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117 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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This liquid dosage form is a drug dissolved in a sweetened water-alcohol solution.
a. solution b. tincture c. elixir d. tincture e. suspension |
ans = c
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This drug, approved in 2003, is the first NMDA antagonist to be used to treat Alzheimer’s disease.
a. Humira b. Erbitux c. Ketek d. Namenda e. Cubicin |
d
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This drug approved in 2004 is used to treat alcohol dependence
a. Campral b. Lunesta c. Lyrica d. Prialt |
a
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Rozerem is a new hypnotic agent approved in 2005 and works by actions at the _________________ receptor.
a. opiate b. cholinergic c. melatonin d. GABA |
c
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This was a major discovery in the so called “golden age” of the pharmaceutical industry.
a. Isolation of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla b. Discovery of salicylic acid from willow bark c. Discovery of antibiotics such as tetracyclines d. The use of Foxglove to treat cardiac disease e. Isolation of morphine from opium |
c
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Credited with the discovery of organic synthesis, opening the way to produce synthetic drugs
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e
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This topical drug dose form is not miscible with water.
a. solution b. cream c. gel d. suspension e. ointment |
e
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Which statement best defines an “investigational new drug” as categorized by the FDA?
a. a drug which can be used under certain conditions prior to FDA approval b. a drug sold “over-the-counter” and not restricted by prescription c. a drug having a high margin of safety as shown in preclinical studies d. a drug which is teratogenic e. a drug having a pregnancy category of “X”. |
a
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The NDA (new drug application) is submitted by the manufacturer at what time during the drug approval process as required by the FDA?
a. during phase 4 trials b. after animal and human testing is completed. c. after animal testing is completed, but prior to human testing d. when the drug gains FDA approval for marketing e. as soon as the drug is shown to have a high margin of safety in animal studies |
b
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The adverse reaction of “a hang-over feeling” would be listed under what category in the drug information monograph required by the FDA
a. skeletal-muscle b. special senses c. respiratory system d. nervous system e. digestive system |
d
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Misspelled genes (abberant genes) encode differences in drug receptors and can cause situations leading to drug ineffectiveness. Which drug below is an example of ineffectiveness due to this phenonmenon?
a. thalidomide as used to treat leprosy sores b. albuterol as used in the asthmatic patient c. both a and b are true d. neither a nor b are true |
b
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Which enzyme below is involved in the phase II of drug metabolism?
a. NADPH-cytochrome C reductase b. Glucuronyl transferase c. Plasma esterase d. None of the above |
b
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A clinical example of how a route of administration can be changed from oral tablet to intramuscular injection to lessen the gastrointestinal adverse reactions involves which of the anti-inflammatory drugs below?
a. Phenobarbital b. Ketorolac (Toradol) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Ibuprofen e. Aspirin |
b
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Which substance below can seriously cause enhancement of Valium absorption from GI tract into the bloodstream?
a. antacids b. multiple vitamins containing iron c. alcohol d. all the above e. none of the above |
c
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This mechanism explains how aspirin interacts with coumarin to cause enhanced bleeding.
a. increases to intestinal absorption of coumarin b. displaces coumarin from plasma proteins c. prevent the renal excretion of coumarin d. blocks the hepatic metabolism of coumarin |
b
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Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP 3A4 isoform in the intestine to result in an increased serum levels of some drugs.
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
a
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Upon prescribing an analgesic (pain reliever) to a patient medicated with phenobarbital for prevention of seizures, which of the following would be the most likely scenario?
a. Your pain reliever would be enhanced, and would require a lower dose b. Your pain reliever would be inhibited and would require a higher dose c. Your pain reliever would block the effectiveness of phenobarbital in preventing seizures. |
b
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The following statement “the level of drug in blood needed to maintain the therapeutic effect without causing toxicities and without resulting in any reduction in effect “ is the definition of what?
a. biological half-life b. first pass effect c. optimal therapeutic plasma level d. accumulation of drug in blood at toxic levels e. accumulation of drug at blood levels below a therapeutic effect |
c
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According to the essays on vitamins, which single vitamin below was the first to be manufactured on a large scale-up process and marketed by the Roche company in the 1930’s?
a. vitamin C b. vitamin B c. vitamin D d. vitamin E |
a
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According to the essays on methadone, one mechanism of this drug is to occupy what type of receptor in the brain?
a. muscarinic cholinergic receptor b. GABA (gamma-amino butyric acid) receptor c. nicotinic cholinergic receptor d. opioid receptor e. beta-adrenergic receptor |
d
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According to the essays on thyroxine, the main form of this hormone taken for thyroid hormone replacement therapy is:
a. free acid thyroxine (T4) b. triiodothyronine (T3) c. sodium levothyroxine d. T4 and T3 given together in equal amounts |
c
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According to the essays on erythropoietin (EPO), the mechanism of this drug is to stimulate what type of cell to differentiate into erythrocytes?
a. platelets b. leukocytes c. hepatocytes d. basophils e. bone marrow stem cells |
e
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According to the essays on medical marijuana, its use in medicine includes:
a. treating nausea in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy b. lowering intraocular pressure in glaucoma c. as an alternative to methadone in treating heroin addiction d. all the above are accepted medical uses for marijuana e. only a and b are correct |
e
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You prescribe an antibiotic to treat an oral-facial infection in your patient.. Your directions are to take one capsule a.c. and h.s. Assuming your patient eats three meals daily, how many capsules will you instruct the pharmacist to dispense to cover 7 days?
a. 40 b. 14 c. 28 d. 10 e. 21 |
c
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Your directions for a medication are to take one tablet h.s., than n.p.o. until noon the next day. These directions indicate what?
a. take one at bedtime and not to take another tablet before any meal until noon b. take one at mealtime then nothing by mouth until noon c. take one by mouth at bedtime and one by mouth at noon d. take one at bedtime, then nothing by mouth until noon e. take after meals the day before, then nothing by mouth until noon. |
d
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According to the American Dental Association, the following dental procedures will all cause significant bacteremia EXCEPT:
a. placement of a removable prosthodontic appliance b. initial placement of orthodontic bands c. gingival probing d. scaling e. periodontal surgery |
a
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According to the Amertican Heart Association, the following are all cardiac conditions predisposing to endocarditis EXCEPT:
a. prosthetic cardiac valves b. history of bacterial endocarditis c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy e. mitral prolapse without regurgitation |
e
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Pencillin VK does not undergo hepatic metabolism and is excreted in the urine as 100% unchanged drug.
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
b
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Time to peak blood levels of penicillin VK after oral administration of tablets is –
a. one-half hour (30 minutes) to 1 hour b. 1 - 2 hours c. 2 - 3 hours d. 6 hours |
a
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Which is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
a. carbenicillin (Geocillin) b. ticarcillin (Ticar) c. piperacillin d. all the above e. none of the above |
d
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Which is a fourth generation cephalosporin?
a. cefipime (Maxipime) b. cephpodoxime (Vantin) c. cephtriaxone (Rochephin) d. cefaclor (Ceclor) e. cephalexin (Keflex) |
a
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Which antibiotic below is a beta lactam, but not a member of the penicillin family?
a. ampicillin b. amoxicillin c. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) d. loracarbef (Lorabid) e. erythromycin |
d
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This antibiotic has a unique mechanism in that it binds to the 70s ribosomal subunit in the bacterial cell.
a. vancomycin b. bacitracin c. linezolid (Zyvox) d. metronidazole (Flagyl) e. quinupristine/dalopridtin (Synercid) |
c
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This drug approved in 2004 is used to treat alcohol dependence
a. Campral b. Lunesta c. Lyrica d. Prialt |
a
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Rozerem is a new hypnotic agent approved in 2005 and works by actions at the _________________ receptor.
a. opiate b. cholinergic c. melatonin d. GABA |
c
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The NDA (new drug application) is submitted by the manufacturer at what time during the drug approval process as required by the FDA?
a. during phase 4 trials b. after animal and human testing is completed. c. after animal testing is completed, but prior to human testing d. when the drug gains FDA approval for marketing e. as soon as the drug is shown to have a high margin of safety in animal studies |
b
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According to the essays on erythropoietin (EPO), the mechanism of this drug is to stimulate what type of cell to differentiate into erythrocytes?
a. platelets b. leukocytes c. hepatocytes d. basophils e. bone marrow stem cells |
e
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Your directions for a medication are to take one tablet h.s., than n.p.o. until noon the next day. These directions indicate what?
a. take one at bedtime and not to take another tablet before any meal until noon b. take one at mealtime then nothing by mouth until noon c. take one by mouth at bedtime and one by mouth at noon d. take one at bedtime, then nothing by mouth until noon e. take after meals the day before, then nothing by mouth until noon. |
d
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According to the American Dental Association, the following dental procedures will all cause significant bacteremia EXCEPT:
a. placement of a removable prosthodontic appliance b. initial placement of orthodontic bands c. gingival probing d. scaling e. periodontal surgery |
a
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Which antibiotic below is a beta lactam, but not a member of the penicillin family?
a. ampicillin b. amoxicillin c. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) d. loracarbef (Lorabid) e. erythromycin |
d
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In the underlying theory of the intrinsic model of drug-receptor interaction and activation:
A. The agonist binds to the activated state of the receptor and shifts the equilibrium to the right B. The agonist is able to produce a maximal response when only a small fraction of the receptors is bound by drug C. The agonist binds to the resting state of the receptor and shifts the equilibrium to the right D. The agonist binds to the second messenger initiating a cascade of second messenger production without binding directly to the receptor E. A and B |
c
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The two-state model of drug-receptor interaction proposes that a receptor antagonist:
A. Shifts the receptor equilibrium to the left B. Produces equal distribution of the resting and activated states of the receptor C. Has no effect on the equilibrium of the resting and activated states of the receptor D. Binds only to the inactivated state to prevent binding of an agonist E. Binds only to the active state to prevent it from coupling to the second messenger |
c
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All of the following statements in regard to Amphotericin B are correct EXCEPT?
a) It is water soluble. b) It is a natural product with a macrolactone structure. c) A major side effect is nephrotoxicity d) It has activity towards Aspergillus species e) It has decreased toxicity when in a lipid formulation. |
a
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All of the following statements with regard to Flucytosine are correct EXCEPT:
a) Cytosine permease a membrane transporter selectively transports Flucytosine into the fungal cell. b) Flucytosine is converted to fluorouracil by cytosine deaminase c) Flucytosine inhibits protein translation by binding to eIF-alpha d) Flucytosine inhibits thymidilate synthase |
c
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Which of the following are considered advantages of combination therapy with AmphotericinB and Flucytosine?
a) A synergistic response to a combination of the drugs than with either alone. b) Reduced toxicity due to a lower dose of Amphotericin B. c) A lower rate of resistance emergence in prolonged treatment. d) Ability to also penetrate the cerebro-spinal fluid. e) All of the above |
e
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All of the following statements in regard to amantadine are correct EXCEPT?
a) It selectively inhibits both influenza A and B b) It is an inhibitor of the M2 matrix protein c) Amantadine is a soluble amine given orally d) Resistance to amantadine develops rapidly. |
a
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2. The antifungal mechanism of the azoles is?
A. Inhibition of squalene 2,3-epoxidase B. Binding to lanosterol C. Inhibition of lanosterol 14 α-demethylase D. Binding to ergosterol E. Inhibition of cytochrome P450 2A4 |
c
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Each of the following statements with regard to reverse transcriptase inhibitors are correct EXCEPT:
A. They are all structurally related to deoxynucleosides and nucleotides B. In contrast to the protease inhibitors resistance development in the reverse transcriptase inhibitors is minimal C. They often require phosphorylation by the cellular kinases for their activity D. Viral resistance to the reverse transcriptase inhibitors is the main cause of therapy failure |
b
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The HIV protease inhibitors act by inhibiting which stage of viral replication?
A. Transcription of the viral genome B. Recognition attachment and fusion C. Maturation and budding of the virion particle D. Integration of the cDNA into the host chromosome |
c
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8. All of the following statements with regard to Enfuviritude (Fuzeon) are correct EXCEPT:
A. Enfuviritude inhibits by preventing HIV entry into the cell B. Enfuviritude is a peptide based drug C. Enfuviritude is given orally as a suspension D. Enfuviritude is restricted to combination use with other classes of HIV inhibitors |
c
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9. All of the following statements in regard to the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI's) are correct EXCEPT:
A. NNRTI's bind to an allosteric hydrophobic binding site on the reverse transcriptase that is different from that of the NRTI's B. NNRTI's are non-competitive inhibitors of the reverse transcriptase C. NNRTI's inhibit by binding of phosphate to the pyrophosphate binding site of the reverse transcriptase D. NNRTI’s are a heterologous class of hydrophobic inhibitors |
c
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10. Which one of the following statements regarding interferon is LEAST accurate?
A. Interferon is induced by double stranded RNA B. Interferons are synthesized only by virally infected cells C. Interferon acts by inducing an antiviral state D. Recombinant interferons are utilized in the treatment of hepatitis |
b
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11. All of the following statements in regard to Valacyclovir are correct EXCEPT:
A. Valacyclovir is the pro-drug of acyclovir B. Reverse transcriptase of HIV is the target of Valacyclovir C. Valacyclovir has selectivity for cells infected with HSV as it requires viral thymidine kinase for phosphorylation and activation D. Valacyclovir is an acyclic nucleoside inhibitor |
b
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12. All of the following with regard to Tamiflu are correct EXCEPT:
A. Tamiflu can be used in the treatment of influenzae A and B B. Tamiflu is a neuraminidase inhibitor C. Tamiflu is an oral drug that must be taken within 48 hours of symptoms for maximal efficacy D. Tamiflu is peptide drug that must be given by sub-cutaneous injection |
d
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14. Which drug below would be taken by a breast cancer patient?
A. asparaginase B. interferons C. dactinomycin D. Premarin E. tamoxifen (Nolvadex) |
e
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15. 5-FU is used to treat the following cancers EXCEPT:
A. pancreatic B. nonHodgkin’s lymphoma C. breast D. colon E. stomach |
b
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19. This tyrosine kinase inhibitor is used to treat refractory advanced or metastatic nonsmall-cell lung cancer and pancreatic cancer.
A. sorafenib (Nexavar) B. erlotinib (Tarceva) C. gefitinib (Iressa) D. cisplatin E. carmustine |
b
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21. Used for the topical treatment of atopic dermatitis.
A. cetuximab (Erbitux) B. pimecrolimus (Elidel) C. sirolimus (Rapamune) D. rituximab (Rituxan) |
b
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22. Used to treat metatstaic colorectal cancer.
A. cetuximab (Erbitux) B. pimecrolimus (Elidel) C. sirolimus (Rapamune) D. rituximab (Rituxan) |
a
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23. Used to treat B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma; also rheumatoid arthritis along with methotrexate.
A. cetuximab (Erbitux) B. pimecrolimus (Elidel) C. sirolimus (Rapamune) E. rituximab (Rituxan) |
e
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24. This immunosuppressant agent works by inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation and proliferation in response to antigenic and cytokine stimulation.
A. cetuximab (Erbitux) B. pimecrolimus (Elidel) C. sirolimus (Rapamune) D. rituximab (Rituxan) |
c
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25. Epinephrine as a vasoconstrictor in your local anesthetic preparation should not be used in patients exhibiting symptoms of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism.
A. statement is true B. statement is false |
a
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26. Of the standard insulin preparations below, this has a duration after subcutaneous injection of 8-10 hours.
A. NPH insulin B. Zinc insulin (Lente) C. Regular insulin D. Extended zinc insulin (Ultralente) E. None of the above have a duration of 8-10 hours |
c
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33. Used in in vitro fertilization procedures because it stimulates ovulation:
A. growth hormone (GH) B. human menopausal gonadotropin (HMG) C. parathyroid hormone (PTH) D. thyrocalcitonin (Calcitonin) E. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) |
b
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34. Claims are that this agent halts the aging process.
A. growth hormone (GH) B. human menopausal gonadotropin (HMG) C. parathyroid hormone (PTH) D. thyrocalcitonin (Calcitonin) E. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) |
a
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38. Warning associated with combination oral contraceptives.
A. Not to be taken by teenagers B. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease in oral contraceptive users C. Increased risk of ovarian cysts D. All the above E. None of the above are warnings with oral contraceptives |
b
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39. Hormones contained in the combination oral contraceptive pill.
A. progestin agent B. estrogenic agent C. progesterone antagonist agent D. all the above E. A and B only |
e
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40. Which agent below in oral contraceptives inhibits secretion of FSH by the pituitary gland?
A. medroxyprogesterone B. ethinyl estradiol C. norethindrone D. all the above E. both B and C |
b
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41. Administration of low doses of norepinephrine (NE) produces a decrease in heart rate. Which one of the following statements best explains this observation?
A. NE decreases the peripheral resistance B. NE activates beta-2 receptors C. NE directly decreases the heart rate D. NE activates a vagal reflex that decreases the heart rate E. B and C |
d
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43. Which of the following drugs would antagonize the bronchodilating effects of isoproterenol?
A. labetalol (Normodyne;Trandate) B. prazosin (Minipres) C. propranolol (Inderal) D. phenylephrine (Neo-synephrine) E. A and B |
a
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44. Administration of the following drug after pretreatment with propranolol causes an increase in blood pressure.
A. epinephrine B. isoproterenol (Isuprel) C. norepinephrine D. terbutaline (Brethine) E. A and C |
e
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45. The adverse effects of non-selective alpha receptor antagonism include:
A. postural hypotension B. tachycardia C. nasal stuffiness D. A and B E. all of the above |
e
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46. Administration of a beta-1 selective antagonist will affect all of the following function EXCEPT:
A. rate of cardiac contraction B. force of cardiac contraction C. peripheral vascular resistance D. cardiac output E. cardiac work |
e
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47. Which of the following structures is/are more responsive to beta agonists than to alpha agonists?
A. bronchiolar smooth muscle B. radial muscle of iris C. vasculature of the skin D. A and B E. all of the above |
a
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48. Terbutaline (Brethine) causes which of the following actions?
A. increased heart rate B. bronchodilatation C. positive inotropic effect D. constricts peripheral vasculature E. A, B and C |
b
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49. Glucose production and release from the liver is enhanced by:
A. alpha-1 agonists B. alpha-2 agonists C. beta-1 agonists D. beta-2 agonists E. non-selective beta blocking agents |
d
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50. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of epinephrine?
A. it produces positive chronotropic and inotropic effects B. it is useful in anaphylactic shock C. it is equally effective after oral or parenteral administration D. it is the primary adrenergic compound released from the adrenal medulla E. it may increase the duration of some local anesthetics |
c
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51. Which of the following beta adrenergic blocking agent has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)?
A. metoprolol (Lopressor) B. pindolol (Visken) C. labetalol (Normodyne; Trandate) D. carvedilol (Coreg) E. all of the above |
b
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52. If a diabetic patient who had been taking a selective beta-1 blocker suddenly developed hypoglycemia, the drug’s presence would have the following effect:
A. it would help reverse the hypoglycemia B. it would prevent the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla C. it would decrease the ability of the patient to feel some warning signs such as tachycardia and palpitations D. it would decrease the ability of the liver to increase glucose production and release E. B, C and D |
c
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53. A patient who is using a direct-acting drug as a nasal decongestant is most likely taking:
A. terbutaline (Brethine) B. phenylephrine (Neo-synephrine) C. ephedrine D. clonidine (Catapres) E. dobutamine |
b
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55. Responses to administration of the following drug would be abolished by prior treatment with reserpine or guanethidine?
A. phenylephrine (Neo-synephrine) B. clonidine (Catapres) C. isoproterenol (Isuprel) D. amphetamine E. norepinephrine |
d
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56. Alpha-1 receptor agonists produce the following effect on second messengers?
A. activation of cyclic AMP B. inhibition of cyclic AMP C. increased production of diacylglycerol D. decreased production of inositol triphosphate E. decrease in intracellular calcium ions |
c
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57. The effect of a small dose of epinephrine is:
A. vasodilatation of skeletal muscle B. increased heart rate C. increased force of cardiac contraction D. B and C E. all of the above |
e
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58. Either prazosin (Minipres) or pindolol (Visken) may be used to treat hypertension. What is true about these drugs?
A. they are both adrenergic receptor blocking agents B. prazosin decreases peripheral resistance while pindolol decreases cardiac output C. prazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension while pindolol most likely would not cause resting bradycardia D. A and B E. all of the above |
e
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59. Drugs with a primary mechanism of action at the uptake-1 site.
A. cocaine B. tricyclic antidepressants C. reserpine D. A and B E. all of the above |
d
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60. If the potency of drug X, an alpha receptor antagonist, is significantly greater at the alpha-1 receptor than at the alpha-2 receptor, then:
A. drug X can be used to treat hypertension with low risk of increased norepinephrine release B. drug X could not be used to treat hypertension because it would cause alpha-2 receptor-mediated sympathetic hyperstimulation C. drug X would have a high liability for producing postural hypotension as a result of alpha-1 receptor blockade D. A and C are both correct E. none of the above statements correctly predict the pharmacology of drug X |
d
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61. Which of the following drugs, injected IV by itself, would produce a response similar to the profile obtained with the combination of propranolol (Inderal) and epinephrine?
A. metoprolol (Lopressor) B. isoproterenol (Isuprel) C. oxymetazoline (Afrin) D. ephedrine E. clonidine (Catapres) |
c
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62. Cold extremities or frostbite could be treated with drugs that have the following mechanism of action:
A. inhibit beta-2 receptors B. stimulate beta-1 receptors C. inhibit alpha-1 receptors D. inhibit alpha-2 receptors E. stimulate all alpha and beta receptors |
c
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63. The following drug class was initially contraindicated in patients with heart failure, but now is a standard of treatment in these patients.
A. alpha-1 blocking agent B. selective alpha-2 agonist C. selective beta-1 antagonist D. non-selective alpha antagonist E. non-selective beta agonist |
c
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64. Regular use of beta-2 adrenergic agonists can lead to the following:
A. a decreased effectiveness due to receptor down regulation B. side effect of tremors C. frequent cardiac palpitations D. A and B E. all of the above |
d
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66. Identify the irreversible acetylcholine esterase inhibitor (ACHEI):
a. Physostigmine b. Edrophonium c. Isoflurophate d. 2-PAM e. Pyridostigmine |
c
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67. The drug of choice for treatment of organophosphate poisoning is:
a. Atropine b. Pralidoxime c. Physostigmine d. Tubocurarine e. a plus b |
e
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68. In the list below the drug of choice for decreasing secretions and relaxing bronchial smooth muscle of an asthmatic patient is:
a. Metaproterenol b. Ipratropium c. Isoproterenol d. Phentolamine e. Scopolamine |
b
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1. The precursor substance from which corticosteroids are synthesized in the adrenal gland
a. dexamethasone (Decadron) b. cholesterol c. triamcinolone (Kenalog) d. prednisone e. hydrocortisone |
b
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2. One use of corticosteroids is to treat inflammatory diseases
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
a
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3. Adverse effects of long term steroid use EXCEPT:
a. peptic ulcer b. psychological disturbances c. osteoporosis d. edema e. renal failure |
e
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4. A mechanism of the corticosteroids is they cause reduction in the production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins.
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
a
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5. The emergency drug albuterol falls under what pharmacologic category?
a. antihistamine b. salicylate c. respiratory stimulate d. beta2-adrenergic agonist |
d
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6. The emergency drug aspirin falls under what pharmacologic category?
a. antihistamine b. salicylate c. respiratory stimulate d. beta2-adrenergic agonist |
b
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8. The emergency drug diphenhydramine (Benadryl) falls under what pharmacologic category?
a. antihistamine b. salicylate c. respiratory stimulate d. beta2-adrenergic agonist |
a
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9. According to the drug essays, the Center for Disease Control hailed this as one of the “Ten Public Health Achievements in the 20th century.”
a. discovery of penicillin b. discovery of aspirin c. discovery of Viagra d. water fluoridation e. use of L-dopa to treat Parkinson’s disease |
d
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13. According to the drug essays on aspirin, it was discovered from the bark of what tree?
a. pine b. oak c. cedar d. maple e. willow |
e
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14. The antifungal mechanism of Amphotericin B is?
a) Inhibition of squalene 2,3-epoxidase b) Binding to lanosterol c) Inhibition of sterol 14 -demethylase d) Binding to ergosterol e) Inhibition of cytochrome P450 2A4 |
d
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15. Significant fungal resistance to azoles can occur by which of the following mechanisms
a) Mutations in lansterol 14- demethylase. b) Mutations in CYP3A4. c) Active efflux of the drug from the fungal cell. d) Both a and c above are correct e) Both b and c above are correct |
d
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16. Which of the following are considered advantages of combination therapy with Amphotericin B and Flucytosine?
a) A synergistic response to a combination of the drugs than with either alone. b) Reduced toxicity due to a lower dose of Amphotericin B. c) The lower rate of resistance emergence in prolonged treatment. d) All of the above are correct e) Both a and b above are correct |
d
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17. All of the following statements with regard to Mycobacterium tuberculosis are correct EXCEPT:
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis contains peptidoglycan as the major cell wall component. b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause latent infections that can be reactivated during immune suppression. c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis initially replicates in the lung macrophages d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis must be treated with two-drugs to which it is susceptible. |
a
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18. All of the following in regard to rifampin are correct EXCEPT:
a) Rifampin is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis b) Rifampin is bactericidal at very low concentration c) Rifampin is often used in combination with isoniazid in the treatment of TB d) Rifampin is a semi-synthetic derivative of rifamycin B |
a
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19. All of the following with regard to the anti-malarial chloroquine are true EXCEPT:
a) Resistance is widespread in sub-Saharan Africa and South America b) The mechanism of action is thought to be related to hemoglobin polymerization in the food vacuole of the parasite c) Resistance arises due to decreased uptake of the drug into the food vacuole d) Chloroquine is not a prophylactic drug and is restricted use under the CDC |
d
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20. Which of the following drugs would be an alternative prophylactic in the case of a chloroquine-resistant malaria region?
a) Mefloquine b) Primaquine phosphate c) Doxycycline d) Both a or b above could be the choice e) Both a or c above could be the choice |
e
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26. A first-choice drug used in patients with rheumatoid arthritis that is also an antineoplastic agent when used in higher doses is:
a. etanercept (Enbrel) b. infliximab (Remicade) c. methotrexate d. abatacept (Orencia) e. adalimumab (Humira) |
c
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27. The following drug inhibits the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF):
a. etanercept (Enbrel) b. infliximab (Remicade) c. adalimumab (Humira) d. a and c e. all of the above |
e
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31. An alpha1 adrenergic agonist can decrease heart rate by increasing blood pressure that activates baroreceptors to reflexly decrease sympathetic outflow and increase parasympathetic outflow to the heart.
a. true b. false |
a
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35. Long-acting beta2 agonists are useful maintenance drugs in the asthmatic patient. The following drug is an example of this agent:
a. bitolterol (Tornelate) b. metaproterenol (Alupent) c. terbutaline (Brethaire) d. salmeterol (Serevent) e. albuterol (Proventil; Ventolin) |
d
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36. Phenylephrine is a selective alpha1 receptor agonist that produces vasoconstriction and is used as a nasal decongestant.
a. true b. false |
a
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37. The administration of epinephrine would be expected to produce the following:
a. positive inotropic effect b. positive chronotropic effect c. bronchial smooth muscle relaxation d. increased hepatic glucose release e. all of the above |
e
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40. Most (about 90%) of orally consumed alcohol (ethanol) is:
a. stored for many days in body fat and thus has a lesser CNS effect in females compared to males. b. excreted unchanged from the body by the kidneys. c. metabolized by the liver to acetaldehyde. d. excreted unchanged from the body in lung air. e. both a and c are correct (b and d are not correct) |
c
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47. Aside from enhancing dopaminergic activity, currently the next most efficacious treatment of PD is:
a. Blockade of glutaminergic neurotransmission b. Blockade of cholinergic neurotransmission c. Blockade of gabaergic neurotransmission transmission d. Blockade of BDNF e. Enhancement of noradrenergic neurotransmission |
b
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