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107 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which part of the government appoints the administrative agency (DEA, Board of Pharmacy)?
Legislative branch
What are the three different types of laws?
Criminal law
Civil law
Administrative law
Which laws, if broken, can lead to jail?
Which laws, if broken, do not lead to jail?
Jail - Criminal, Civil laws
No jail - administrative law
In the case of pharmacy, the state Board of Pharmacy is the _______ agency
Administrative
What functions of the Board of Pharmacy include enforcement responsibilities for inspections of pharmacies?
Executive
What functions of the Board of Pharmacy include enacting regulations?
Legislative
What functions of the Board of Pharmacy act to interpret violations of the statues and regulations?
Judicial
What is the statute of limitations for negligence?
Two years
What does CFR stand for?
Code of Federal Regulations
CFR21 is an act by which agency of the government?
FDC
Under Georgia Laws - OCGA, what Title deals with Food, Drugs, and Cosmetics?
Title 26
Under Georgia Laws - OCGA, what Title deals with Crimes and Offenses?
Title 16
True or False - Your license is a revocable privilege
True
How long can a pharmacist be imprisoned for pleading guilty to one count of felony insurance fraud and felony theft?
Six months
When was the FDA established?
1906
When was the 16th amendment passed?
1913
What was the 16th amendment?
Income taxes
The establishment of the FDA was also known as what act?
Wiley Act
(first chemist employed by the FDA)
What is a patent medicine?
Trademarked medicine
What was the act with the basic premise of "Unlawful for any person to manufacture any article of food or drug which is adulterated or misbranded"?
Food and Drug Act of 1906
What is the term for adding extraneous, improper, or inferior ingredients?
Adulterated
What is the term for misleading label or fraudulent?
Misbranded
A violation of the Food and Drug Act of 1906 is a (misdemeanor/felony)
Misdemeanor
What were the fines/punishments for violation of the Food and Drug Act of 1906?
Up to $500 or one year's imprisonment
What two things did the Food and Drug Act of 1906 fail to require for medicinal product labeling?
Did not require ingredient listing or directions
What medication and vehicle combination prompted the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938?
Sulfanilamine (diethylene glycol)
When was the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act enacted?
1938
The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act did NOT require what?
Proof of effectiveness
True or False - All medications required proof of safety after the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was passed
False - Grandfathering of currently available medications was allowed
Which Act established the FDA?
Food and Drug Act of 1906
What were three requirements of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938?
New drugs had to be proven safe
Labels must contain directions
Warnings about habit-forming drugs
In 1939, the Georgia General Assembly passed what act?
Dangerous Drug Act
Which Act is the basis for the Dangerous Drug Act (in Georgia) of 1939?
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
What court case held that because the Sulfathiazole product of 1948 had been in interstate commerce that the provisions of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 applied?
US v. Sullivan
Which act requires the following three things:
1) Internet pharmacy websites must display information identifying the business, pharmacist, and physician associated with the website
2) The bill bars the selling or dispensing of a prescription drug via the internet when the website has referred the customer to a doctor who then writes a prescription without ever seeing the patient
3) The bill provides states with new enforcement authority modeled on the Federal Telemarketing Sales Act that will allow a state attorney general to shut down a rogue site across the country, rather than only bar sales to consumers of his or her state
Haight Act of 2008
What primary thing did the Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 establish?
Two classes of drugs
1) Legend drugs
2) Non-prescription drugs
What were additional components of the Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951?
Directions required
Oral prescriptions
Prescription refill regulation
The Thalidomide disaster prompted what legislation?
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
What did the Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 require proof of?
Efficacy
(in addition to safety)
Which amendment was retroactive in regards to drug safety and efficacy?
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
What 6 things did the Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 require?
1) Efficacy (in addition to safety)
Retroactive
2) Prescription drug advertising regulated by FDA
3) Informed consent for clinical studies
4) Reporting of ADRs
5) Creating of Good Manufacturing Principles
6) NDA established
When was the NDA process established?
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
True or False - Thalidomide is banned in the United States
False - in 1998, the FDA approved thalidomide for limited use in the US (two forms of contraception and to submit to biweekly pregnancy tests)
Which act provided tax and licensing incentives to manufacturers for drugs used to treat rare diseases?
Orphan Drug Act of 1983
What population is defined by the Orphan Drug Act?
< 200,000 people in the US
Which piece of legislation provided generic companies with the option of an ANDA?
Waxman-Hatch Amendment of 1984
The Waxman-Hatch Amendment of 1984 assured innovater companies of ___ years of exclusive marketing after the approval process, and exclusive rights to marketing for ___ years after patent REGISTRATION
5 years of exclusive marketing after approval process

Exlusive rights to marketing for 17 years after patent registration, not approval
Which bill removed samples from community pharmacies?
Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 (Dingell Bill)
The Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 is also known as what?
Dingell Bill
What did the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 establish for drug wholesalers?
Wholesaler licensure requirements
Security of drug stocks
Record-keeping including drug lot number tracking for all drug distribution
What three primary components were required with OBRA 90?
Patient information
Prospective DUR
Patient counseling
What is defined as "the watchfulness, attention, caution, and prudence that a reasonable person in the circumstances would exercise"?
Standard of care
What act updated many FDA activities?
FDA Modernization Act of 1997
What did the FDA Modernizzation Act of 1997 update?
1) Fast-track review of some NDAs
2) Clarification of pharmacy compounding
3) Legend --> Rx only
4) Elimination of "Warning - may be habit forming"
5) Supplemental NDA for new uses of existing drugs
6) Pediatric studies - 6 month extension of exclusivity
What act established Medicare Part D?
Medicare Prescription Drug Improvements and Modernization Act of 2003
True or False - Mail order may be required for some Medicare Part D programs
False - mail order may NOT be required
True or False - Importation of drugs from Canada and elsewhere is allowed for Medicare Part D
True
The reimbursement for Medicare Part D prescriptions changed from ____ to ____
From AWP to ASP
What drug categories must have multiple drug options for Medicare Part D? (6)
Anticonvulsants
Antineoplastic
Antiretrovirals
Antidepressants
Antipsychotics
Immunosuppressants
What was the cost to bring a drug to market as of 2005?
$250 billion
What is required before a drug can proceed with clinical trials on humans?
IND
(Investigational New Drug Application)
Which phase of Clinical Trials makes sure a drug is safe at projected dosages, determines route of administration, and is tested on normal healthy adults?
Phase 1
Which phase of Clinical Trials studies patients with the disease/condition to be treated and assesses efficacy?
Phase 2
Which phase of Clinical Trials studies widespread groups, does double-blind studies, compares the drug to placebo, and is the most costly and time consuming?
Phase 3
What special type of IND is for use of a non-approved drug, for patients not enrolled in the clinical trials, and for patients in an imminent life-threatening stage?
Treatment IND
What is submitted after Phase 3 Clinical Trials are complete?
NDA
(New Drug Application)
A fast track drug is requested by the applicant to who?
Secretary of Health and Human Services
What must generic drugs submit for approval?
ANDA
(Abbreviated New Drug Application)
An ANDA (abreviated new drug application) requires proof of what?
Bioavailability and chemical activity
If a manufacturer wants to change a drug already on the market (i.e. formulation, dosage form, strength, packaging, indication), what must it submit for approval?
SNDA
(Supplemental New Drug Application)
What are the two therapeutic classifications for NDAs?
Type P (Priority)
Type S (Standard)
The Orphan Drug Act of 1983 extends exclusivity of a drug by how many years over the patent limit?
7 years
When a generic challenges the patent of a brand medication, what is the exclusivity period?
180 days
What do the NDC numbers stand for?
First 5 digits - manufacturer
Middle 4 digits - drug
Last 2 digits - package type/size
What is required on labeling for manufacturer containers that are supplied to hospitals?
Bar codes
Bar codes on products supplied to hospitals must contain what?
NDC number, not a UPC code
True or False - Listing of therapeutically inactive ingredients is a GMP requirement
True
The new package inserts contain a _______ section as part of their new "streamlined" design since 2006?
Highlights
True or False - Only Rx medications require drug imprints
False - Rx and OTC medications require drug imprints for ID purposes
What is the expiration date for repackaging items?
25% of remaining expiration time or 6 months (whichever is less)
Bar coding is only required on packages for what types of institutitons?
Only required on hospital product packages (by FDA)
What program is for monitoring and reporting of adverse drug events?
MedWatch Program
What adverse drug event initiative is hospital based?
MedMARx
What adverse drug event initiative is for reporting of device problems?
Safe Medical Device Act (SMDA)
What Class of recall occurs because of risk of serious effects or death?
Class I
(recall stock, notify patients)
What Class of recall occurs because of risk of temporary or reversible adverse effects?
Class II
(recall stock)
What Class of recall occurs even if there is little risk of adverse effects?
Class III
What are the expiration dates for compounds of solids and non-aqueous liquids?
NMT 25% of remaining expiration date with a maximum of 6 months
What are the expiration dates for compounds of non-aqueous solutions with solid drugs?
NMT 14 days under refrigeration
What are the expiration dates for miscellaneous compounds?
30 days or the duration of therapy
What types of compounds are exempt from compounding standards?
Radiopharmaceuticals (including PETs)
Sterile products follow what USP guidelines?
797
What is the term for anything that includes "articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man and other animals"?
Drug
What is the term for anything that includes "articles used for food or drink for man or other animals, chewing gum, and articles used for components of any such article"?
Food
What characteristics differentiate a dietary supplement from food? (6)
1) vitamin
2) mineral
3) herb or botanical
4) amino acid
5) supplement the diet by increasing dietary uptake
6) concentrate, metabolite, extract, or combination of any ingredient described
What is the term for "articles intended to be rubbed, poured, spinkled, or sprayed on, introduced into, or otherwise applied to the human body or any part thereof for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or altering the appearance and articles intended for use as a component of any such articles; except that such term shall not include soap"
Cosmetic
What acronym/organization describes federal law and is specific for the state as well?
MPJE
True or False - According to Georgia law, you may not compound products that are available commercially
False - Georgia law says you may compound products which are and are not available as commercial products (federal law says you may NOT)
What are the four "practitioner" or "practitioner of the healing arts" professions?
Physician
Dentist
Podiatrist
Veterinarian
True or False - Chiropracters are not allowed to prescribe or administer medications
True
What are the limits for prescribing controlled medications for optometrists?
Non-narcotic oral analgesics
Schedule III or IV controlled substances for ocular pain, with NMT 72 hours without talking to physician
If a patient has what disease state, he/she must be referred to an ophthamologist immediately?
Closed angle glaucoma
True or False - You can receive C-IIs by both e-RX and fax
False - Can NOT get controlled medications by e-prescribing in Georgia
What are the only three acceptable circumstances for filling a C-II fax as an original?
Terminally ill patients
LTCF
Hospice
What three things can be changed to a CII prescription?
strength
quantity
directions
(talk directly to prescriber, note on prescription)
True or False - It is required that a pharmacist put his/her initials and license number on a CII prescription upon filling it
False - NOT initials, license # not required
What three pharmacist requirements must be placed on a controlled medication?
How do CIIs differ from CIIIs, CIVs, and CVs?
All controls - dispensing date and prescription/serial number

CIIs - pharmacist SIGNATURE
CIIIs-CVs - pharmacist INITIALS