Pharmacology

Front 1

Known andrenergic receptors:

Back 1

Alpha
Beta 1
Beta 2

Front 2

An adverse effect of ____ adrenergic drugs might be ____ ________

Back 2

alpha, male impotence

Front 3

General indications for use of a muscle relaxant include:

Back 3

abdominal or orthopedic surgery, muscle contracture disorders, overexurtion

Front 4

An _____ acting cholinergic is an enzyme inhibitor inhibiting the action of ________________.

Back 4

indirect, acetylcholinesterase

Front 5

Detrol ____ to treat urinary retention.

Back 5

is not

Front 6

The primary adverse effect of indirect acting cholinergic drugs is:

Back 6

respiratory paralysis

Front 7

Beta adrenergic drugs are ______ to treat shock and hypertension.

Back 7

not used

Front 8

True or False: mydriasis could be induced by using either anticholinergic or sympathomimetic eye drops.

Back 8

False

Front 9

A drug used for hypertension that limits the amount of norepi store or made by an andrenergic neuron is called an:

Back 9

adrenergic neuronal blocker

Front 10

Two classes of patients for which a beta adrenergic blocking drug are contraindicated would include:

Back 10

asthmatics and diabetics

Front 11

An anticholinergic drug would be indicated to treat:

Back 11

enuresis, hypotension, irritable bowel

Front 12

Irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat:

Back 12

myasthenia gravis, urinary retention, glaucoma

Front 13

an anticholinergic drug would produce:

Back 13

urinary retention, mydriasis, and bronchodilation

Front 14

Irreeversable acetylcholinesterase inhibitors _____ derivatives of organophosphate used in insecticides and pesticides.

Back 14

are

Front 15

Direct acting muscle relaxants are used to treat:

Back 15

cerebral palsy, MS, spinal cord injury

Front 16

To stop uterine contractions, ______ adrenergic drug could be used.

Back 16

beta 2

Front 17

Direct acting cholinergic drugs work by this action:

Back 17

agonist

Front 18

Neurotransmitters in the sympathetic nervous system include:

Back 18

norepi, epi, acetylcholine

Front 19

Stimulation of andrenergic receptors might produce which responses?

Back 19

increased heart rate, glycolysis, bronchodilator

Front 20

Neurotransmitters in the parasympathetic nervous system include:

Back 20

acetylcholine

Front 21

Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia include:

Back 21

hyperthermia, shock, electrolyte changes

Front 22

Z______, A_____, and T______ are indicated in the treatment of absence seizures.

Back 22

Zarontin, Ativan, and Tridone

Front 23

A _______ cough is not a sign of an adverse reaction to an MAOI.

Back 23

non-productive

Front 24

A______ prevents the metabolism of acetaldehyde to acetyl CoA in the liver.

Back 24

Antabuse

Front 25

Anticholinergic drugs work in early stages of Parkinson's disease by _______ Ach in the brain.

Back 25

Decreasing

Front 26

A primary adverse effect of Tegrotal is:

Back 26

bone marrow suppresion

Front 27

Benzodiazapines work with ____ to increase chloride flow into the brain and drop the _____ of brain neurons.

Back 27

GABA, RMP

Front 28

Buspar treats anxiety by _______ levels of serotonin in the brain.

Back 28

decreasing

Front 29

Drugs used in the treatment of Status Epilepticus include:K_____, A_____, and V_____.

Back 29

Klonopin, Ativan, Valium

Front 30

Foods contraindicated for patients on an MAOI antidepressant include:

Back 30

Wine, beer, cheese, herring

Front 31

N_____ is an accumulation of anxiety and tension leading to emotional changes and abnormal behavior.

Back 31

Neurosis

Front 32

Major sites of action of the Benzodiazapines on the CNS include:

Back 32

spinal cord, cerebral cortex, reticular formation, limbic center

Front 33

Muscle spasms, twitching, facial grimacing, and torticollis are adverse effects of phenothiazines collectively known as:

Back 33

Dystonic reactions

Front 34

Parkinson's disease appears to be due to a deficiency of:

Back 34

dopamine

Front 35

Psychosis appears to be due in part to excessive activity of the neurotransmitter:

Back 35

dopamine

Front 36

Rest and restoration of the body occur during:

Back 36

NREM 3-4

Front 37

Secondary amine TCA antidepressants increase the level of:

Back 37

Norepi

Front 38

Symptoms such as muscle contraction alternating with muscle relaxation are signs of what type of epilepsy?

Back 38

Grand Mal

Front 39

Tertiary amine TCA increase the level of:

Back 39

serotonin

Front 40

The antimanic drug _____ is an extremely toxic antidepressant competing with potassium in the body and interfeing with nerve conduction.

Back 40

Lithium

Front 41

____ antidepressants raises only the level of serotonin in the brain.

Back 41

SSRI

Front 42

Most antiepileptic drugs are classed as Class _ and _ drugs during pregnancy.

Back 42

C, D

Front 43

Narcotic analgesics are indicated for:

Back 43

moderate to severe visceral pain

Front 44

Sharp pain is perceived by _____ receptors.

Back 44

delta

Front 45

Dysphoria and miosis is produced by interaction with

Back 45

mu and kappa receptors

Front 46

an antitussive drug will

Back 46

stop a cough

Front 47

a pure opiod analgesic drug will interact with

Back 47

mu receptors

Front 48

Toxic doses of salicylate depress the medulla producing the following physiological changes: C___, A____, R___

Back 48

Coma, acidosis, respiratory suppression.

Front 49

Gout is due to an inability to metabolize p_____

Back 49

purines

Front 50

____ causes uterine contractions

Back 50

PGF2

Front 51

Smooth muscle tissue response to opiod analgesics include:

Back 51

slowing of peristalsis, decrease of ureter contraction, and bronchial contraction.

Front 52

P______ is s drug used in the treatment of gout that works by increasing the excretion of uric acid crystals by the kidney

Back 52

Probenecid

Front 53

Tinnitus is an indication of the overuse of

Back 53

Aspirin and to a lesser degree ibuprofen

Front 54

Kappa opioid receptors in the brain interact with this peptide:

Back 54

Dynorphin

Front 55

H_____, N_____, A____are examples of neuropathic pain.

Back 55

Herpes zoster, nerve entrapment, and amputation

Front 56

The primary chemical mediator responsible for the signs/symptoms of inflammation is:

Back 56

prostaglandin

Front 57

Acetaminophen appears to inhibit COX __ in the brain to releive pain.

Back 57

3

Front 58

COX __ inhibitor durgs treat inflammation without causing gastric irritation.

Back 58

2

Front 59

True or False: Partial opiod agonist drugs bind to delta receptors alone to produce analgesia.

Back 59

False

Front 60

True or False: Long term use of opiod analgesics may lead to tolerance and accidental respiratory failure.

Back 60

True

Front 61

Pain present during the inflammation response is called:

Back 61

Dolar

Front 62

True or False: a pure opiod antagonist will compete with an opiod drug already in the body without producing additional opiod responses such as respiratory depression.

Back 62

True

Front 63

The vital sign that should be assessed prior to the administration of a glycoside medication is:

Back 63

heart rate

Front 64

a vasodilator drug is beneficial in the treatment of CHF because they produce dilation of the walls of:

Back 64

the peripheral arteries

Front 65

_______ antagonizes the actions of glycoside medications.

Back 65

hyperkalemia

Front 66

beta blocker or Ca+ channel blockers and nitrates are indicated in the treatment of _____ angina pectoris

Back 66

exertional

Front 67

Adverse effects from heparin therapy include:

Back 67

bruising, lipolysis, hemorrhage

Front 68

P____, A____, and A____ are supraventricular arrhythmias

Back 68

PAC, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter

Front 69

signs and symptoms of cinchonism include:

Back 69

tinnitus, hallucinations, and headache

Front 70

Nitroglycerin can be administered in which three ways?

Back 70

sublingual, topical, IV

Front 71

Acceptable range for a Protime test for a patient on Coumadin would be:

Back 71

2-4 INR

Front 72

Indications for the use of an anticoagulant would include:

Back 72

DVT, CAD, PE

Front 73

Nitroglycerine loses its potency when exposed to:

Back 73

light and air

Front 74

Quinidine is beneficail for the treatment of

Back 74

malaria, atrial arrhythmias, and ventrical arrhythmias

Front 75

Lidocaine, Bretylol, and Mexitil are all polarity drugs for _______

Back 75

ventricular arrhythmias

Front 76

What is the specific antidote for heparin toxicity?

Back 76

protamine sulfate

Front 77

Adenocard is only indicated for use in ___________ emergencies.

Back 77

acute cardiac

Front 78

heparin is _____ in the GI tract and must be ______.

Back 78

destroyed, injected subQ

Front 79

Propanolol aids in the treatment of angina by ____ heart rate and _____ peripheral arterial walls.

Back 79

decreasing, dilating

Front 80

Pathological indications for the use of diuretics include:

Back 80

pulmonary edema, hypertension, renal insufficiency,

Front 81

LDL is composed of

Back 81

more fat than protein

Front 82

a refractory drug is one that

Back 82

stops working when the body pH decreases

Front 83

C___, O____, T____ diuretics produce hypokalemia

Back 83

CAI's, organic acids, thiazides

Front 84

orange juice, tomato juice, and grapefruit juice are high in

Back 84

potassium

Front 85

Heart rate, blood volume, and resistance control

Back 85

blood pressure

Front 86

severe muscle ache or pain is a sign of complication for

Back 86

statin drugs

Front 87

A major adverse effect associated with ACEI

Back 87

cough

Front 88

an adverse effect of potassium sparring is

Back 88

gynecomastia

Front 89

renin is produced by the

Back 89

kidney

Front 90

C____, O_____, T____ cause hypokalemia

Back 90

CAI's, organic acids, thiazides

Front 91

a non-productive cough is an adverse effect caused by

Back 91

ACEI

Front 92

diuretics are used to treat

Back 92

CHF, renal insufficiency, cerebral edema

Front 93

hypolipidemics, especially statins, are contraindicated during

Back 93

pregnancy

Front 94

The extreme vasodilation caused by Niacin may be minimized if

Back 94

taken with a baby aspirin

Front 95

Thiazide and loop diuretics produce hyperglycemia due to

Back 95

fluid loss

Front 96

Normal total cholesterol levels should be less than ____ in patients less than 45 years old

Back 96

175

Front 97

Angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin in the

Back 97

lungs

Front 98

Mannitol should not be mixed with whole blood products due to

Back 98

agglutination

Front 99

Statin drugs should never be taken with

Back 99

grapefruit juice

Front 100

aldosterone is released in response the relese of ______ in the lung

Back 100

angiotensin

Front 101

Mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium used as an antiallergic drug

Back 101

prevents the release of histamine from the mast cells

Front 102

Stimulation of H1 receptors produce:

Back 102

vasodilation, bronchioconstriction, tachycardia

Front 103

Which drug categories commonly interact with antihistamines?

Back 103

CNS depressants, antifungal drugs, macrolide antibiotics

Front 104

symptoms of a gastric ulcer include:

Back 104

epigastric pain, anemia, loss of apetite

Front 105

Antihistamines should not be taken with:

Back 105

alcohol, erythromycin, antifungals

Front 106

What is the role of ECF-A in the process and symptoms of asthma?

Back 106

attract eosinophils and WBC to the site of trauma

Front 107

adverse effects of antihistamine therapy include:

Back 107

dry mouth, sedation, and anorexia

Front 108

Causes of GERD

Back 108

obesity, pregnancy, increased abdominal pressure

Front 109

bronchodilation is produced by

Back 109

cyclic AMP

Front 110

SRS-A is formed from

Back 110

leukotrienes

Front 111

What drug is used for ulcer and GERD treatment is also an abortifacient?

Back 111

cytotec

Front 112

antiemetic drugs

Back 112

marinol, phenergran, compazine, emetrol

Front 113

symptoms of asthma

Back 113

bronchoconstriction, increased mucous production, decreased ciliary action

Front 114

Cromolyn must be taken _____ allergy symptoms appear

Back 114

before

Front 115

Tagomet has lots of drug interactions because

Back 115

of its plasma binding properties

Front 116

how does progesterone prevent pregnancy?

Back 116

by altering cervical mucosa making it hostile to the ova and prevents implantation of a fertilzed ova

Front 117

estrogen replacement therapy is recomended for

Back 117

treatment of osteoporosis, protect the heart from an MI, treatment of dysmenorrhea

Front 118

tachycardia, weight loss, increased body temp and glucose are symptoms of

Back 118

hyperthyroidism

Front 119

adverse effects of long term androgen use

Back 119

sustained erection, decreased sperm count, addiction syndrome, increased breast tissue

Front 120

glucophage ______ liver glucose production

Back 120

decreases

Front 121

function of calcitonin

Back 121

lower blood calcium level and increase bone mass

Front 122

acceptable treatment for Grave's disease

Back 122

radioactive iodide, thyroid excision, anti-thyroid medications

Front 123

form of bolus insulin that works in 30 minutes

Back 123

humalog

Front 124

adverse effects of corticosteroids

Back 124

edema, CHF, sodium retention

Front 125

diabetes insipidus is caused by

Back 125

deficiency of ADH production

Front 126

Type 1 diabetes is often caused by a ______ that initiates an _______ response on the pancreas

Back 126

virus, autoimmune

Front 127

oral birth control medications prevent pregnancy by

Back 127

preventing implantation of a fertilized ova

Front 128

most common cause of thyroid cancer is

Back 128

radiation to the gland

Front 129

Biphosphanates increase bone mass by

Back 129

stopping the activity of osteoclasts

Front 130

oral sulfonylurea encourages

Back 130

insulin release from the pancreas