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107 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Which of the following best describes therapeutic index?
a. The does which effects 50% of the target population b. The ratio of LD50/ED50 c. Range of common dosage d. Rate determined by characteristics of the drug |
b. The ratio of LD50/ED50
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2. The parasympathetic nervous system causes all of the following except:
a. Increased heart rate b. Increased function of the GI tract c. Bronchoconstriction d. Pupil constriction |
a. Increased heart rate
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3. True or False: The safe a drug is, the wider its therapeutic index.
a. True b. False |
a. True
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4. An increase in gastrointestinal motility is likely a result of:
a. Sympathetic stimulation b. Parasympathetic stimulation c. Anti-cholinergic activity d. A “fight or flight” response |
b. Parasympathetic stimulation
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5. Rapidly decreasing response to a drug is called:
a. Addiction b. Compulsion c. Tachyphylaxis d. Anaphylaxis |
c. Tachyphylaxis
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6. Which of the following events which take place during the pharmacolkinetic phase of drug administration.
I. Absorption II. Distribution III. Metabolism IV. Elimination a. I, II b. I, II, III c. II, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV |
d. I, II, III, IV
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7. A name assigned by a manufacturer to an experimental chemical that shows potential as a drug is known as:
a. The chemical name b. The code name c. The generic name d. The brand or trade name |
b. The code name
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8. Two drugs with opposing effects are called:
a. Additive drugs b. Antagonistic drugs c. Synergistic drugs d. Generic drugs |
b. Antagonistic drugs
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9. The maximum depth that suspended particles can be carried into the pulmonary tree by inhaled tidal gas is referred to as:
a. Deposition b. Stability c. Rain-out d. Inertial impaction e. Penetration |
e. Penetration
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10. Functions of the autonomic nervous system include:
I. Control of the involuntary action of smooth muscle II. Control of striated skeletal muscle III. The “fight or flight” response IV. Control of glandular activity |
e. I, III, IV
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11. The recommended filling volume for typical small volume nebulizers (SVNs) is:
a. 1 to 2 mL b. 3 to 5 mL c. 6 to 8 mL d. 8 to 10 mL |
b. 3 to 5 mL
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12. Which of the following is/ are true regarding the aerosol route of drug administration?
I. Only IV administration achieves a faster blood level of a drug than the aerosol route. II. Drugs administered via the pulmonary tree may act systemically. III. Medication delivered via aerosol must be given with 100% O2. IV. Only sympathomimetics can be delivered via the aerosol route. a. I, II b. III, IV c. I, III, IV d. I, II, III e. II, III, IV |
a. I, II
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13. Which of the following devices can produce particles within a therapeutic range for aerosol delivery into the lungs?
I. Jet nebulizer II. Dry Powder Inhaler (DPI) III. Meter Dose Inhaler (MDI) IV. Ultrasonic nebulizer a. I, II b. II, III c. I, II, III d. I, II, III, IV |
d. I, II, III, IV
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14. Medical aerosols are believed to have maximum deposition in the small, lower airways when the particle size is:
a. Less than 0.25 microns b. 10-15 microns c. 2-5 microns d. More than 5 microns |
c. 2-5 microns
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15. The rationale that initially prompted the development of reservoir devices for use with MDIs was:
a. To decrease oral impaction b. To decrease systemic effect c. To increase lung deposition d. To eliminate the need for coordination between activation and inhalation |
d. To eliminate the need for coordination between activation and inhalation
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16. What anatomical parts are affected by the Autonomic Nervous System?
I. Arteries II. Heart III. Respiratory Smooth Muscle IV. GI tract V. Skeletal Muscle a. I, II, III b. I, II, IV c. I, II, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV, V |
c. I, II, III, IV
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17. Which of the following is generally NOT true of MDIs:
a. They are quick and effective b. They are portable c. They are a convenient way to deliver aerosolized medications d. Patients tend to use proper technique with them |
d. Patients tend to use proper technique with them
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18. The phase that describes the mechanisms of drug action by which a drug molecule causes its effects in the body is known as:
a. The phamacogenetic phase b. The pharmacokinetic phase c. The barnacophenetic phase d. The pharmacodynamic phase |
d. The pharmacodynamic phase
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19. Which of the following is true concerning pneumatically (air) powered hand held nebulizers?
I. Typically incorporate the use of a jet to produce aerosol II. Therapist must adjust flow and solution amount for optimal delivery III. Commonly used in hospitals IV. Not as effective as MDIs a. I, II b. I, II, IV c. I, II, III d. I, II, III, IV |
c. I, II, III
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20. The structural arrangement of the sympathetic nervous system includes all of the following except:
a. The sympathetic ganglia are located close to the spinal cord b. In the sympathetic nervous system the preganglionic fibers are short and the postganglionic fibers are long c. All of the sympathetic synapses use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter d. The sympathetic nerve fibers that go to the adrenal medulla have only one synapse |
c. All of the sympathetic synapses use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter
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21. If you are administering 0.4 mL of racemic epinephrine with comes in a 2.25% solution, how many mg of the drug are you giving?
a. 4.5 mg b. 9 mg c. 11.25 mg d. 22.5 mg |
b. 9 mg
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22. 3 mL of 10% Mucomyst contains how many mg of the drug?
a. 3 mg b. 10 mg c. 15 mg d. 300 mg |
d. 300 mg
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23. Albuterol comes as a .5% solution. How many mL’s are needed of Albuterol for a 2 mg dose?
a. 0.2 mL b. 0.4 mL c. 0.8 mL d. 1.0 mL |
b. 0.4 mL
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24. The recommended dose for racemic epinephrine for infants and small children (under 4 years old) is 0.05 mL/kg up to a maximum of 0.5 mL. If you patient weighs 6 kg, how many mL would you give?
a. 0.15 mL b. 0.2 mL c. 0.3 mL d. 0.45 mL |
c. 0.3 mL
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25. Cromolyn Sodium, a maintenance drug that some asthmatics use, comes in pre-measured vials that have 20 mg of the drug in a total of 2 mL of solution. What percent strength is this?
a. 1% b. 2% c. 10% d. 20% e. 200% |
a. 1%
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26. When the response of two drugs given together is greater than the sum of their individual effects, this is called:
a. Synergism b. Antagonism c. Potentiation d. Cumulation |
a. Synergism
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27. Which of the following is not a usual element of medication prescriptions?
a. Instructions b. Prescriber c. Subscription d. Tolerance e. Patient Information |
d. Tolerance
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28. The recognized official nation drug standard is:
a. United States Phamacopoeia-National Formulary (USP-NF) b. Hospital Formulary c. Physicians Desk Reference (PDR) d. epocrates |
a. United States Phamacopoeia-National Formulary (USP-NF)
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29. Parasympathetic stimulation will result in which of the following?
a. Decreased heart rate b. Decreased respiratory rate c. Constricted peripheral vessels d. Dilated bronchial passages |
a. Decreased heart rate
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30. True or False: If a patient used incorrect inspiratory flow technique with a DPI (Dry Powder Inhaler) the flow tends to be too slow.
a. True b. False |
a. True
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31. Tobi is the brand name for an inhaled (nebulized) antibiotic (generic name Tobramycin) that is often given to patients with cystic fibrosis. It comes in a pre measured vile that contains 5 mL of a 6% solution. If you give a treatment by nebulizing one vial, how much tobramycin are you administering?
a. 60 mg b. 30 mg c. 300 mg d. 12 mg |
c. 300 mg
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32. A cholinergic drug
a. Mimics stimulation of the autonomic nervous system b. Inhibits or blocks the sympathetic nervous system c. Mimics stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system d. Inhibits or blocks the somatic nervous system |
c. Mimics stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
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33. True or False: If a patient used incorrect inspiratory flow technique with an MDI (Metered Dose Inhaler) the flows tend to be too slow.
a. True b. False |
b. False
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34. How many milligrams of drug are there in 20 cc of 1:1000 epinephrine?
a. 2 mg b. 10 mg c. 20 mg d. 200 mg |
c. 20 mg
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35. Which of the following bronchodilators would be considered to be ultra-short or short acting?
I. Isuprel II. Albuerol III. Serevent IV. Xopenex a. I, II b. III, IV c. I, IV d. II, III, IV e. I, II, IV |
e. I, II, IV
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36. The trade name for Levalbuterol is:
a. Xopenex b. Albuterol c. Serevent d. Epihnine |
a. Xopenex
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37. Epinephrine causes increased length of smooth muscle fibers (relaxation) by increasing the intracellular level of which of the following?
a. Cyclic AMP b. Phosphodiesterase c. Carbonic anhydrase d. Norepinephrine e. Acetylcholine |
a. Cyclic AMP
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38. Advair is prescribed for a patient you are taking care of. You are asked to explain to their family practitioner what kind of medications it is. You tell her:
a. It is a fast acting bronchodilator with a long acting bronchodilator b. It is a long acting beta agonist bronchodilator with a corticosteroid (anti-inflammatory agent) c. It is a long acting beta agonist bronchodilator with an anti-cholinergic bronchodilator d. It is a short acting beta agonist bronchodilator with an anti-cholinergic bronchodilator |
b. It is a long acting beta agonist bronchodilator with a corticosteroid (anti-inflammatory agent)
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39. Diurnal (circadian) rhythms are:
a. the hypothalamic response from pituitary stimulation b. the daily peak of norepinephrine levels in the blood c. the cyclic fluctuations of glucocorticoid levels in the body d. sympathetic control of the adrenal medulla |
c. the cyclic fluctuations of glucocorticoid levels in the body
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40. Heart rates should be monitored with all sympathomimetics because of:
a. the potential alpha response b. the potential beta2 response c. the potential beta1 response |
c. the potential beta1 response
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41. Some medications specifically target Beta1 receptors. What part of the body would be the intended site for the action of these drugs?
a. bronchi b. peripheral vasculature c. heart d. mucous membranes |
c. heart
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42. Which of the following is one theoretic mode of action of xanthine bronchodilators?
a. stimulation of adenyl cyclase to make cyclic-AMP via the beta adrenergic pathway b. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase’s ability to break down cyclic-AMP c. direct stimulation of adenyl cyclase to make cyclic-AMP (bypasses sympathetic mechanism) d. blocking of cholinergic stimulation of guanyl cyclase to make cyclic-GMP |
b. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase’s ability to break down cyclic-AMP
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43. You are caring for a patient with a history of moderate persistent asthma who is using an Albuterol MDI for resuce. She reports to you that it works really well for her, but that she has significant side effects including tachycardia, headaches and insomnia. A reasonable alternative for a rescue bronchodilator for her would be:
a. Serevent (Salmeterol) b. Xopenex c. Isoproterenol d. Tiotropium (Spiriva) e. Theophylline |
b. Xopenex
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44. Aerosolized Bronchodilators are indicated for the treatment of all of the following except:
a. asthma b. COPD c. bronchiectasis d. pulmonary edema |
d. pulmonary edema
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45. Which of the following medication is a mast cell stabilizing drug indicated as a preventative treatment for Asthma.
a. Mucomyst b. Cromolyn sodium c. Pulmozyme d. Pulmocort e. Ventolin |
b. Cromolyn sodium
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46. Along with a long-acting Beta2 Adrenergic drug, “persistent” asthmatics should also be using which of the following as part of their regular maintenance therapy?
a. An anti-cholinergic medication (Atrovent or Spiriva) b. An alpha-adrenergic medication (racemic epinephrine) c. An anti-inflammatory agent (inhaled corticosteroid, etc) d. A short-acting Beta2 agonist (Albuterol) |
c. An anti-inflammatory agent (inhaled corticosteroid, etc)
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47. Beta-adrenergic stimulants can cause which of the following responses?
I. decreased heart rate II. bronchodilation III. vasoconstriction IV. increased heart rate a. II b. I, III c. I, II d. II, IV |
d. II, IV
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48. You have a patient with a history of Asthma who complain of SOB and wheezing in the middle of the night while trying to sleep. He currently uses Azmacort for maintenance and Albuterol for rescue. Which of the following MDIs would you recommend he add to his current medications?
a. Serevent b. Atrovent c. Beclovent d. Relenza |
a. Serevent
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49. A patient with documented asthma complains that her Albuterol works well as a rescue drug but that she suffers from some side effects of the drug. Which of the following medications would you recommend she try?
a. Xopenex b. Terbutaline c. Alupent d. Epinephrine |
a. Xopenex
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50. Which of the following corticosteroids can be nebulized?
a. Flovent b. Beclomethasone c. Azmacort d. Pulmicort |
d. Pulmicort
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51. Which of the following medications is NOT a beta-adrenergic drug?
a. Salmeterol b. Terbutaline c. Albuterol d. Tiotropium |
d. Tiotropium
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52. Which of the following drugs often are used to control inflammation in chronic asthma?
I. beclomethasone (Beclovent) II. Spiriva III. Flovent IV. Vanceril a. I, III, IV b. I, II c. I, III, IV d. I, II, IV |
a. I, III, IV
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53. Which of the following could be a cause of an inflammatory response in the lungs? (This response is usually treated with prophylactic medications)
a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve b. Beta blockade c. Dereased levels of cyclic-GMP e. Mast cell degranulation |
e. Mast cell degranulation
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54. Which of the following is NOT a result of alpha-adrenergic stimulation?
a. peripheral vasoconstriction b. decreased upper airway inflammation c. bronchodilation d. decongestion |
c. bronchodilation
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55. You are managing a COPD patient who stats that his Albuterol MDI doesn’t seem to work all that well for him. You observe him using the MDI and his technique is good and he uses a spacer. Of the following choices, which would be a reasonable therapy to try?
a. Metaproterenol MDI b. Theophylline c. Combivent MDI (Ipratropium and Albuterol) d. Racemic Epinephrine |
c. Combivent MDI (Ipratropium and Albuterol)
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56. The altered structure of the catechol nucleus in resorcinols resulted in:
a. more alpha effects b. stronger beta1 effects c. longer duration d. a nonsusceptibility to cholinesterase |
c. longer duration
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57. Which of the following medications would be a first choice, beta adrenergic drug to treat a patient in status asthmaticus?
a. Theophylline b. Serevent c. Albuterol d. Atrovent |
c. Albuterol
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58. Which of the following classes of drug could be given in conjunction with inhaled steroids in order to decrease the does of the steroid?
a. xanthines b. beta-adrenergic bronchodilators c. anti-leukotrienes d. anti-cholinergic bronchodilators |
c. anti-leukotrienes
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59. Which of the following leukotriene inhibitors is the only one approved for use in children under the age of 12?
a. Accolate b. Singulair c. Zyflo d. None of the above |
b. Singulair
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60. The amount of Cromolyn Sodium in one unit does is equal to 1 mL of a 2% solution; therefore the amount of one dose of a drug in mgs is:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 20 |
d. 20
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61. You are caring for a patient who is receiving a parasympathomimetic medication. Which of the following responses would you NOT expect to be happening to him as a result of this medication?
a. increased bronchial secretions b. decreased heart rate c. bronchoconstriction d. bronchial smooth muscle relaxation |
d. bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
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62. After extubation, racemic epinephrine would be used in preference to Albuterol in order to:
a. lessen the possibility of the development of hyperinflation b. stimulate a potent beta2 response with a minimal beta1 effect c. reduce bronchospasm d. prevent the accumulation of secretions e. stimulate the apha-receptors for a topical anti-inflammatory effect |
e. stimulate the apha-receptors for a topical anti-inflammatory effect
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63. Which of the following drugs is not a leukotriene inhibitor?
a. Zafirlukast b. Montelukast c. Nedocromil d. Zileuton |
c. Nedocromil
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64. The advantages of administering corticosteroids by aerosol include:
a. prolonged duration b. rapid absorption at site of action with reduced side effects c. immediate relief of bronchospasm d. improved systemic absorption |
b. rapid absorption at site of action with reduced side effects
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65. You are caring for a COPD patient who is on Theophyllie. Her serum Theophylline level from the lab comes back 4 micrograms/mL. This level would be considered as:
a. sub-therapeutic b. within the normal therapeutic range c. somewhat above therapeutic range likely causing some side-effects d. very high, likely causing serious side-effects |
a. sub-therapeutic
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66. The desired effect(s) of steroids for asthma are:
I. Adrenal suppression II. The breakdown of lysosomal membrane III. Decreased histamine response IV. Blocking of cellular immunity a. I b. III c. I, IV d. II, III e. I, II, IV |
b. III
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67. Which of the following is a mode of action of Anticholinergic bronchodilators?
a. stimulation of adenyl cyclase to make cyclic-AMP via the beta adrenergic pathway b. inhibition of phosphodiesterase’s ability to break down cyclic-AMP c. direct stimulation of adenyl cyclase to make cyclic AMP (bypasses sympathetic mechanism) d. blocking of cholinergic stimulation of guanyl cyclase to make cyclic-GMP |
d. blocking of cholinergic stimulation of guanyl cyclase to make cyclic-GMP
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68. You are caring for a COPD patient who is on Theophylline. Her serum Theophylline level from the lab comes back 11 micrograms/mL. This level would be considered as:
a. sub-therapeutic b. with the normal therapeutic range c. somewhat above therapeutic range likely causing some side effects d. very high, likely causing serious side effects |
b. with the normal therapeutic range
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69. Advantages of the inhaled route of administration of bronchodilators (compared to the oral route) include:
I. rapid onset of action II. patient compliance III. reduced side effects IV. direct delivery to the intended target organ a. I, II b. II, III, IV c. I, II, IV d. I, II, III, IV |
d. I, II, III, IV
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71. The alpha-adrenergic medication respiratory therapists administer is:
a. racemic epinephrine b. Serevent c. Albuterol d. norepinephrine |
a. racemic epinephrine
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73. Which of the following is not a medication traditionally used to treat Mycobacterium infections (TB)?
a. Isoniazid b. Pyrazinamide c. Clindamycin d. Rafampin |
c. Clindamycin
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74. Which of the following medication is frequently given via the inhalation route (nebulized) to treat Pseudomonas sp. in CF?
a. Zanamivir (Relenza) b. Tobramycin c. Ribavirin d. Pentamidine |
b. Tobramycin
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75. The usual inhaled Tobramycin (TOBI) is:
a. 100 mg tid b. 300 mg bid c. 45 mg once a day d. 500 mg once per week |
b. 300 mg bid
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76. According to research statistics, which of the following components of a smoking cessation program is probably the most helpful?
a. nicotine replacement b. Zyban c. hypnosis d. no single factor seems superior |
b. Zyban
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77. The mode of action of most over-the-counter decongestants is:
a. Beta1 adrenergic stimulation b. Beta2 adrenergic stimulation c. Alpha adrenergic stimulation d. Anti-Cholinergic action |
c. Alpha adrenergic stimulation
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78. Etiology of the “common cold” is:
a. viral b. bacterial c. fungal d. protozoan |
a. viral
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79. The usual dosing for Dornase Alfa (Pulmozyme) is:
a. 1.25 mg bid b. 2.5 mg qd c. 10 mg other day d. 300 mg q month |
b. 2.5 mg qd
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80. In the conductive airways of the lungs, most mucus is produced by:
a. surface goblet cells b. columnar ciliated epithelial cells c. submucosal glands d. clara cells |
c. submucosal glands
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81. Normal production of mucus in the lungs is approximately:
a. 10 mL/day b. 100 mL/day c. 1000 mL/day d. 1 gallon/day |
b. 100 mL/day
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82. People at highest risk for getting pnuemocyctic pneumonia are:
a. toddler-aged children b. immunocompromised patients c. post-surgical patients d. any patient in the hospital |
b. immunocompromised patients
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83. The mode of action of Dornase Alfa (Pulmozyme) is:
a. breaking of disulfide bonds in the mucus b. hydration of secretions through active transport of ions c. breakdown of extra-cellular DNA d. increase in the velocity of the cilia |
c. breakdown of extra-cellular DNA
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84. Pentamidine is what type of anti-infective agent?
a. antibiotic b. antifungal c. antiviral d. antiprotozoal |
d. antiprotozoal
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85. Under which of the following conditions are antitussives indicated?
a. copious bronchial secretions b. patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) c. patients with dry, hacking, irritating non-productive coughs d. all patients with typical upper respiratory infections |
c. patients with dry, hacking, irritating non-productive coughs
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86. True or False: Over-the-counter expectorants (Guaifenesin for example) have questionable efficacy in the treatment of the common cold.
a. True b. False |
a. True
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87. Which of the following are used as routes of administration for nicotine replacement therapy?
I. gum (oral) II. lozenge (oral) III. transdermal IV. nasal (spray) V. intramuscular (IM) injection a. I, III, IV b. I, III c. I, II, IV, V d. I, II, III, IV |
d. I, II, III, IV
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88. Which type of delivery device is used to nebulize Ribavirin?
a. Pari neb b. small particle aerosol generator (SPAG) c. regular small volume neb d. respigard II |
b. small particle aerosol generator (SPAG)
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89. Pentamidine, when given as a preventative treatment, is typically given how often?
a. Once a month b. QID c. Once a week d. PRN only |
a. Once a month
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90. Zanamivir (Relenza) is given via which device?
a. DPI (Dry Powder Inhaler) b. MDI (Metered Dose Inhaler) c. regular small volume nebulizer d. heart neb |
a. DPI (Dry Powder Inhaler)
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91. Which of the following medication might be given via the inhalation route to treat uncomplicated influenza illness?
a. Zanamivir (Relenza) b. Tobramycin c. Ribavirin d. Pentamidine |
a. Zanamivir (Relenza)
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92. True or False: Studies of the efficacy of Ribavirin have given conflicting, and in some cases, inconclusive results.
a. True b. False |
a. True
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93. Which of the following statements pertaining to the use of Zyban is false?
a. It is a non-nicotine smoking cessation aid b. It is only indicated in smokers with signs of clinical depression c. It acts as a dopamine reuptake inhibitor d. It works best when used as part of a smoking cessation program |
b. It is only indicated in smokers with signs of clinical depression
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94. Mucomyst is known to cause bronchospasm in some patients. To counteract this effect, it is desirable to administer simultaneously a(n):
a. Antihistamine b. Antibiotic c. Bronchodilator d. Steroid e. Chemical mucolytic |
c. Bronchodilator
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95. Zanamivir (Relenza) has what mode of action?
a. Interferes with the replication of the virus b. virocidal c. causes the newly replicated viruses to clump to each other and the host cell d. inhibits the transcription of the viruses’ DNA/RNA |
c. causes the newly replicated viruses to clump to each other and the host cell
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96. Which of the following medication might be given via the inhalation route (nebulized) to treate respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
a. Zanamivir (Relenza) b. Tobramycin c. Ribavirin d. Pentamidine |
c. Ribavirin
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97. Ideal particle size for Pentamidine is”
a. 10-20 microns b. 8-10 microns c. 3-5 microns d. 1-2 microns |
d. 1-2 microns
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98. Exogenous surfactant is made up primarily of:
a. proteins b. phospholipids c. oligosaccharides d. polypeptides |
b. phospholipids
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99. Which neurological pathways are affected by nicotine?
a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. CNS (Central Nervous System) d. neuromuscular e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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100. You are caring for a patient with documented active TB. She asks you how long she has to continue the antibiotic treatment for her problem. You would tell her:
a. 10 days b. 3-5 months c. 6-12 months d. 2 years |
c. 6-12 months
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101. If you gave a patient 4 mL of a 20% solution of Mucomyst, you would have given how many mg of the drug?
a. 800 mg b. 80 mg c. 40 mg d. 10 mg |
a. 800 mg
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102. Classic penicillin antibiotics have what mode of action?
a. inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. inhibition of RNA translation c. inhibition of DNA synthesis d. inhibition of protein synthesis |
a. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
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103. The mode of action of Mucomyst (acetylcysteine) is:
a. breaking of disulfide bonds in the mucus b. hydration of secretions through active transport of ions c. breakdown of extra-cellular DNA d. increase in the velocity of the cilia |
a. breaking of disulfide bonds in the mucus
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104. Which of the following medications is given via the inhalation route (nebulized) primarily as a preventative treatment for Pnuemocystis pneumonia (PCP)?
a. Zanamivir (Relenza) b. Tobramycin c. Ribavirin d. Pentamidine |
d. Pentamidine
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105. In a program for smoking cessation, at which point should Zyban therapy be begun in order for it to be most effective?
a. a month before the targeted quit smoking date b. 5-7 days before the targeted quit smoking date c. on the target quit smoking date d. two weeks after the patient has successfully been off cigarettes |
b. 5-7 days before the targeted quit smoking date
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107. Which of the following is not a result of nicotinic receptor stimulation?
a. feeling of pleasure b. secretion of dopamine c. enhanced concentration d. increased levels of tension and anxiety |
d. increased levels of tension and anxiety
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108. True or False: Dornase Alfa (Pulmozyme) is a relatively benign drug with few side effects.
a. True b. False |
a. True
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110. Which of the following is not a gram positive bacterium?
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Sterptococcus pneumoniae d. Enterococcus sp. |
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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109. Which of the following problems has been treated with nebulized ethyl alcohol?
a. Delirium tremens (DTs) b. End-state lung cancer c. Tracheal irritation d. Pulmonary edema |
d. Pulmonary edema
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