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157 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the time to 25% recovery with succinylcholine
5-10 min
what is the time to 25% recovery with d-Tubucuraine
60-90 min
what is the time to 25% recovery with pancuronium
80-100 min
what is the time to 25% recovery with vecuronium
25-30 min
what is the time to 25% recovery with rocuronium
30 min
what is the time to 25% recovery with cis-atracurium
40 min
what is the time to 25% recovery with atracurium
25-30 min
what is the elimination route for succinylcholine
plasma cholinesterase
what is the elimination route for d-Tubocurarine
70% renal

20% biliary
what is the elimination route for pancuronium
80% renal

20% biliary
what is the elimination route for vecuronium
20% renal

80% biliary
what is the elimination route for rocuronium
30% renal

70% biliary
what is the elimination route for cis-atracurium
hoffman elimination
what is the elimination route for atracurium
ester hydrolysis

hoffman elimination
choices of NMB agent are based on what
1-pharmacodymnamics

2-pharmacokinetics
speed on onset of a NMB is (directly or inversely) proportionate to the potency of the drug
INVERSELY
high or low ED95 is predictive of rapid onset
HIGH (low potency)

(b/c there is a higher dose given with a lower potency NMB and so more molecules to diffuse from central compartment to effect compartment)
the type of binding that low-potency drugs have to receptors means what type of duration of action
a weaker binding by low-potency drugs = SHORTER duration of action
what do NMB do for intubation
create OPTIMAL conditions
what is THE drug of choice for RSI
succinylcholine
what are some "disadvantages" of the priming technique
*risk of aspiration

*diff swallowing and visual disturbance associated with the subtle block are uncomfortable for the pt
why is the priming technique used
it is used in an attempt to effect a rapid onset of NMB while avoiding use of succinylcholine
what is a priming dosage
10% of the Ed95 dose
how do you perform the priming tech
*give 10% of the ED95 dose

*wait 4 min-pre oxygenate the pt during this period b/c NO + pressure breath will be given

*then give 2-3 x the ED95 dose
what drug(s) do fasiculations occur with
ONLY the depolarizer succinylcholine
what are things that MUST be performed when doing an RSI
1-hyperoxygenate (any o2 > 21%) x 4 min

2-denitrogenate (w/ 100% 02 tight fit x 4 min)
what is the priming tech with vecuronium
1-give 0.01 mg/kg vec
2-wait 4 min
3-give IV induction agent
4-give 0.1 mg/kg vec
what does the priming tech with vecuronium provide
a FASTER onset but PROLONGED duration of action
when is is ok to ventilate a pt (manipulate the airway)
when there is loss of lid reflex
what should you ALWAYS do prior to giving NMB unless it is an RSI
make sure you can ventilate
what is the rationale for the priming tech
*the priming dose decreases the margin of safety by blocking some receptors
*provides a deeper block
*s/e of succinylcholine are avoided
what is the process for RSI
1-preoxgenation MUST be performed
2-give adequate dose of IV drugs to ensure pt is adequately anesthetized
3-apply cricoid pressure (sellicks maneuver) prior to injection of induction agent
with RSI within what time frame is intubation considered acceptable
60-90 sec
low-dose muscle relaxants for tracheal intubation have what use
*are NOT for RSI

*used for ROUTINE tracheal intubation
low-dose relaxants for tracheal intubation do what to recovery time
shorten it
what do low-dose relaxants for tracheal intubation do for the need/requirement for anticholinesterase drugs
REDUCE the requirement
of the low-dose relaxants used for tracheal intubation what has the shortest onset time?

how long is it?
rocuronium

75 sec
what is the low-dose dosage for tracheal intubation for rocuronium
0.5 mg/kg (1.5 ED95)
autonomic s/e from NMB are d/t what
varying affinities for nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
how do depolarizing MR work
bind to and activate sustained depolarization of nicotinic receptors
are depolarizers agonist or antagonists
agonists
which class of NMB exhibits phase I and phase II blocks
depolarizing
what may lessen cardiac arrythmias, myalgias and elevations of intraocular and intragastric pressures with succinylcholine
pre-treatment with a NON-depolarizer
T or F

Pretreatment with a NON-depolarizer WILL decrease potassium release from cells with admin of succinylchoine
FALSE
potassium release with admin of succinylcholine is closely tied to what factor
depolarization

-more Ach receptors = more depolarized cell membrane = more K+ release
what type of pt is at the greatest risk for hyperkalemia with admin of succinylcholine
pts who are upregulated (denervation injury)
how do NON-depolarizing MR work
they bind to post synaptic nicotinic Ach receptors and COMPETITVELY inhibit action of Ach
what amt of Ach receptors must be blocked to impair motor nerve conduction
greater than 75%
at what amt of receptors blocked is surgical relaxation appreciated
> 90%
at what amt of receptors blocked is intubation facilitated
95%
at what amt of receptors blocked is total flaccidity appreciated
99%
what decreases the usefulness of curare
*slow onset

*long duration
what is a use for curare
precurarization (defasiculating dose)
what are the side effects of curare
*hypotension (r/t histamine and autonomic ganglionic blockade)

*sympathetic & vagal blockade
(bradycardia most often seen)
what is pancuroinium beneficial for
*long duration paralysis needs

*inexpensive
what type of sx is pancuronium often used in
cardiac sx
how is the vagolytic property of pancuronium beneficial
the increased HR balances narcotic induced bradycardia
what are the s/e of pancuronium
*increased HR d/t vagolysis at post ganglionic nerve terminal, muscarinic blockade & catecholamine release

*inhibits plasma cholinesterase
vecuronium has an intermediate duration why
because of redistribution
which NMB is the MOST CV stable
vecuronium
which NMB is suitable for ischemic heart dz because it has no effect on HR or BP
vecuronium
which NMB is suitable for ambulatory surgeries
vecuronium

(b/c of intermediate duration)
which NMB has a lower incidence of residual muscle paralysis
vecuronium

(b/c of intermediate duration)
what are the s/e of vecuronium
*minimal to NO side effects

*low individual variability
rocuronium is how potent compared to vecuronium
1/7 the potency
what is the #1 used NON-depolarizing NMB used in north America
rocuronium
which NON-depolarizing NMB has rapid sequence ability
rocuronium
is rocuronium CV stable
YES
which NON-depolarizing can replace succinylcholine for rapid onset
rocuronium
what is the rapid onset (60 sec) dosage for rocuronium
1.2 mg/kg
what are the s/e of rocuronium
*minimal to none

*slight increase in HR (less than pancuronium)

*low individual variability
what is atracurium composed of
10 isomers possessing muscle relaxant properties
what is the parent drug to cis-atracrium
atracurium
what is the duration of atracurium
SHORT
what NON-depolarizer has NO cumulative effects and allows continuous infusion
atracurium
what type of CV effects does atracurium have
NONE

(void of CV effects)
what are the side effects of atracurium
*histamine release DOSE dependent

*metabolite laudanosine causes cerebral excitation in animals (? human significance)
what type of duration and recovery does cis-atracurium have
short duration and rapid recovery
which NMB has organ INDEPENDENT metabolism
*cis-atracurium

*mivacurium
what is cis-atracutium composed of
single isomer of 10 isomers that compose the MR atracurium
what is hoffman elimination dependent on
it is pH and temp dependent

-elimination INCREASES with an INCREASE in pH or body temp
what does alkalosis do to hoffman elimination
INCREASES it
what NMB need to be refrigerated
*succinylcholine

*cis-atracurium
what does acidois do to hofmann elimination
it SLOWS it
what does a DECREASE it body temp < 37 degrees do to hofmann elimination
SLOWS it
which NMB is an excellent choice for renal failure
cis-atracurium
which NMB can be given as a continous infusion d/t rapid recovery
mivacurium
which NON-depolarizing NMB has a short duration and is beneficial for very short procedures
mivacurium
which NMB may you skip reversal with when wanting to avoid N/V with reversal agents
mivacurium
what are the s/e of mivacurium
*SIGNIFICANT histamine release that is speed of injection and dose dependent

*may unmask plasma cholinesterase deficiency
if a dz or drug weakens a muscle or neuronal membrane what does it do to a NMB
POTENTIATES it
more Ach receptors (up regulation) have what response to NMB
tend to RESIST nmb
what do depolarizing NMB do to a weakened or dz muscle
cause a massive depolarization
what drugs POTENTIATE depolarizers and NON-depolarizers by depressing NMJ function
*aminoglycosides(mycins)

-polymixins, neomycin and streptomycin are the most potent
what other drugs POTENTIATE NMB b/c they are membane stablilizers
*IA
*LA
*VAA
*dantrolene
*Mg
*Ca channel blockers
what are the reasons for relaxing or paralyzing muscles
*to obtain adequte intubating conditons
*to facilatate surgical exposure or manipulation
*to improve mech ventilation
*to compensate for inadequate or light anesthesia
which muscles are the MOST sensitive to NDMR
upper airway muscles
which muscles are the LEAST sensitive to NDMR
diaphragm
which muscle should you twitch when monitoring
the one that correlates with the area that you want paralyzed
what are RELIABLE assessments of recovery
*sustained head lift x 5 sec
*sustained tongue depressor test
*sustained leg lift (children)
*max inspiratory pressure > 50
what are UNRELIABLE clinical assessments of recovery
*sustained eye opening
*protrusion of tongue
*normal VC
*max inspiratory pressure <25
negative inspiratory pressures can lead to what
pulm edema
a single twitch from a nerve monitor is how many Hz
o.1-0.15
a train of four delivers how much Hz how long apart
2 Hz 0.5 sec apart
how much Hz does tetanus deliver and how long apart
50 Hz and 100 Hz 5 sec apart
what is double burst stimulation
50 Hz 2 sets of 3 bursts appear as two twitches
what is the purpose of nerve monitoring
to evaulate the degree of muscle paralysis or recovery from muscle paralysis
what does double burst do
accentuates fade that is present on TOF
what is post tetanic stimulation
displacement of molecules that were still on a few Ach receptors
phase 1 and phase 2 blocks are seen with what type of NMB
DEPOLARIZING
what type of NMB exhibit fade on train of four
NON-depolarizing
what may happen to fade if enough NDMR is given
may progress to NO twitches
with R4 it decreases at what amt of receptors blocked
75%
with R3 it decreases at what amt of receptors blocked
85%
with R2 it decreases at what amt of receptors blocked
90%
with R1 it decreases at what amt of receptors blocked
95%
what percentage of NMB is there before motor function is impaired
75-100%
what type of block is seen as 4/4 TOF but with LESS amplitude
phase I
what type of block is often seen as 0/4 TOF (NO twitches)
phase II block
what are the nerves that you can monitor
*ulnar

*facial

*post tibial
what muscle does the ulnar nerve correspond to
adductor pollicis
what muscle does the facial nerve correspond to
currigator supercilli
what muscle does the post tibial nerve correspond to
flexor hallucis
what is the reason we stimulate a nerve
to observe a muscle response
to ensure a block twitch which nerve
facial
for wake up test twitch what nerve
ulnar
the facial nerve is what cranial nerve
7
what branches is the facial nerve composed of
5
*temporal
*zygomatic
*maxillary
*mandibular
*buccal
for post tibial nerve monitoring where are the leads placed
behind the medial malleolus
stimulation of the post tibial nerve causes what to occur
flexion of the big toe by contraction of the flexor halucis
what is the post tibial nerve composed of
sciatic nerve branches at popliteal fossa
which muscle related to nerve monitoring is relatively resistant to blockade
corrugator supercilli
which muscle r/t nerve blockade is similar to diaphragm resistance
corrugator supercilli
which nerve should be monitored for intubating conditions and abd rectus paralysis
facial nerve
which muscle should be monitored for extubation adequacy
adductor pollicus (ulnar nerve)
why is the ulnar nerve beneficial for monitoring
*ease of place and access

*contralateral innervation of the monitored muscle allows for discrimination b/t direct muscle stimulation & direct nerve stimulation
in addtion to the main muscle that it innervates what other muscle does the ulnar nerve innervate that is also relatively resitant to blockade
hypothenar muscles
the posterior tibial nerve allows for what kind of monitoring
monitoring on pts who you have limited access to places on their body
with a normal tidal volume test what percent of receptors may be blocked
0-80%
with hold tetanus 5o Hz what percent of receptors may be blocked
0-75 to 80%
with equal TOF and double burst what percent of receptors may be blocked
0-75 to 80%
with holds tetanus 100 Hz what percent of receptors may be blocked
0-50%
with head lift x 5 sec what percent of receptors may be blocked
0-33%
what does single twitch monitoring allow for
continual evaulation of depolarizing block (must know baseline)
what does TOF monitoring allow for
allows estimation of DEGREE of NON-depolarizing block
what does double burst stimulation allow for
easier visual evaulation of fade

(gives same info as TOF)
what would you use to evaulate a "shallow" block
twitch, TOF, tetanus
what would you use to evaulate a "profound" block
post-tetanic count and post tetanic stimulation
which type of block has a degree of neuromuscular junction fuction that remains intact
shallow
what type of block is a deep block that causes complete muscle paralysis/laxity
profound
what is post-tetanic stimulation count (PTC)
*allows for quantification of block if NO TOF present

*estimates what CI reversal drugs may achieve for you
what is post tetanic facilitation
release of large amt of Ach floods the NMJ and ACCENTUATES subsequent twitch responses
physical assessment range for neuromusclar block is what percent of receptors blocked
0-50%
tetanus evaulates what percent of receptors blocked
50-75%
train of four evaulates what percentage of receptors blocked
75-95%
PTC evaulates what percentage of receptors blocked
95-100%
twitch monitors themselves can evaulate blocks in what percentage range
50-100