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175 Cards in this Set

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for both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias?
Class IA
acute ventricular arrythmias (post MI) and dig-induced arrythmias?
Class IB
V-tachs that progress to VF and intractable SVT
Class IC
when other antiarrythmics fail
Class III (K channel blockers)
Class Ic
for prevention of nodal arrythmias?
Class IV (Ca channel blockers)
adenosine
Depresses ectopic pacemakers?
K+
for torsade and dig toxicity?
Mg+
for pulmonary edema?
nitroglycerine, isosorbide dinitrate
for atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter?
digoxin
atropine is a...
cholinergic antagonist
AV node is particularly sensitive to...
beta blockers
delay conduction velocity at the AV node?
digoxin
beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
prolong the QT interval?
prolong the PR interval?
Class Ia and III prolong QT
Class IV prolong PR
Cause torsade as side effects?
quinidine
sotolol, ibutilide
bepridil (Ca channel blocker)
lupus-like syndrome?
procainamide
hydralazine
INH
phenytoin
decrease phase 4 slope?
Class I (Na channel blockers)
Class II (beta blockers)
used as a last resort?
Class IC and III
Good for post-MI
contraindicated post-MI
Class IB is good post-MI
Class IC is contraindicated post-MI
affect ischemic or depolarized Purkinje and ventricular tissue?
Class IB
What is Mg used for?
torsade and dig toxicity
causes gynecomastia?
spironolactone
itraconazole
inhibits squalene epoxidase?
terbinafine
inhibits ergosterol synthesis?
itraconazole
binds ergosterol?
amphotericin B
nystatin
for systemic fungal infections?
flucytosine
itraconazole
inhibits fungal DNA synthesis?
flucytosine
inhibits fungal cell wall synthesis?
caspofungin
drugs causing hemolysis?
penicillin
ribavirin
dapsone
interstitial nephritis?
nafcillin
resistant to beta lactamase?
nafcillin
2nd generation cephalosporins are?
cefoxitin
cefaclor
cefuroxime
3rd generation cephalosporins are?
cefotaxime
ceftazidime
ceftriaxone
disulfiram reactions?
cephalosporins
metronidazole (with ethanol)
procarbazine
sulfonylurea
aztreonam is good for patients who cannot tolerate...
penicillin
aminoglycoside
no cross-allergy with penicillins
aztreonam
drug of choice for enterobacter?
imipenem
causes seizures?
imipenem
blocks peptidyl transferase?
chloramphenicol
blocks peptide bond synthesis?
clindamycin
what causes C. diff colitis?
clindamycin
ampicillin
increases the concentration of theophyllines and oral anti-coags?
erythromycin
inhibits translocation?
erythromycin
causes cholestatic hepatitis?
erythromicin
prevents access of amino-acyl tRNA?
doxycycline
calcium impairs absorption of...
doxycycline
fecally eliminated, good for patients with renal failure?
doxycyline
ADH antagonist for treating SIADH?
demeclocycline
causes misreading of mRNA?
gentamycin
for Gram+ , Gram-, Nocardia, Chlamydia?
sulfamethoxazole
causes kernicterus in neonates?
sulfonamides
what is trimethoprim good for?
UTI
PCP
salmonella, shigella
cartilage damage, tendon rupture, myalgia in kids?
fluoroquinolones
what are fluoroquinolones used for?
gram- bugs of GI and urinary tract
what are polymixins used for?
cationic (basic) detergent for Gram-
give pyridoxine (vitamin B6) for...
neurophathy from INH
mechanism of INH?
decreases mycolic acid
what is pyrazinamide?
anti-TB
mechanism of rifampin?
inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase
what is rifampin used for?
TB
leprosy (Hansen's disease)
H.flu and meningococcus carriage
what are atovaqone and proguanil?
anti-malarials
what is niclosamide used for?
tape worm except cysticerosis
What do you use to treat the flukes?
praziquantel
mechanism of ribavirin?
inhibits IMP dehydrogenase to impair synthesis of guanine nucleotides
what are interferons?
glycoproteins from human leukocytes
What are these used for?
interferon alpha
interferon beta
interferon gamma
chronic Hep B, C, Kaposi sarcoma
multiple sclerosis
NADPH oxidase deficiency
what are the non-nucleoside RT inhibitors?
nevirapine
delavirdine
efavirenz
decreases maternal fetal HIV transmission?
zidovudine (AZT)
side effect of nucleoside analog RT inhibitors?
peripheral neuropathy
lactic acidosis
what are the HIV protease inhibitors?
what are the side effects?
saquinavir, etc.
glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia
doesn't require phosphorylation by viral kinase?
foscarnet
for CMV infections in immunocompromised?
for CMV retinitis?
ganciclovir
foscarnet
mechanism of the antivirals for the herpes viridae?
inhibit viral DNA polymerase
antiviral that releases DA from intact nerve terminals?
amantidine
what are the neuraminidase inhibitors?
zanamivir
oseltamivir
for superficial fungal infections?
griseofulvin
toxicities are hemolysis and methemoglobinemia?
dapsone
hyoscyamine?
anit-muscarinic to treat post-prandial abdominal pain in IBS
dronabinol?
anti-emetic
metaclopramide?
pro-kinetic agent for GERD and diabetic gastroparesis
causes idiosyncratic hepatic liver failure?
halothane
leucovorin rescue is for...
methrotrexate
mechanism of 5-FU?
inhibits thymidilate synthase
decreases dTMP?
MTX
5-FU
activated by HGPRTase, metabolized by xanthine oxidase?
mercaptopurine
mechanism of cytarabine?
inhibits DNA polymerase
what is mesna?
helps prevent hemorrhagic cystitis from cyclophosphamide use
busulfan is for _________
CML
mechanism of dactinomycin?
intercalates DNA
cause pulmonary fibrosis and skin changes?
busulfan
bleomycin
what is bleomycin for?
lymphomas and testicular tumors
what is etoposide for?
small cell lung cancer and testicular carcinoma
what is the antibody to HER-2 (erb-B2)?
Herceptin
antibody to the Philadelphia chromosome bcr-able tyrosine kinase?
Imatinib (Gleevec)
for lymphoma, Wilm's tumor and choriocarcinoma?
vincristine
mechanism of paclitaxel?
enhances microtubule polymerization
what's the mechanism of bleomycin?
G2 specific
intercalates, free radicals-->scission of DNA
for CML?
busulfan
imatinib (gleevec)
what is fomepizole?
for methanol or ethylene glycol toxicity
flumenazil?
for benzodiazepine overdose
how do you treat cyanide poisoning?
nitrate, hydroxycobalamin, thiosulfate
contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma?
epinephrine
phenoxybenzamine?
irreversible non-selective alpha blocker
phentolamine?
reversible non-selective alpha blocker
phenylephrine?
alpha agonist, a1>a2
ephendrine?
releases stored catecholamines
clonidine?
centrally acting alpha agonist
beta 1 > beta 2?
dobutamine
alpha > beta?
NE
GU cholinoreceptor blockers?
methscopolamine
oxybutinin
glycopyrrolate
for atropine overdose?
physostigmine
for myasthenia?
pyridostigmine
guanethidine?
inhibits NE release
reserpine?
inhibits dopamine uptake into vesicles
vesamicol?
inhibits ChAT
receptors for vascular SM contraction?
V1 and alpha1
ketoconazole causes ____________ toxicity
cyclosporine
muscarinic receptor for decreasing heart rate?
M2
terbutaline?
beta 2> beta1
causes reflex bradycardia?
NE
partial agonist beta blockers?
pindolol
acebutelol
labetolol
antidote for beta blockers?
glucagon
what is brimonidine?
alpha agonist
acidifies urine?
ammonium chloride
alkalinizes the urine?
bicarbonate
toxicity of cisapride?
torsade
cause agranulocytosis?
clozapine
carbamazapine
colchicine
delta opiod receptors bind_______
kappa opioid receptors bind________
enkephalin
dynorphin
opioids used in diarrhea?
loperamide
diphenoxylate
what is contraindicated in opioid overdose (could cause respiratory failure?)
oxygen
side effects of NSAIDs besides GI?
renal failure
aplastic anemia
what are COX-2 inhibitors indicated for?
RA
OA
mechanism of acetominophen?
reversibly inhibits COX in the CNS
inactivated peripherally
acetominphen lacks _________
anti-inflammatory properties
how does colchicine's impairment of MTs help with gout?
impairs leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation
inhibits secretion of penicillin?
probenecid
how does probenecid work?
inhibits reabsorption of uric acid
treat psoriasis with..
etanercept
what is infliximab?
anti-TNF
for Crohn's, RA, ankylosing spondylitis
what is Rh3(D) immune globulin?
immunosupressive agent
prevents antigen recognition
mannitol diuresis prevents...
nephrotoxicity from cyclosporine
predisposes patient to viral infection and lymphoma?
cyclosporin
binds to the FK binding protein?
tacrolimus
(inhibits secretion of IL-2)
indicated for kidney transplant patients?
azathioprine
inhibits production of IL-2?
inhibits secretion of IL-2?
cyclosporine
tacrolimus
binds calcineurin?
cyclosporine
mechanism of opiods?
act on receptors to modulate synaptic transmission
what is aldesleukin?
IL-2
for RCC and metastatic melanoma
what is filgrastim?
sargramostim?
G-CSF
GM-CSF
what is oprelvekin?
IL-11
for thrombocytopenia
thrombopoeitin is used for..
thrombocytopenia
what is cyclobenzaprine?
centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant
anti-cholinergic side effects
baclofen?
centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant acting at the spinal level
what is insulin's affect on K?
uptake into muscle
used for life-threatening hyperkalemia
1st generation sulfonylureas?
tolubutamine
chlorpropamide
2nd generation sulfonylureas?
glyburide
glipizide
glimepiride
what anti-diabetic drugs cause disulfiram-like reactions?
1st gen sulfonylureas
toxicity of the glitazones?
weight gain
hepatotoxicity
when do you give GH?
GH deficiency or Turner's
octreotide is used for..
acromegaly
carcinoid syndrome
gastrinoma
glucagonoma
mechanism of glucocorticoids?
inhibit phospholipase A2 and COX-2,
decreasing production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins
flutamide is used to treat
finasteride is used to treat
prostatic carcinoma
BPH
side effect: pulmonary edema
contraindicated in CHF
mannitol
what diuretic increases Ca excretion?
furosemide
what are the loop diuretics?
furosemide
bumetanide
ethacrynic acid
diuretics with sulfa allergy?
acetazolamide
furosemide
thiazide
what drug decreases diluting capacity of nephron?
abolishes concentrating ability?
thiazide
furosemide
what are the thiazide diuretics?
thiazide
indapamide
metolazone
what part of the nephron does spironolactone act on?
cortical collecting duct
what is indicated for diabetic renal disease?
ACE-I
what's the steroid for chronic asthma therapy?
beclomethasone
what are the 1st generation H1 blockers?
diphenhydramine
dimenhyrdinate
chlorpheniramine
GnRH analog?
leuprolide
what is mifepristone (RU-486)?
competitive inhibitor of progestins
abortifacient
oral contraceptives decrease the risk for what cancer?
endometrial and ovarian cancer
partial estrogen agonist at pituitary gland?
clomiphene