Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
153 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what are helminths
|
worms that are parasites
|
|
what are ectoparasites
|
vectors of disease such as ticks, mosquitoes, and biting flies and other parasites that infect external body surfaces
|
|
what causes malaria
|
protozoan parasites of the genus plasmodium
|
|
how do you get malaria
|
mosquitoes transfer the disease from one human to another
|
|
what are the parasitic diseases
|
amebiasis, cryptosporidiosis, giardiasis, trichomoniasis, toxoplasmosis
|
|
what is amebiasis caused by
|
entamoeba histolytica
|
|
how is amebiasis transfered
|
passed from host to host by ingestion of fecally contaminated food or water
|
|
what is cryptosporidoiosis
|
a diarrheal disease caused by cryptosporidium parvum. transmitted fecal oral
|
|
what is giardiasis
|
a common disease caused by a flagellated protozoan giardia lamblia. transmitted by fecal contamination.
|
|
what is trichomoniasis
|
an infection of the vagina caused by the parasite trichomonas vaginalis
|
|
toxoplasmosis
|
caused by a parasite found in a variety of animals, especially casts and birds
|
|
what is pneumoncystis carinii pneumonia
|
opportunistic lung infection caused by a parasite of uncertain classification
|
|
what are the types of helminthic infection
|
intestinal nematode and blood and tissue nematode infections
|
|
what are the intestinal nematode infections
|
the common intestinal nematodes are the giant roundworm, pinworm, threadworm, whipworm, and pork round worm
|
|
what are the blood and tissue nematode infections
|
filarial infections are amoung the more serious and debilitation helminthiases associated with blood and tissue nematodes. Can cause elephantiasis and onchocerciasis or river blindness
|
|
what are the types of ectoparasitic infections
|
scabies and pediculosis
|
|
what is scabies
|
a skin inflammation caused by a mite, Scarcoptes scabiei
|
|
what is pediculosis
|
an infestation occurring on the scalp, trunk or pubic area
|
|
what are the three types of drug therapy for malaria
|
suppressive therapy (prophylaxis), treatment of an acute attack (clinical cure), and prevention of a relapse (radical cure)
|
|
what are the 3 factors antimalarial drugs are guided by
|
the identity of plasmodium species, the clinical status of the patient and the geographic area where the infection was acquired
|
|
what are antitussives
|
drugs that block the cough reflex
|
|
what are decongestants
|
drugs that decrease the blood flow to an area and thus decrease overproduction of secretions
|
|
what are antihistamines
|
drugs that block the release or action of histamine, a chemical released during inflammation which increases secretions and narrows airways
|
|
what are expectorants
|
drugs that increase productive cough to clear the airways
|
|
what is rhinitis
|
inflammation of the nose
|
|
what is the common cold
|
a viral infection that starts in the upper respiratory tract, sometimes spreading to the lower structures
|
|
what are allergic or seasonal rhinitis
|
occurs when the upper airways respond to a specific allergen
|
|
what is sinusitis
|
occurs when the epithelial lining of the sinus cavities becomes inflamed. It can be bacterial or viral
|
|
what is pharyngitis
|
an inflammation or infection of the pharynx caused by bacteria or viruses
|
|
what is laryngitis
|
inflammation of the larynx or voice box, caused by chemical or mechanical irritation, viral infections or bacterial infections
|
|
what is influenza
|
an infection caused by any of several stains of myxoviruses
|
|
which are better, topical or oral decongestants
|
topical because they don't have as many adverse effects
|
|
how do decongestants work
|
constricting the nasal arterioles, thereby decreasing the swelling of the nasal membrane
|
|
what are antihistamines used for
|
relieve symptoms of allergies and allergic rhinitis by blocking action of histamine as it is release during the inflammatory response to an antigen
|
|
what are expectorant drugs
|
drugs that liquefy lower respiratory tract secretions which decreases the viscosity of the secretions which makes it easier to cough up and improves airflow.
|
|
what is acute bronchitis
|
caused most frequently by virues. Has fever, productive cough, purulent mucus and inflammation that often narrows or obstructs a person's airway
|
|
what is asthma
|
a disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of bronchospasm, bronchial muscle spasm that leads to narrowed or obstructed
|
|
what is chronic airway limitation
|
an umbrella term that describes gradually progressive degenerative diseases such as chronic bronchitis, emphysema, or repeated severe asthma attacks
|
|
what is chronic bronchitis
|
long standing, largely irreversible inflammation of the bronchial tree
|
|
what is emphysema
|
an abnormal distention of the lungs with air characterized by loss or degeneration of elastic tissue, disappearance of capillary walls, and breakdown of the alveolar walls
|
|
what is pneumonia
|
an inflammation of the lungs. Can be caused by bacterial or viral invasion of the tissue or by aspiration of foreign substances into the lower respiratory tract
|
|
what is cystic fibrosis
|
a hereditary disease that affects the functioning of the bodys exocrine glands: the mucus secreting and sweat glands
|
|
what do mucolytics do
|
break down mucus and help the high risk respiratory patient cough up thick, tenacious secretions to improve breathing and airflow
|
|
how can mucolytics be administered
|
through a nebulizer or by direct instillation into the trachea
|
|
what do bronchodilators do
|
used to facilitate respiration by dilating the airways
|
|
what is acute bronchitis
|
caused most frequently by virues. Has fever, productive cough, purulent mucus and inflammation that often narrows or obstructs a person's airway
|
|
what is asthma
|
a disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of bronchospasm, bronchial muscle spasm that leads to narrowed or obstructed
|
|
what is chronic airway limitation
|
an umbrella term that describes gradually progressive degenerative diseases such as chronic bronchitis, emphysema, or repeated severe asthma attacks
|
|
what is chronic bronchitis
|
long standing, largely irreversible inflammation of the bronchial tree
|
|
what is emphysema
|
an abnormal distention of the lungs with air characterized by loss or degeneration of elastic tissue, disappearance of capillary walls, and breakdown of the alveolar walls
|
|
what is pneumonia
|
an inflammation of the lungs. Can be caused by bacterial or viral invasion of the tissue or by aspiration of foreign substances into the lower respiratory tract
|
|
what is cystic fibrosis
|
a hereditary disease that affects the functioning of the bodys exocrine glands: the mucus secreting and sweat glands
|
|
what do mucolytics do
|
break down mucus and help the high risk respiratory patient cough up thick, tenacious secretions to improve breathing and airflow
|
|
how can mucolytics be administered
|
through a nebulizer or by direct instillation into the trachea
|
|
what do bronchodilators do
|
used to facilitate respiration by dilating the airways
|
|
what are respiratory anticholinergic agents
|
inhaled anticholinergic drugs are considered first line treatment for CAL. It diminishes the effects of acetylcholine and stops bronchoconstriction
|
|
what are xanthine derivatives
|
bronchodilators that do not work as rapidly as beta-adrenergic agonist drugs
|
|
what are anti-inflammatory agents
|
bronchodilators and are used to manage respiratory disorders, especially asthma
|
|
what are inhaled glucocorticoid steroids
|
most effective antinflammatory drugs available for managing respiratory disorders. Have become first line treatment for persistent asthma
|
|
what are mast cell stabilizers
|
drugs that prrevent mast cells from rupturing which causes inflammatory response such as bronchial constriction, which accounts for the symptoms of an acute asthma attack
|
|
what are leukotriene receptor antagonists
|
leukotrienes are inflammatory mediators that are powerful bronchoconstricotors and vasodilators, and an important mediator of asthma and result in airway hyperreactivity, bronchoconstriction, and hypersecretion
|
|
what is the duodenum
|
small intestine
|
|
what is the duodenum responsible for
|
most digestive functions
|
|
what is peristalsis
|
a rhythmic movement of contraction and expansion of the smooth muscle propels the food toward the stomach
|
|
what are gastric secretions regulated by
|
the parasympathetic nervous system
|
|
what do digestive enzymes do
|
breakdown chyme into nutrients the body can absorb. They are secreted by the pancreas.
|
|
what is vomiting of the GI contents controlled by
|
vomit center in the medulla
|
|
what is gastroesophageal reflux disease
|
allows stomach acid to back up into the esophagus.
|
|
what are the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease
|
heartburn, regurgitation, dysphagia, and waterbrash
|
|
what does helicobacter pylori do
|
wakens the protective mucous lining of the stomach and duodenum causing gastritis and gastric ulcer, duodenal ulcer, gastric cancer, and primary gastric B-cell lymphoma
|
|
what is the current treatment protocol or choice for H. pylori
|
legacy triple therapy, which includes 2 antibiotics and a PPI
|
|
what is peptic ulcer disease
|
a general term that refers to ulcer formation in the esophagus, stomach or duodenum
|
|
what causes PUD
|
H. pylori, aspirin, NSAIDs and glucocorticosteriods
|
|
what are the symptoms of Peptic ulcer disease
|
hematemiesis- vomiting of blood,
melena-dark tarry stools, chest pain, weight loss and nausea and vomiting |
|
what is a stress ulcer
|
an ulcer that is caused by acute or chronic stress especially in burn patients
|
|
what is pancreatitis
|
occurs when the digestive enzymes production is reduced or no longer occurs.
|
|
what is obesity
|
when the BMI exceeds the normal range
|
|
what is nausea and vomiting caused by
|
stimulation of the chemoreceptors in the brain and GI tract.
|
|
what is the chemoreceptor trigger zone
|
zone next to vomiting center that is stimulated by chemicals and drugs ect.
|
|
what are proton pump inhibitors
|
drugs that block the final step of gastric acid production by inhibiting the enzyme system at the secretory surfaces of the gastric parietal cell
|
|
what are histamine-2 receptor antagonists
|
drugs that block histamine at H2 receptors at the parietal cells of the stomach which inhibit gastric acid secretion in all phases and other secretions caused by histamine.
|
|
what do H2-receptor antagonists do
|
inhibit histamine receptor site 2, fasting secretions that occur during the night, as well as secretions stimulated by food, insulin, caffeine, pentagastrin, and betazole. Also reduce the volume of and the hydrogen ion concentration in gastric secretions
|
|
what are antacids
|
drugs that increase the gastric pH thereby neutralizing gastric acidity.
|
|
what are prokinetic agents
|
increase the effect of acetylcholine on the GI system which is resonsible for normal GI function. These agents also increase peristalsis and gastric emptying.
|
|
what are digestive enzymes
|
responsible for breaking down food into forms that can be absorbed easily in the GI tract
|
|
what are drugs for weight management
|
lipase inhibitors and anorexiants
|
|
what are lipase inhibitors
|
used specifically for long-term weight reduction in patients with an initial BMI of 30 or more or who have other cardiovascular risk factors
|
|
What are antiemetics
|
used to treat nausea and vomiting
|
|
how do antiemetics work
|
suppress the stimulation of the CTZ and the VC
|
|
nausea and vomiting related to what is difficult to manage
|
oncologic therapy
|
|
What are selective serotonin receptor antagonists
|
prevent the stimulation of type 3 serotonin receptor in the CTZ
|
|
what are the problems associated with the lower intestinal tract
|
flatus, diarrhea, constipation, irritable bowel syndrome and irritable bowel disease.
|
|
what is peristalsis
|
wave-like muscular contractions and squeezing of the intestines moving the contents through the small and large intestines
|
|
what is flatus
|
normal byproduct of digestion that can cause problems from excessive production or from an inability to pass the gas through the large intestine
|
|
what is diarrhea
|
frequent passage of loose or liquid stools.
|
|
what is constipation
|
infrequent or incomplete passage of hard stools resulting from a decrease in peristaltic activity and slow movement through a colon
|
|
what is fecal impaction
|
patient in unable to pass the hardened mass of feces due to prolonged constipation
|
|
what is irritable bowel syndrome
|
a common disorder of the intestines characterized by altered bowel habits and pain
|
|
what is inflammatory bowel disease
|
general term that includes both ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease
|
|
what is ulcerative colitis
|
inflammatory disease of the large intestine in which ulcers form in the mucosa of the colon or rectum
|
|
what is Crohn disease
|
an inflammation extending into the deeper layers of the intestinal wall. May cause ulcers along the entire colon
|
|
what are antiflatulents
|
decrease gas production, coalesce gas bubbles, and facilitate that passage of gas through belching and expelling flatus
|
|
what are antidiarrheals
|
slow intestinal motility, allowing time for fluid reabsorption and better stool formation
|
|
what are the most effective antidiarrheals
|
opiate derivates, the opiates themselves, and loperamide
|
|
what are laxatives
|
drugs used to treat constipation
|
|
where do laxatives act
|
directly on the intestine to promote peristalsis and evacuation of the bowel
|
|
what do saline laxatives do
|
attract or retain water in the intestinal lumen, resulting in an increased intraluminal pressure that stimulates peristalsis
|
|
who are laxatives contraindicated in
|
patients who have severe abdominal pain that has not been diagnosed, are nauseated and vomiting, or have a bowel obstruction
|
|
What are people with diabetes mellitus at risk for
|
increased risk for cardiovascular disease, kidney failure, blindness, nervous system disease, extremity amputations, dental disease, and complications of pregnancy
|
|
what are oral antidiabetc drugs used to control
|
type 2 diabetes where there is insulin resistance
|
|
where is insulin, glucagon and somatostatin synthesized
|
islets of langerhans in the pancreas
|
|
what is type 1 diabetes
|
an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of the insulin-secreting beta cells in the definition, leading to absolute insulin deficiency
|
|
what is types 2 diabetes
|
result of insulin resistance by the tissues and usually a decrease in insulin production
|
|
what is gestational diabetes mellitus
|
occurs when a women's pancreatic function is not sufficient to overcome hormones severe by the placenta
|
|
what does synthetic insulin do
|
acts in the same manner as endogenously produced insulin
|
|
how do insulin's manage hyperglycemia
|
by promoting cellular glucose uptake and metabolism
|
|
what is insulins primary role
|
regulates carbohydrate metabolism
|
|
what tissues in the body don't need insulin for glucose to enter their bodies
|
brain, nerves, intestine, liver, retina, erythrocytes, and renal tubules do not
|
|
what controls the rate of insulin synthesis and release
|
plasma glucose level
|
|
what is metabolic syndrome
|
insulin-resistant syndrome that is a precursor to the development of type 2 diabetes
|
|
how are correctional basis used
|
insulin dose is based on glucose levels
|
|
what is lipodystrophy
|
disturbances in fate metabolism due to repetitive SC injections into the same injection site
|
|
what are sulfonyureas
|
1st and 2nd generation drugs. They are oral antidiabetic medications
|
|
what are nonsulfonylureas
|
comprise three different classes grouped by their chemical structure: biguanides, thiazolidinediones, and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
|
|
what are the nonsulfonylureas mode of action
|
improving insulin action, delaying the digestion of carbohydrates
|
|
what does the anterior pituitary gland do
|
controls the function glucocorticoid hormone levels (ACTH), body growth and metabolism (GH), function of the thyroid gland (TSH), gonadal function (FSH and LH), and mild production and breast growth (prolactin)
|
|
What does the posterior pituitary gland do
|
stores and secretes two effector hormones (hormones that produce and effect when stimulated): oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)
|
|
what does they gyroid gland do
|
controls cellular metabolism and promotes normal growth and development
|
|
what does the parathyroid gland do
|
PTH affects bone, kidneys and GI tract. It controls serum calcium
|
|
what are the anterior pituitary gland dysfunctions
|
growth hormone deficiency and growth hormone excess
|
|
what is growth hormone deficiency
|
short stature or dwarfism
|
|
what is growth hormone excess
|
gigantism and acromegaly
|
|
what are the anterior pituitary gland dysfunctions
|
diabetes insipidus and SIADH
|
|
what is the thyroid gland dysfunction
|
hyperthroidism and hyperthroidism
|
|
what are the parathryroid gland dysfunctions
|
hypocalcemia-tetany convulsions, muscle spasm, and neuromuscular excitability
hypercalcemia- osteoperosis, immobilization, peptic ulcers, kidney stones |
|
what is growth hormone used to treat
|
short stature
|
|
how is hyperthyroidism treated
|
with thyroid-hormone antagonist drugs, surgery, or radioactive iodine
|
|
what are antihypercalemic drugs used to treat
|
paget disease
|
|
how do antigypercalcemic drugs work
|
do not directly affect the parathyroid gland or PTH but they inhibit bone resorption of calcium
|
|
what are the symptoms of paget
|
bone pain and deformity, fractures, spinal cord compression, or cranial and spinal cord entrapment
|
|
what regulates absorption of calcium and phosphate from the small intestine and mineral reabsorption in bone
|
vitamin D
|
|
what are androgens
|
naturally occurring or synthetic steroidal compounds that produce that masculinizing and tissue building properties of testosterone
|
|
what secretes the follicle stimulating horomore and lutenizing hormone
|
pituitary gland
|
|
what is a hormonal problem
|
deficient in endogenous sex hormones causes abnormal sexual development
|
|
what is erectile dysfunction
|
the inability to achieve or maintain an erection in at least every three of four attempt at intercourse
|
|
what is benign prostatic hypertrophy
|
occurs spontaneously in men as they age, which results in an enlargement of the prostate gland
|
|
what is the male pattern baldness
|
baldness of the vertex of the scalp
|
|
what is prostate cancer
|
a malignant metastasizing cancer and the second most common cause of cancer death in men
|
|
what are the two main types of female sex hormones
|
estrogen and progestin
|
|
how it osteoporosis formed in postmenopausal women
|
the loss of estrogen and its positive effects on bone remodeling
|
|
what is osteoporosis
|
characterized by low bone mineral density, is a loss in bone mass sufficient to compromise normal function osteoporosis occurs when the body fails to form enough new bone, reabsorbs too much of the old bone, or both.
|
|
how is estrogen used in men
|
more palliative therapy in prostatic and breast cancers.
|
|
what do biphosphonates do
|
affects normal and abnormal bone resorption
|