the above. |
@All of the above
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Which of the following would cause miosis ?
@Phenylepherine @Atropine @Physostigmine @A and C are correct @All of the above @None of the above |
@Physostigmine
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Mr. Brown has recently had a successful cardiac transplant in which his badly damaged heart was replaced by a healthy donor heart. Which of the following drugs would you predict to still have an effect on heart function similar to the function in normal heart?
@Norepinephrine @Bethanacol @Tyramine @Isoproterenol @*All except C @All except B |
@*All except C
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Which of the following is/are true about the barrow reflex ?
@It is responsible for long term control of blood pressure @Only responds to increases in blood pressure @Is completely blocked by Propranolol. @Is completely blocked by Atropine @All of the above @None of the above |
@None of the above
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Reserpine:
@Prevents the release of Norepinephrine from vesicles @Would cause mydriasis @Would increase heart rate at rest @Would increase glucose production @All of the above @None of the above |
@None of the above
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Which of the following is/are correct ?
@Tyrosine Hydroxylase converts tyrosine to L-DOPA @Dopamine-Beta-Hydroxylase is found mainly in the cytoplasm @Monoamine Oxidase (MAO) inhibitors decrease Norepinephrine levels in the synapse @Catechol-O-methyl transferase is found mainly on the presynaptic terminal @All of the above @None of the above |
@Tyrosine Hydroxylase converts tyrosine to L-DOPA
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Which of the following is/are true about Intraocular fluid ?
@Epinephrine increases fluid outflow through the cornea @Pilocarpine acts on the trabecualr meshwork to increase outflow @Timolol decrease fluid production in the ciliary body @Atropine decreases fluid outflow @All of the above @None of the above |
@All of the above
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Which of the following are characteristics of the Uptake 1 process ?
@Temperature sensitive @Energy dependent @Saturable @Non-specific @A, B and C are correct @B and C are correct |
@A, B and C are correct
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Cocaine could :
@Increase cardiac conduction @Cause miosis @Contract bronchial smooth muscle @Cause profuse sweating @All of the above @None of the above |
@Increase cardiac conduction
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Which of the following rank order potencies is/ are correct ?
@Alpha2: Norepinephrine > Epinephrine >> Isoproterenol @Beta3 : Isoproterenol = Norepinephrine >> Epinephrine @Beta1 : Norepinephrine > Isoproterenol > Epinephrine @Alpha1 : Epinephrine >_ Norepinephrine >> Isoproterenol @Both B and D are correct @None of the above |
@Both B and D are correct
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Adrenergic receptors :
@Have 6 membrane spanning units @All activate G proteins @Have a carboxy terminal outside and an amino terminal inside the cell @Have 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops. @A and C are correct @B and D are correct |
@B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are the correct therapeutic uses ?
@Alpha1 antagonists - Nasal decongestants @Beta1 agonists - Facilitate cardiac function @Beta2 antagonists - Relax uterine smooth muscle @Alpha2 agonists - Opiate withdrawal @A and C are correct @B and D are correct |
@B and D are correct
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Which of the following would increase Norepinephrine release ?
@Bretylium @Yohimbine @Pilocarpine @Ephedrine @A and C @B and D |
@B and D
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Terbutaline could cause which of the following ?
@Reduced pulmonary airway resistance @Hypoglycemia @Tachycardia @Miosis @A and C @B and D |
@A and C
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Phenylepehrine:
@Increases conduction in heart @Causes reflex tachycardia @Inhibits insulin secretion @Causes mydriasis without cycloplegia @All of the above @None of the above |
@Causes mydriasis without cycloplegia
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Metaproterenol is a selective Beta1 -antagonist
Ritodrine may cause hyperglycemia If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
D
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Beta2-antagonists relax both pregnant and non-pregnant uterine smooth muscle
Butoxamine is used therapeutically to treat asthma in children If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
B
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Phenoxybenzamine can cause hypoglycemia
Tamsulosin inhibits Alpha1a -adrenergic receptors. If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
A
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Metoprolol would be the agent of choice if a Beta-blocker were required in a pre-diabetic patient.
Labetalol lowers blood pressure by agonist actions at alpha1 and antagonist actions at beta2 receptors. If both statements are true, answer A If both statements are false, answer B If the first statement is true and the second false, answer C If the first statement is false and the second true, answer D |
C
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Treatment for severe urinary retention
A) Dobutamine B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
F) Bethanacol
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Selectively increases force of contraction of the heart
A) Dobutamine B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
A) Dobutamine
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Long acting alpha1 - agonist
A) Dobutamine B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
E) Oxymetazoline
? |
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Mydriasis and loss of accommodation A) Dobutamine
B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
C) Atropine
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Reduces Central Sympathetic Outflow
A) Dobutamine B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
D) Clonidine
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Treatment for urinary incontinence
A) Dobutamine B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
B) Oxybutynin
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Selectively inhibits CNS acetylcholinesterase
A) Dobutamine B) Oxybutynin C) Atropine D) Clonidine E) Oxymetazoline F) Bethanacol G) Rivastigmine H) Albuterol I) Tamsulosin |
G) Rivastigmine
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Administration of the agonist alone increases heart rate, systolic blood pressure and dilates bronchial smooth muscle. After pretreatment with the antagonist, the agonist no longer increases heart rate, has minimal effects on blood pressure, but still dilates bronchial smooth muscle.
AGONISTS: A) Epinephrine B) Terbutaline C) Norepinephrine D) Phenylepherine E) Dobutamine ANTAGONISTS: F) Metoprolol G) Prazosin H) Propranolol I) Yohimbine J) Atropine The agonist is ________. The antagonist is _______. |
A) Epinephrine
F) Metoprolol |
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Administration of the agonist alone increases systolic and diastolic blood pressure, causes reflex bradycardia, and thick viscous salivation. After pretreatment with the antagonist the agonist no longer increases blood pressure, results in tachycardia and salivation returns to normal.
AGONISTS: A) Epinephrine B) Terbutaline C) Norepinephrine D) Phenylepherine E) Dobutamine ANTAGONISTS: F) Metoprolol G) Prazosin H) Propranolol I) Yohimbine J) Atropine The agonist is ________. The antagonist is _______. |
C) Norepinephrine
G) Prazosin |
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Which of the following is the correct order of potency for alpha 2 receptors?
A) NE >> EPI >> ISO B) ISO = NE >> EPI C) EPI = ISO >> NE D) EPI ≥ NE >> ISO E) NE = EPI >> ISO F) None of the above are correct |
D) EPI ≥ NE >> ISO
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During catecholamine synthesis
a. Tyrosine Hydroxylase is the rate limiting enzyme in synthesis b. Dopamine-β-hydroxylase is found inside vesicles c. Uptake 1 transports about 90% of released norpeinephrine back into the terminals d. Catechol-O-methyltransferase is found on the outside of post synaptic membranes e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. Tyrosine uptake into nerve terminals is energy and temperature b. Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl transferase (PNMT) is found inside epinephrine containing vesicles c. Adenosine P1 presynaptic receptors increase ATP and norpeinephrine release d. The amount of NE released from a vesicle depends on the strength of the nerve stimulation e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Tyrosine uptake into nerve terminals is energy and temperature
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Active transport of Norepinephrine into neurons would occur rapidly under which of the following conditions?
a. 0 o C b. Normal ATP concentrations c. Excessive concentration of Norepinephrine d. Low sodium concentrations e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. Normal ATP concentrations
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Which of the following is/are true about presynaptic receptors?
1) Autoreceptors always respond to the transmitter released from the terminal on which they are found 2) Y2 –NPY receptors can increase both norpeinephrine and Neuropeptide Y release 3) Presynaptic alpha 2 receptors always decrease norpeinephrine release 4) Dopamine presynaptic receptors stimulate transmitter release A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F – None of the choices are correct |
B = 1,3
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Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
a. alpha-methyldopa – inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase b. Bretylium slowly displaces transmitter out of vesicles c. The effects of tyramine would decrease upon repeated administration d. Cocaine inhibits transport into vesicles e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. The effects of tyramine would decrease upon repeated administration
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Mr. Brown has been taking Reserpine for several years for his severe hypertension. If given amphetamine, Mr. Brown would show no elevation in heart rate, the normal response. Which of the following agents should still increase heart rate in Mr. Brown?
1) Isoproterenol 2) Dobutamine 3) Epinephrine 4) Tyramine A = 1,2,3 B = 1, 3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
A = 1,2,3
or B = 1, 3? |
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Which of the following is/are true about adrenergic receptors
a. Alpha 1B receptors activate Gq to increase IP3 and DAG b. Alpha 2C receptors activate Gs to decrease cAMP levels c. Rank order potency for Beta 3 receptors is ISO > EPI > NE d. Alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors were proposed by Langer based on the different rank order potencies for NE, EPI and ISO for these receptors e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Alpha 1B receptors activate Gq to increase IP3 and DAG
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G coupled receptors
a. Have 3 extracellular loops of different lengths b. The extracellular amino terminal ends show different lengths and number of sites for phosphorylation c. Contain 5 membrane spanning units d. Only activate ion channels e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. The extracellular amino terminal ends show different lengths and number of sites for phosphorylation
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Which of the following rank order potencies are correct?
a. Beta 1: ISO >> EPI > NE b. Alpha 1: NE ≥ EPI > ISO c. Beta 2: ISO >> EPI>> NE d. Alpha 2: EPI≥ ISO >> NE e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
f. None of the choices are correct
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Which of the following therapeutic combinations is/are correct?
a. Alpha 2 antagonists – antihypertensive b. Alpha 2 agonists – limited therapeutic use c. Beta 1 antagonist – angina d. Beta 2 antagonist – uterine smooth muscle relaxant e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. Beta 1 antagonist – angina
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Epinephrine
a. Decreases intraocular pressure by decreasing fluid production b. Would cause miosis c. Would decrease insulin release d. Is useful in the treatment of arrhythmias e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. Would decrease insulin release
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Norpeinephrine would increase cardiac output and cause a direct decrease in heart rate b. Isoproterenol is resistant to metabolism by MAO and COMT c. Dopamine’s chronotropic actions are due to activation of D2 receptors d. Epinephrine increases mean blood pressure by activation of alpha 1 receptors e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
f. None of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Ephedrine could increase heart rate even in the presence of Bretylium b. Pseudoephedrine only activates alpha 1 and beta 1 receptors c. Ephedrine could increase systolic blood pressure and decrease diastolic blood pressure d. Amphetamine activates alpha 1, beta 1 and beta 2 receptors directly e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Phenylephrine
a. Is metabolized by COMT b. Interferes with accommodation c. Causes a reflex increase in heart rate d. Undergoes rapid first pass metabolism e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
d. Undergoes rapid first pass metabolism
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Alpha two agonists
a. All activate imidazoline receptors b. All produce sedation c. Are the drugs of choice to control blood pressure in diabetic patients d. Are effective in ADHD because they inhibit sympathetic outflow from the CNS e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. All produce sedation
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Dobutamine
a. Is effective orally b. Increases both the rate and force of contraction c. Is effective for long term control of congestive heart failure d. Should increase renin release e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
d. Should increase renin release
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Beta 2 agonists
a. All are metabolized by COMT b. Terbutaline is therapeutically useful in tremor c. Albuterol has a long duration of action d. Fomoterol is useful in nocturnal asthma and COPD e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
d. Fomoterol is useful in nocturnal asthma and COPD
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Phenoxybenzamine
a. Would decrease insulin release b. May cause orthostatic hypotension c. Is a competitive antagonist d. Has actions on imidazoline receptors e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. May cause orthostatic hypotension
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Phentolamine
a. Nonselective alpha blocker b. May be used to treat acute hypertensive crisis due to tyramine/MAO interactions c. May cause priapism d. Would activate the baroreflex e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about selective alpha 1 antagonists?
a. Prazosin may be used as a nasal decongestant b. Tamsulosin has limited effects on vascular smooth muscle c. Alfuzosin is a selective alpha 1D receptor antagonist d. Doxazosin may increase the incidence of congestive heart failure e. B and D are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. B and D are correct
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Yohimbine
a. is therapeutically useful in benign prostatic hyperplasia b. May lead to mydriasis c. Decreases norpeinephrine release by activating presynaptic alpha 2 receptors d. May increase insulin release e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Propranolol is indicated for which of the following?
1) Pheochromocytoma 2) Hyperthyroidism 3) Angina pectoris 4) Bradycardia A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true about beta blockers?
a. Timolol is useful in glaucoma because it increases the outflow of fluid from the eye b. Sotalol is beta one selective c. Atenolol is useful to prevent migraines d. Metoprolol blocks gluconeogenesis and is contraindicated in diabetics e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. Atenolol is useful to prevent migraines
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The major side effects of Propranolol include?
1) Elevated HDL levels 2) Fatigue 3) Tachycardia 4) Nightmares A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
C = 2,4
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Labetalol
a. Decreases blood pressure but increases cardiac output b. Has antagonistic activity at alpha 1 receptors c. Directly relaxes vascular smooth muscle d. Has antioxidant and antiproliferative activity e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. Has antagonistic activity at alpha 1 receptors
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a. Phenylephrine should have no effect on heart rate in a patient pretreated with Phenoxybenzamine b. Isoproterenol should increase heart rate in an individual pretreated with Phentolamine c. Norepinephrine should increase blood pressure in an individual pretreated with Propranolol d. Epinephrine should decrease heart rate in an individual pretreated with Metoprolol e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Administration of the agonist by itself increases heart rate and systolic blood pressure, decreases diastolic blood pressure and dilates bronchial smooth muscle. When the agonist is given after the antagonist the agonist results in a decrease in heart rate, still increases systolic blood pressure, now increases diastolic blood pressure and does not dilate bronchial smooth muscle.
Agonists a. Dobutamine b. Epinephrine c. Norepinephrine d. Terbutaline e. Phenylephrine Antagonists f. Metoprolol g. Propranolol h. Prazosin i. Yohimbine j. Butoxamine The agonist is ______. The antagonist is _______. |
b. Epinephrine
g. Propranolol |
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Administration of the agonist alone increases systolic and diastolic blood pressure, produces reflex bradycardia and causes an increase in thick viscous salivation in a normal 59 year old male. When the agonist is given after the antagonist it no longer increase blood pressure, heart rate returns to normal, salivation returns to normal and the patient complains of sexual dysfunction.
Agonists a. Dobutamine b. Epinephrine c. Norepinephrine d. Terbutaline e. Phenylephrine Antagonists f. Metoprolol g. Propranolol h. Prazosin i. Yohimbine j. Butoxamine The agonist is ______. The antagonist is _______. |
e. Phenylephrine
h. Prazosin |