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130 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Known andrenergic receptors:
Alpha
Beta 1
Beta 2
An adverse effect of ____ adrenergic drugs might be ____ ________
alpha, male impotence
General indications for use of a muscle relaxant include:
abdominal or orthopedic surgery, muscle contracture disorders, overexurtion
An _____ acting cholinergic is an enzyme inhibitor inhibiting the action of ________________.
indirect, acetylcholinesterase
Detrol ____ to treat urinary retention.
is not
The primary adverse effect of indirect acting cholinergic drugs is:
respiratory paralysis
Beta adrenergic drugs are ______ to treat shock and hypertension.
not used
True or False: mydriasis could be induced by using either anticholinergic or sympathomimetic eye drops.
False
A drug used for hypertension that limits the amount of norepi store or made by an andrenergic neuron is called an:
adrenergic neuronal blocker
Two classes of patients for which a beta adrenergic blocking drug are contraindicated would include:
asthmatics and diabetics
An anticholinergic drug would be indicated to treat:
enuresis, hypotension, irritable bowel
Irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat:
myasthenia gravis, urinary retention, glaucoma
an anticholinergic drug would produce:
urinary retention, mydriasis, and bronchodilation
Irreeversable acetylcholinesterase inhibitors _____ derivatives of organophosphate used in insecticides and pesticides.
are
Direct acting muscle relaxants are used to treat:
cerebral palsy, MS, spinal cord injury
To stop uterine contractions, ______ adrenergic drug could be used.
beta 2
Direct acting cholinergic drugs work by this action:
agonist
Neurotransmitters in the sympathetic nervous system include:
norepi, epi, acetylcholine
Stimulation of andrenergic receptors might produce which responses?
increased heart rate, glycolysis, bronchodilator
Neurotransmitters in the parasympathetic nervous system include:
acetylcholine
Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia include:
hyperthermia, shock, electrolyte changes
Z______, A_____, and T______ are indicated in the treatment of absence seizures.
Zarontin, Ativan, and Tridone
A _______ cough is not a sign of an adverse reaction to an MAOI.
non-productive
A______ prevents the metabolism of acetaldehyde to acetyl CoA in the liver.
Antabuse
Anticholinergic drugs work in early stages of Parkinson's disease by _______ Ach in the brain.
Decreasing
A primary adverse effect of Tegrotal is:
bone marrow suppresion
Benzodiazapines work with ____ to increase chloride flow into the brain and drop the _____ of brain neurons.
GABA, RMP
Buspar treats anxiety by _______ levels of serotonin in the brain.
decreasing
Drugs used in the treatment of Status Epilepticus include:K_____, A_____, and V_____.
Klonopin, Ativan, Valium
Foods contraindicated for patients on an MAOI antidepressant include:
Wine, beer, cheese, herring
N_____ is an accumulation of anxiety and tension leading to emotional changes and abnormal behavior.
Neurosis
Major sites of action of the Benzodiazapines on the CNS include:
spinal cord, cerebral cortex, reticular formation, limbic center
Muscle spasms, twitching, facial grimacing, and torticollis are adverse effects of phenothiazines collectively known as:
Dystonic reactions
Parkinson's disease appears to be due to a deficiency of:
dopamine
Psychosis appears to be due in part to excessive activity of the neurotransmitter:
dopamine
Rest and restoration of the body occur during:
NREM 3-4
Secondary amine TCA antidepressants increase the level of:
Norepi
Symptoms such as muscle contraction alternating with muscle relaxation are signs of what type of epilepsy?
Grand Mal
Tertiary amine TCA increase the level of:
serotonin
The antimanic drug _____ is an extremely toxic antidepressant competing with potassium in the body and interfeing with nerve conduction.
Lithium
____ antidepressants raises only the level of serotonin in the brain.
SSRI
Most antiepileptic drugs are classed as Class _ and _ drugs during pregnancy.
C, D
Narcotic analgesics are indicated for:
moderate to severe visceral pain
Sharp pain is perceived by _____ receptors.
delta
Dysphoria and miosis is produced by interaction with
mu and kappa receptors
an antitussive drug will
stop a cough
a pure opiod analgesic drug will interact with
mu receptors
Toxic doses of salicylate depress the medulla producing the following physiological changes: C___, A____, R___
Coma, acidosis, respiratory suppression.
Gout is due to an inability to metabolize p_____
purines
____ causes uterine contractions
PGF2
Smooth muscle tissue response to opiod analgesics include:
slowing of peristalsis, decrease of ureter contraction, and bronchial contraction.
P______ is s drug used in the treatment of gout that works by increasing the excretion of uric acid crystals by the kidney
Probenecid
Tinnitus is an indication of the overuse of
Aspirin and to a lesser degree ibuprofen
Kappa opioid receptors in the brain interact with this peptide:
Dynorphin
H_____, N_____, A____are examples of neuropathic pain.
Herpes zoster, nerve entrapment, and amputation
The primary chemical mediator responsible for the signs/symptoms of inflammation is:
prostaglandin
Acetaminophen appears to inhibit COX __ in the brain to releive pain.
3
COX __ inhibitor durgs treat inflammation without causing gastric irritation.
2
True or False: Partial opiod agonist drugs bind to delta receptors alone to produce analgesia.
False
True or False: Long term use of opiod analgesics may lead to tolerance and accidental respiratory failure.
True
Pain present during the inflammation response is called:
Dolar
True or False: a pure opiod antagonist will compete with an opiod drug already in the body without producing additional opiod responses such as respiratory depression.
True
The vital sign that should be assessed prior to the administration of a glycoside medication is:
heart rate
a vasodilator drug is beneficial in the treatment of CHF because they produce dilation of the walls of:
the peripheral arteries
_______ antagonizes the actions of glycoside medications.
hyperkalemia
beta blocker or Ca+ channel blockers and nitrates are indicated in the treatment of _____ angina pectoris
exertional
Adverse effects from heparin therapy include:
bruising, lipolysis, hemorrhage
P____, A____, and A____ are supraventricular arrhythmias
PAC, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter
signs and symptoms of cinchonism include:
tinnitus, hallucinations, and headache
Nitroglycerin can be administered in which three ways?
sublingual, topical, IV
Acceptable range for a Protime test for a patient on Coumadin would be:
2-4 INR
Indications for the use of an anticoagulant would include:
DVT, CAD, PE
Nitroglycerine loses its potency when exposed to:
light and air
Quinidine is beneficail for the treatment of
malaria, atrial arrhythmias, and ventrical arrhythmias
Lidocaine, Bretylol, and Mexitil are all polarity drugs for _______
ventricular arrhythmias
What is the specific antidote for heparin toxicity?
protamine sulfate
Adenocard is only indicated for use in ___________ emergencies.
acute cardiac
heparin is _____ in the GI tract and must be ______.
destroyed, injected subQ
Propanolol aids in the treatment of angina by ____ heart rate and _____ peripheral arterial walls.
decreasing, dilating
Pathological indications for the use of diuretics include:
pulmonary edema, hypertension, renal insufficiency,
LDL is composed of
more fat than protein
a refractory drug is one that
stops working when the body pH decreases
C___, O____, T____ diuretics produce hypokalemia
CAI's, organic acids, thiazides
orange juice, tomato juice, and grapefruit juice are high in
potassium
Heart rate, blood volume, and resistance control
blood pressure
severe muscle ache or pain is a sign of complication for
statin drugs
A major adverse effect associated with ACEI
cough
an adverse effect of potassium sparring is
gynecomastia
renin is produced by the
kidney
C____, O_____, T____ cause hypokalemia
CAI's, organic acids, thiazides
a non-productive cough is an adverse effect caused by
ACEI
diuretics are used to treat
CHF, renal insufficiency, cerebral edema
hypolipidemics, especially statins, are contraindicated during
pregnancy
The extreme vasodilation caused by Niacin may be minimized if
taken with a baby aspirin
Thiazide and loop diuretics produce hyperglycemia due to
fluid loss
Normal total cholesterol levels should be less than ____ in patients less than 45 years old
175
Angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin in the
lungs
Mannitol should not be mixed with whole blood products due to
agglutination
Statin drugs should never be taken with
grapefruit juice
aldosterone is released in response the relese of ______ in the lung
angiotensin
Mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium used as an antiallergic drug
prevents the release of histamine from the mast cells
Stimulation of H1 receptors produce:
vasodilation, bronchioconstriction, tachycardia
Which drug categories commonly interact with antihistamines?
CNS depressants, antifungal drugs, macrolide antibiotics
symptoms of a gastric ulcer include:
epigastric pain, anemia, loss of apetite
Antihistamines should not be taken with:
alcohol, erythromycin, antifungals
What is the role of ECF-A in the process and symptoms of asthma?
attract eosinophils and WBC to the site of trauma
adverse effects of antihistamine therapy include:
dry mouth, sedation, and anorexia
Causes of GERD
obesity, pregnancy, increased abdominal pressure
bronchodilation is produced by
cyclic AMP
SRS-A is formed from
leukotrienes
What drug is used for ulcer and GERD treatment is also an abortifacient?
cytotec
antiemetic drugs
marinol, phenergran, compazine, emetrol
symptoms of asthma
bronchoconstriction, increased mucous production, decreased ciliary action
Cromolyn must be taken _____ allergy symptoms appear
before
Tagomet has lots of drug interactions because
of its plasma binding properties
how does progesterone prevent pregnancy?
by altering cervical mucosa making it hostile to the ova and prevents implantation of a fertilzed ova
estrogen replacement therapy is recomended for
treatment of osteoporosis, protect the heart from an MI, treatment of dysmenorrhea
tachycardia, weight loss, increased body temp and glucose are symptoms of
hyperthyroidism
adverse effects of long term androgen use
sustained erection, decreased sperm count, addiction syndrome, increased breast tissue
glucophage ______ liver glucose production
decreases
function of calcitonin
lower blood calcium level and increase bone mass
acceptable treatment for Grave's disease
radioactive iodide, thyroid excision, anti-thyroid medications
form of bolus insulin that works in 30 minutes
humalog
adverse effects of corticosteroids
edema, CHF, sodium retention
diabetes insipidus is caused by
deficiency of ADH production
Type 1 diabetes is often caused by a ______ that initiates an _______ response on the pancreas
virus, autoimmune
oral birth control medications prevent pregnancy by
preventing implantation of a fertilized ova
most common cause of thyroid cancer is
radiation to the gland
Biphosphanates increase bone mass by
stopping the activity of osteoclasts
oral sulfonylurea encourages
insulin release from the pancreas