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481 Cards in this Set

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Cardiac myocyte resting potential determined by ?
K+ (resting is -90 to -95), which is about what K+ equibrium potential is
Where are fast response action potentials normal?
atrial and ventricular muscle, and purkinje fibers (resting potential) about -90mV
Slow response action potentials normal?
SA node and AV node
-Resting membrane potentials about -5 mV
Automaticity?
slow decrease in K+ efflux
increase in Na+ and Ca++ influx
Intrinsic automaticity rates?
SA node --> 80-120
AV node --> 40-60
Purkinje (fast response)--> 20-40 bpm
Where is Ca++ important or not?
Important nodal tissue
Not important purkinje fibers
When can Na+ enter cardiac cycle?
Only during "OPEN" Na+ channels
-absolute refractory period --> Na+ channels inactivated and Na+ can't enter cell
Fast response Vmax is function of ?
available "rested" fast Na+ channels
-phase 0 action potential
slowresponse Vmax is function of ?
available "rested" fast Ca++
channels
-phase 0 action potential
(note: PR interval represents period of slow conduction)
Antiarrythmic treatment could cause?
EADs --> torsades de pointes
Digitalis can cause?
DADs
Almost all clinically important tachyarrythmias are due to?
reentry
-rqs unidirectional block and slowed conduction
Class I
Block fast Na+ channels
Class II
Block beta-adrenergic receptors
Class III
Block K+ chnnels/prolong repolarization
Class IV
Block Ca++ channels
How do Class I drugs act?
Block fast Na+ channels that open during PHASE 0 depol.
What kind of action potentials act on?
Fast response
Physiological effect Class I?
Slow conduction
-terminate reentrant arrythmias
-protect ventricles in Supraventricular Tachyarrythmias
What happes to Phase 0 w/ Class I drugs?
Decrease amplitued
Decrease rate of depolarization
Problem w/ Class I drugs?
May creat REENTRY circuit --> proarrythmic
Besides myocardial cells, what else do Class I act on?
Pukinje fibers
-->suppress automaticity
-->decrease abnormal automaticity in atrial and ventricular myocytes
When does class I bind to Na+ channel/when released?
binds --> Open or Inactivated
releases --> rested
Besides Na+ block, other physiological effects Class IA drugs?
K+ channel block --> increase action potential duration and effective refractory period (similar class III)

Anticholinergic effects --> INCREASE A-V conduction velocity --> speed conduction of impulses through AV node
2 class IA drugs? --> what kind of dissociation rate?
Quinidine
Procainamide
-intermediate dissociation rate
Muscarinic and Alpha Receptor blockade?
Quinidine
Oral or IV

vs

Oral only?
Oral or IV - Procainamide
Oral only--> quinidine
Acetylated to NAPA?
*this was a USMLE world question w/ LUPUS syndrome (hint)
Procainamide (N-acetyl Procainamide)
What does NAPA do?
Has class III properties --> blocks K+ channels
1/3 patients discontinue due to GI affects?
Quinidine
-also "quinidine syncope" --> alpha blockade
Lupus-like autoimmune syndrome?
Procainamide
Pro-arrythmia (Torsades de pointes)
Class III --> block K+
-Procainamide (NAPA)
Class Ib? what kind of dissociation rates?
Lidocaine
-fast dissociation rate, enhanced at Rapid heart rates
Big difference of Lidocaine vs Quinidine or Procainamide?
Decrease ACTION POTENTIAL DURATION and EFFECTIVE REFRACTORY PERIOD
How does Lidocaine (class IB) exhibit use dependence?
fast heart rate, depressed fast response action potentials when spend more time in open or active state
How must Lidocaine be given for antiarrythmic therapy?
IV
**DO NOT GIVE w/ EPI containing solution
Toxicity of Lidocaine?
local anesthetics (drowsiness, tremors, convulsions)
Class IC? what dissociation rate?
Flecainide, slow dissociation rate
-act at normal heart rates
What feature do all Na+ channel blockers exhibit?
use dependence
Other action of Flecainamide (besides Na+ channel block)?
blocks K+ channel --> (repolarization and prolongs actio potential duration inventricles)
As opposed to Lidocaine, how do you take Flecainide?
Oral only (recall, Lidocaine is IV only)
IB vs IC mnemonic?
IB is Best post MI
IC is Contraindicated post-MI
Class II drugs act how?
Beta adrenergic receptor antagonists
Effect of beta blockade? --> what phase?
**magnitude depends on level sympathetic tone
Phase 4 depolarization --> autonomic cells (sinus node AND purkinje fibers)
Effect of beta blockade? --> general activity?
**magnitude depends on level sympathetic tone
Decrease HR and ectopic automaticity (decrease rate phase 4)
-Enhance AV block (slow conduction)
-reduce myocardial contractility and oxygen demand
What happens with stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors?
Increased cAMP in myocardial cells-->
phosphorylation of Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ influx
2 beta blockers class II?
Propanolol and Esmolol
potential to block Na+ channels at high concentrations ("Quinidine like action"
Propranolol
Selective beta-1 blocker?
Esmolol
Non-selective beta blockers?
Propranolol
IV only?
Esmolol
Very short 1/2 life-->about 10 minutes and rapidly degraded by esterases?
Esmolol --> this is why give IV
Prevent cardiac death in post-MI patients?
Propranolol
Supraventricular arrythmias treatment?
Propranol
Why are beta-blockers effective?
sympathetic activity of body may contribute to many forms of arrythmias
Primary action Phase III drugs?
block K+ channels
-Phase 3 depolarization
What blocks Phase 0, versus 3
Phase 0--> class I (Na+ channel)
Phase 3 --> Class III (K+ channel)
Result of Class III drugs
prolong action potential duration (prolong refractory period) in atrial and ventricular muscle and Purkinje fibers
Class III drugs?
Amiodarone (oral and IV)
Bretylium (IV only)
Pulmonary fibrosis?
Amiodarone
Initial adrenergic stimulation, followed by INHIBITION of NE reelase?
Bretylium
Acts on normal myocardioctyes
Bretylium
Unique feature Amiodarone
Has Class I, II, III properties
Why only use Amiodarone short term therapy?
long term --> PULMONARY FIBORIS, could also cause Torsades
Unique feature of Bretylium
Emergency treatment of sustained ventricular fibrillation
Primary action Class IV drugs?
blockade of L-type Ca2+ channels in myocardial and smooth muscle
As w/ Na+ channels, class IV drugs exhibit?
Use dependence
--> more effective at faster rates
Where do Class IV drugs (like Diltiazem) exert effect?
slow response action potentials
-sinus and AV nodes, depolarized or damaged cardiac myocytes
What Phases does class IV act? effects?
Phase 4--> decrease HR
Phase 0-->slow AV conduction
Who contraindictaed for diltizem?
CHF
How might Diltiazem increase HR?
-relaxation of vascular smooth muscle causes decreased arterial pressure, and baroreflex response may INCREASE HR (opp drugs's direct effect on sinus node)
Why is Diltizaem effective a treating arrytmias?
Slow AV conduction to decrease ventricular rate
-->effect of class IV drugs on AV CONDUCTION is basis for use in treating Supraventricular tachycardias
What are the miscellaneous antiarrythmic drugs?
Adenosine

Cardiac Glycosides (Digoxin)
Blocks Na+/K+ ATPase?
Digoxin (cardiac glycosides)
Increase in parasympathetic activity
Digoxin --> depolarizes baroreceptor nerve endings --> increase parasymp activity
Why might First Aid say digoxin provides van gogh effect?
cholinergic --> nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, blurry yellow vision (wasn't mentioned in class)
Has an ultra-short half life?
Adenosine --> must be given by rapid IV bolus
How is Adenosine considered "vagomimetic"
Acts through G-protein coupled adenosine receptors --> vagomimetic
Whch system is most responsive to vasodilation from Nitrate stimulation?
Veins>Arteries>Arterioles
**veins affected at very low doses
Does sublingual or ointment nitroglycerine last longer?
Nitroglycerine ointment lass much longer
-but sublingual acts very quickly
What are the 2 organic nitrate drugs we need to know?
Nitroglycerin
Isosorbide dinatrate
What is the difference between Isosorbide dinitrate and Nitroglycerine?
Nitro --> short 1/2 life (minutes), sublingual rapid

Isosorbide --> 5 hour half life, better for preventing angina
In general, how do Organic Nitrates work?
Vasodilate by releasing NO in smooth muscle --> increase cGMP --> smooth muscle relax
Organic nitrates act more on preload or afterload?
Decrease preload (LVEDP)
Problem with Nitrates?
Nitrate tolerance --> need 8 hour times when not using
Side effects Nitrates?
**reflex tachycardia, hypotension, flushing,headache
Calcium channel blockers --> how act compared to Nitrates?
They decrease AFTERLOAD
-VASODILATE CORONARY ARTERIES
-also reduce Heart Rate --> decreases myocardial O2 consumption
"balanced" myocardial, electrophysiologic and vascular effects?
Type I
-Verapamil
-Diltiazem
Have predominantly vascular effects
Type II Ca2+ channel blockers
-Nifidepine
Which Ca2+ channel blocker causes most probs?
Nifedipine --> 20% patients
-hypotension, headache, peripheral edema
Which Ca2+ channel blocker causes least side effects?
Diltiazem --> 5%
-hypotension, peripheral edema, AV block, cardiodepression
Some side effects of Verapamil
moderate --> anywhere from cardiodepression, hypotension, AV blcok, edema, headache, constipation
How is Nifidepine different from Diltizem and Verapamil?
Nifidipine --> mainly vascular smooth muscle
-Verapamil = ventricle --> balanced myocardial and vascular effects
First aid says can also use nifidepine for?
Prinzmetal's or Raynaud's
How do beta blocker work to treat ischemic heart disease?
Decrease myocardial O2 demand
-Decrease Heart rate
-Decrease myocardial contractility
Main problem with beta blockers...+ a few side others?
**May worsen bronchospasm
-CHF, bradyarrythmias
Favorable effect beta blockers
Reduce sudden death and infarction
beta blocker we learned and why so good?
Metoprolol --> proven post-MI effectiveness
-Beta 1>beta2 selectivity
What is the basis for combo therapy of beta blockers and diuretics?
compensatory response to vasodilators
What is the phosphodiesterase inhibitor we learned about?
Sildenafil (specifically acts on #5)
What is Sildenafil used for?
"Fills" the penis to give good erection
-PDE5 inhibitor (Viagra)
-decreased caclium via cGMP = smooth muscle relaxation
What is a contraindication for use of Sildenafil?
Nitrate use
**also may INHIBIT OR INDUCT CYP3A4
First Aid mnemonic Sildenafil?
Hot and sweaty --> but then Headache, Heartburn, Hypotension

-Risk life-threatening hypotension if taking nitrates
What drug affects myocardial contractility?
Digoxin (inotropic)
(Digitalis Glycosides)
Where does Digoxin work?
Inhibits sodium potassium ATPase -->increases intracellular Na+ --> increases intracellular Ca2+
Effects of digitalis on the failing heart?
Increased myocardial contractility
Increased sensitivity of baroreceptor nerve endings
What is important to remember when administering Digoxin?
Loading dose
**Narrow Therapeutic index
Drug interactions with Digoxin?
Quinidine can double levels
-diruretics as well
Digitalis toxicity
Cardiac arrytjmia, GI, Neurological
Problem with diuretics?
Excessive diuresis = volume depletion
-Loss of K+ problematic, esp. if taking digitalis
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors? (ACE)
Captopril
EnalAPRIL
Lisinopril
Mechanism of ACE inhibitor?
1. Inhibit conversion angiotensin I to angiotensin II
2. Increase BRADYKININ (vasodiliator) by inhibiting kininase II (may result in cough)
Great effects of ACE inhibitors for someone w/ CHF?
1. vasodilation
2. decrease aldosterone
3. decrease sympathetic activity
4. Decreased cardiac remodeling
First ACE inihibtor?
Captopril
Major difference between Captopril and Enalapril?
EnalAPRIL /-APRIL drugs are prodrugs
-->substantially longer 1/2 life (11 hours vs 2 hours for Captopril)
Enalapril more or less side effects than Captopril?
Similar, but fewer GI effects
CAPTOPRIL mnemonic to remember adverse effects?
Cough
Angioedema
Proteinuria
Taste Changes
hypOtension
Pregnancy probs (2nd and 3rd trimesters)
Rash
Increased renin
Lower angiotensin II + HYPOkalemia
How is Losartan different from Captopril/others?
Does NOT cause cough b/c it is an Angiotensis Receptor Blocker
-->does not cause Bradykin byproduct!
Is Lisinopril as active as Captopril -->
yes
What are the Antiotensin Receptor Blockers (2)
Valsartan
Losartan
How do Angiotensin II receptor blockers work?
bind receptors and displace angiotensin II from receptor
**KEY-->DO NOT INHIBIT BREAKDOWN OF BRADYKININ!!! --> don't cause cough
Which works longer, Losartan or Valsartan?
LOsartan works LOnger (6-9 hours) vs 6 hours
Do ACE inhibitors and blockers reduce preload or afterload?
Tricky --> BOTH :)!
FYI, what to note about Spironolactone and Eplerenone?
block aldosterone binding mineralcorticoid receptr
-->May cause HYPERkalemia
-may have significant impact on myocardial remodeling
First beta blocker labeled for treatment of mild to moderate heart failure?
Carvedilol
Mechanism of Carvedilol
Nonselective beta and alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonist
First line therapy for structural heart dz w/ no symptoms?
ACE inhibitors or ARBs in all patients, beta blockers in selected patients
What might you try after than
Diuretics and Digoxin --> once symptomatic
When should you use Inotrpes
Refractory symptoms requiring special intervention
Which drugs affect primarily preload?
Nitrates
Which drugs primarily affect afterload?
Hydralazine
tranpsorts cholesterol to the liver, where it is broken down to become part of bile that is excreted in feces?
HDL
transports cholesterol from liver to other organs --> build plasma membranes/make sterols --> plaque deposits and coronary artery dz --> "bad cholesterol"
LDL
FYI, what to note about Spironolactone and Eplerenone?
block aldosterone binding mineralcorticoid receptr
-->May cause HYPERkalemia
-may have significant impact on myocardial remodeling
First beta blocker labeled for treatment of mild to moderate heart failure?
Carvedilol
Mechanism of Carvedilol
Nonselective beta and alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonist
First line therapy for structural heart dz w/ no symptoms?
ACE inhibitors or ARBs in all patients, beta blockers in selected patients
What might you try after than
Diuretics and Digoxin --> once symptomatic
When should you use Inotrpes
Refractory symptoms requiring special intervention
Which drugs affect primarily preload?
Nitrates
Which drugs primarily affect afterload?
Hydralazine
tranpsorts cholesterol to the liver, where it is broken down to become part of bile that is excreted in feces?
HDL
transports cholesterol from liver to other organs --> build plasma membranes/make sterols --> plaque deposits and coronary artery dz --> "bad cholesterol"
LDL
Lipid lowering drugs can cause myopathy/renal failure?
Statins
How do statins act?
Competitively inhibit HMG-CoA Reductase --> RLS cholesterol synthesis
When is it best to give statins?
At night (during night cholesterol synthesis increases)
What are the Statins we need to know?
Simvastatin
Pravastatin
Atorvastatin
Simvastatin
Pravastatin
Atorvastatin
-prodrug (simple diffusion)
Simvastatin
Simvastatin
Pravastatin
Atorvastatin
-uptake by OATP2
Pravastatin
Which is not high first hepatic metabolism b/c of P450 3A4, 2C9
Pravastatin
Which takes about 20 hours to reach peak plasma concentration?
Atrovastatin
Are statins highly bound?
yes --> >95% protein binding in plasma
Biggest side effects of stains?
Myopathy and Renal Failure
-Neuropathy
-Contra moms
-Liver problems
Drug Drug interactions statins?
-P450 3A4 --> increased Coumarin levles
-OAT2 inhibitors - gemfibrozil --> increased circulating statin levels
Good news about statins?
first choice for treatment of most patients w/ hypercholesterolemia
Which statin can you take w/ or w/o food and anytime of day?
Atorvastatin
How do Bile Acid-binding Resins (sequestrants) work?
Bind anionic bile acids in intestinl lumen
-->resin-bile acid complex cannot be absorbed --> excreted in stool
How does lowering concentration of bile acids help?
causes hepatocytes to increase conversion of cholesterol to bile acids --> decreases intracell cholesterol
-->increase number hepatic LDL receptors
-->increased uptake LDL particles
What are the Bile acid binding resins we learned about (3)
Cholestipol, Cholestyramine, Colesevelam
Why is Colsevelam especially good, but why bad?
take a little bit less, but first aid says patients hate b/c tastes bad
When are bile-acid binding resins not useful?
Patient w/ hypertriglyceridemia (high TG w/o elevated LDL)
-useful only where LDL is elevated, can also increase HDL cholest. some
Side effects Bile acid binding residues?
May increase TG
-Gi distress/Constipation, bloating
-decreased absorption of other drugs; take 1 hr or 3 hrs before taking the resin
How does Ezetimibe act?
inhibits cholesterol absorption
-brush boder jejunem enterocytes (Niemann-Pick C2-like protein)
major impact on cholesterol ezetimibe?
inihibts cholesterol absorption by ~55%
-reduces LDL 18%
Two big actions of fibric acids?
1. Decreased synthesis of VLDL (decrease in VLDL, increase HDL, ecrease in trigylcerides, +/- LDL)
2. Complex MoA involving PPAR-alpha agonism and altered gene expression
What are the 2 fibric acid derivatives we need to know?
Fenofibrate
Gemfibrozil
How are Fenofibrate
Gemfibrozil different?
Fenofibrate - 20 hr t1/2
Gemfibrozil - 1.1 hr t1/2
Why is Fibric acid activation of PPAR-alpha so useful?
Decrease plasma triglyceride levels
Increase plasma HDl
-increases activity of lipoprotein lipase, esp. in skeletal muscle
Fibrates are most effective at?
Reducing VLDL (TG), smaller decrease in LDL but useful increase in HDL
Major HDL lipoproteins vs VLDL?
PPAR-alpha
-increase ApoAI and AII (HDL)
-decrease ApoCIII (VLDL)
Main side effects fibrates?
myalgias, rhadomyolysis, gallstones, etc.
Important interaction of fibrates?
Increased Rhabdomyolysis with STATIN!!!
Drug interactions of Fibrates (Gemfibrozil and Fenofibrate)?
Warfarin --> increase of free warfarin concentration--> bleeding

Cyclosporine --> increased clearance of this immunosupressant --> acute organ transplant rejection
Most effective agent for raising HDL?
Nicotinic acid (Niacin, Vitamin B3)
What does Nicotinic acid act on/not?
Reduces VLDL and LDL
-No effect on synthesis of cholesterol or excretion of bile acids
user problem with niacin?
frequent dosing
What does niacin (B3) act on?
decreases activity of hormone sensitive lipase
Biggest problem with niacin
Ulcers
First aid mentions a few problems with niacin
Red, flused face (decreased w/ aspirin), hyperglycemia (acanthosis nigricans), Hyperuricemia --> exacerbates gout
Itching
Contraindications
-->liver d, severe gout, peptic ulcer
Safe combos?
Niacin + resin
(first choice against heterozygous famililal hypercholesterolemia)
Safer combos
Statin + bile acid sequestrant --> LDL-lowering
Riskier combos
Statins + fibric acid or Niacin
-->greater incidence myopathy
Which type of OR (opoid receptor) produces some Dysphoria
Kappa (think of the kappas being high)
How do opoids act presynaptically?
decreases Ca2+ influx and synaptic vesicle release in response to APs
How do opoids act postsynaptically
activate Mu-OR --> increases K+ conductance --> decreases the postsynaptic response to excitatory neurotransmission
Opoids also inhibit adenyl cyclase --> what does this do?
decrease of cAMP and inhibition of Na+ channels
Strong Mu OR agonists include (5)
Morphine
Heroin
Methadone
Meperidine
Fentanyl
What is the gold standard Mu OR agonist?
Morphine
Main pharacological effects morphine?
Analgesia
Suppression of cough (ORs in CTZ)
Respiratory depression
Reduce GI motility --> constipation
Bronchoconstriction and hypotension --> don't use in asthma
How is morphine given?
High first pass
-->given injection (IV or IM) or slow-release tablets
How is morphine metabolized
Liver --> problem with neonates
What happens if morphine used with MAO-I?
Hypertensive crissis possible --> blocks reputake serotonin
classic feature of someone with morphine ooverdose?
Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression
Hypertensive crisis?
Opoids hyperstimulate postsynaptic serotonin receptors by blocking serotonin re-uptake
How does Heroin compare to Morphine?
Not stronger but faster
-->very lipid solube, readily crosses BBB, short half life
Why is Methadone a handy drug?
USed for treatment of Opoid abuse --> in presence of methadone, morphine does not cause the normal EUPHORIA or physical abstinence syndrome
What features about Methadone make it an appropriate treatment of Opoid abuse?
longer duration of action >24 hours --> less w/drawal effects
Problems with Methadone
Respiratory depression
-Rifampin (TB tx) lwoers levels of methadone
Unique feature of Meperidine?
Does NOT produce pnpoint pupil
Who do you never give Meperidine to?
MAO-I --> resp. depression, hyperpyrexia, convulsions
Meperidine drug interactions?
pentobarbital and thiopental, heparin, methicillin, sodium bicarb
*MAO-I
Meperidine life-threatening side effects?
Significant anitmuscarinic effects (contra if tachycardia)
Negative ionotropic action
Resp depression
Cardiac arrest
How does Fentanyl compare with morphine?
similar but more POTENT and FAST-ACTING
Fentanyl drug interactions?
incompatible with pentobarbital and thiopental
-if taken w/ MAO-I may precipitate hypertensive crisis
Fentanyl, like many other drugs, can cause?
Respirtory depression
WHat are some Mild agonists of Opoid receptors?
Codeine
Hydrocodone
Oxycodone
Propoxyphene
How is codeine used?
in combination with aspirin or acetaminophen
Other use of codeine besides pain management?
Antitussive and antidiarrheal treatment
Bad drug combo codeine?
Coma is possilbe when combined w/ CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE
-note: alcohol will make sleepy
Why is Hydrocodone not as good as Codeine?
more addiciting and slightly more antitussive action
-also respiratory depression
Oxycodone, like codeine, is given in cobo with Acetaminophen and asprin --> how is its potency?
10-12 X more potent than codeine
-also alters perception of pain
-no antitussive action
Life threatening unique side effect Oxycodone?
HepatOtOxicity --> OxycOdOne
Really bad side effect of Propoxyphene
Fatalities reported with alcohol, less effective than codeine (also resp. depression, like most)
What are 3 Opoids with mixed receptor actions?
Buprenophine
Pentazocine
Tramadol
How does Buprenorphine compare with morphine?
Partial Mu agonist--> 25-50X that of morphine

Kappa antagonist >3 times than Naloxone
How long does Buprenorphine act?
slow dissociation from Mu receptors
What particular use does Buprenorphine have?
Reduce Opiate addiction
Drug interactions of Buprenorphine
possible resp or CV collapse w/ diazepam
Life threatening side effects
Resp depression (like most)
Primary action of Pentacozine?
KAPPA receptors (analgesia) agonist
Where else is Pentacozine an antagonist?
Mu and Delta receptors
What may happen if use Pentaxozine in Mu dependent people?
Precipitate withdrwal syndrome
How is Pentacozine different from morphine?
MUCH less Euphoria than morphine
-still can cause resp depression though
unique side effect pentacozine?
Increases BP and thus myocardial workload --> should NOT be administered in MI
How is tramadol a unique analgesic?
Inhibits Norepinephrine and serotonin re-uptake in CNS --> central acting
what receptor does tramadol act?
weak Mu receptor agonist
Drug interactions tramadol?
MAO-I
Side effects unique to tramadol?
Urine retention, constipation, anxiety, anorexia, rash
2 Opoid antagonists?
Naloxone and Naltrexone
What is the action of opoid antagonists in normal people?
Not really much action
Are there any side effects to Naloxone or Naltrexone
NONE! :)
First Pure Opoid ANTAGONIST
-affinity for all 3 types of opoid receptors
Naloxone
Naloxone vs Naltrexone half life
Naloxone --> first and slowest 1/2 life

Naltrexone has longer duration of action/1/2 life
When use Naloxone?
Life threatening situations for narcotic overdose (heroin)
When Use Naltrexone?
Detoxification
Baby side effects Naloxone
=too rapid reversal may cause sweating, arrhythmias/tachycardia, nausea, vomiting
Naltrexone side effect
Hepatotoxicity
Why is the lcinical use of opoids limited?
tolerance and dependance
How does one become tolerant to morphine?
desens. of mu and delta receptors by PKC, PKA, and beta-adrenergic receptor kinase

etorphine and enkephaline, but not morphine cause rapid internalization of mu receptor
Opoid abstinance syndrome?
Early --> piloerection (cold turkey), anxiety, drug requests, dilated pupils
Late-->nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, fever, ab pain, tachycardia, insomnia
proposed mechanism of general anesthetics?
increase the activity of GABA receptors and potassium channels and decrease the activity of acetylcholine receptors and glutamate receptors
What do Barbiturates do well?
Rapid onset Anesthesia
What do Barbiturates do poorly?
Poor Analgesia, little muscle relaxation
Good features about Barbiturates?
Rapid onset, terminated by redistribution
How can you make terminal 1/2 lives of barbiturates longer?
continued infusion
What barbiturate still has relatively rapid clearance, even with continued injusion?
Methohexital
Who are barbiturates contraindicated in
Porphyria
Are barbiturates potentially helpful for seizures?
yes
Who requires higher induction dose of barbiturates?
Neonates and infants
Barbiturate toxicity?
decreased cerebral metabolism, blood flow, blood pressure, respiration, muscle tremors, hiccups
What does Methohexital have especially bad sideeffects?
Paradoxical excitation (muscle tremors)

Hiccups
What is the most commonly used barbiturate?
Thiopental
What are the 3 barbiturates we learned?
Thiopental
Thiamylal (not recommended for use)
Methohexital
Mechanism of action of barbiturates?
Facilitate GABAa action by increase duration of Cl- opening, thus DECREASE neuron firing
How is Propofol similar to barbiturates?
Onset and duration (redistribution important)
**similar toxicities
**Potentiates GABAa
How is Propofol different from Barbiturates?
High degree of clearance (hepatic) --> less "hangover" than thiopental
**good for short procedures
Why might sensitive people not like propofol?
Pain on injection (FYI MJ supposedly died from propofol)
What drug is cardiostable, so used in patients with risk for hypOtension?
Etomidate --> used for induction
Why is Etomidate only used for induction?
Poor analgesia
Toxicity we need to know about Etomidate?
Nausea and Vomiting
Suppression of adrenocortical stress response
**note: fentanyl prolongs elimination 1/2 life
How does Ketamine act, compared to barbiturates, etomidate, and Propofol?
Blocks GLUTAMATE receptors, not GABAergic
Who is Ketamine used in?
patients w/ risk for Hypotension or brochospasm since it increases blood pressure and is a bronchodilator
-->useful in children undergoing short painful procedures
What kindof state does Ketamine put patient in?
It is an IV anesthetic by itself (analgesic) and provides amnesia despite the patient being awake (Dissociative state)
Describe someone in dissociative anesthesia/cataleptic state
Profound Analgesia, are amnesiac, and are unresponsive to commands

Eyes open, move limbs involuntarily, breathe spontaneously
Ketamine drug interactions?
potentiates non-depolarizing muscle relaxants --> (ketamine+theophylline --> seizures), toxicity includes delirium and cataleptic state
What drugs provide pain at injection site?
Propofol, Etomidate (methohexital)
Who use for patients at risk for hypotension?
Etomidate or Ketamine
Who use for patients at risk for bronchospasm
Ketamine
Decreases blood pressure and depresses respiration?
Propofol
Can produce nausea and vomiting, suppresses stress response
Etomidate
Can cause cataletpic state?
Ketamine
Emergence delirium
Ketamine
Slow clearance after continous infusion?
Thiopental
More rapid recovery?
Propofol
The above questions are very high yield, at least make srue you know them very well!!!
Do it
Musculalar rigidity?
Opoids and Ketamine
Hallucinations and emergence delirium?
Katamine
Steroidogenesis inhibition?
Etomidate
Reduces pain threshold (???)
Thiopental
Increases cerebral blood flow, while other decrease?
Ketamine
How does blood gas coefficient relate to induction of anethesia and duration of action?
Higher blood/gas partition coefficient, longer it takes to induce anestheia and the longer duration of action
Lower cardiac output causes slower or faster induction?
Faster
One thing to know about Halothane?
Liver toxcity --> drug induced hepatits and hepatic necrosis
Other big side effect Halothane?
Malignant Hypothermia --> genetic predispostion
-->use dantolene as treatment
Ptoency, induction? Halothane
Very potent
Slow induction (high blood gas coefficient)
note: also decreases cerebral blod flow
One thing to know about Enflurane?
Increased seizure activity (pro-convulasant)
One thing to know about Isoflurane?
Dilates coronary arteries (potential for "coronary steal", use avoided in patients w/ coronary heart dz)
What is coronary steal
if coronary heart dz, may perfuse dead tissue with oxygen as result of mass vasoidilation, taking it from where it is needed
One thing to know about Desflurane?
Coughing, salivation, bronchospasm in awake patients (strong airway irritant and therefore not used for induction)
Sevoflurane fact to know?
toxicity concern rapidly developing nervous system
**RAPID USE, TURN OFF/ON quickly
Methoxyflurane fact to know?
withdrawn because Fluoride ions cause kindey damage
What drug could cause impotent?
Nitrous oxide
MAC = 105!!!!
What concentration can you not used N2O (nitrous oxide) above?
80% --> result in hypoxia --> adjunct to other anesthetics at 50-70%
Where might Nitrous Oxide accumulate?
Gas-filled spaces and can cause bowel distension, pneumothorax, pain with obstructed inner ear
What do you need to give at the end of anesthesia invovling N2O?
100% oxygen to avoid diluting O2 in lung, causing "diffusional hyoxia"
Who is N2O contraindicated in?
Patients with Pulmonary Hypertension due to increased vascular resistance!!!
Metabolite toxicity of inhalation anesthetics?
Trifluoracetylchloride --> halothane
Kidney damage w/ methoxflurane
What inhalation anesthetics migh cause malignant hyperthermia?
Halogenated agents (all but N2O), especially worse w/ Halothane
Do neuromuscular blockers have Analgesic properties?
No
What are Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? vs the one depolarizing NMB we learned about?
-onium/-urium drugs and d-Tubocuraine are non-depolarzing

Depolarzing --> succinylcholine
Shared action of Non-depolariing NMJ blockers?
COMPETITIVE ANTAGONISTS at NICOTINIC RECEPTORS of the NMJ
-->compete w/ acetycholine
Prototype Non-depolarizing Neuromuscular blocker?
d-Tubocurarine
Are non-depolarzing NMJ blockers orally active?
no
Sequence of paralysis NMJ non-depol blockers?
fine movement (Fingers) > LImbs>Trunk>intercostals>diaphragm
**Recovery in reverse order
**BREATHING recovers first
Problems w/ non-depolarzing NMJ blockers?
ganglionc blockade = decreased BP
Histamine release = decreased BP, bronchospasm secretions
Muscarinic receptor blocker = tachycardia
How is d-tubocurarine eliminated?
Renal elimination , 3.5 hour half life (relatively long for NMJ blocker)
How increase recovery from paralysis from non-depolarizing NMJ blocker??
Administer cholinesterase inhibitor
Hepatic metabolism?
Vecuronium
Hoffman Elimination (spontaneous breakdown)?
Vecuronium
Atracurium
Mivacurium?
Atracurium
Plasma esterases break it down, shortest duration of action
Vecuronium
Atracurium
Mivacurium?
Mivacurium
What can be given w/ the anticholinesterase inhibitors (to help minimize side effects NMJ non-depol blockers), to help minimize their side effects?
Muscuarinic anticholinergic agents like atropine can minimize bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and salivation
What undergoes spontaneous depolarization, and therefore has more predictable response in all?
Vecuronium
Atracurium
Mivacurium
Pancuronium?
Atracurium (recall, Hoffman/spontaneous degradation/elimination)
What has much greater differences in the elderly and renal failure --> less predicatable response
Vecuronium
Atracurium
Mivacurium
Pancuronium?
Pancuronium
Drug interactions of NMJ non-depolarizaing blockers?
Calcium channel blockers (decrease release acetylcholine)

Certain inhalation anesthetics (halothane, isoflurane, enflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) --> action potentiated

Aminoglycoside antibiotics
What is the one depolarizing neuromuscular blocker we elarned?
Succinylcholine
What is the mechanism of succinylcholine?
Depolarizing blockade
-agonist that acts like an antagonist
How quickly does succinylcholine act?
Shortest time to onset (~1 min) and duration of action (5-10 min)
Initial response to administration succinylcholine
Wave of fasciculation
Phase I block (early in block) succinylcholine?
cholinesterase inhibitors INTENSIFY BLOCK (prolonged depolarization), no antidote!!
Phase II block succinylcholine and chloinesterase inhibotrs?
cholinesterase inhbitors may potentially reverse block (use neostigmine)
Problems associated with depolarizing Neuromuscular blockade (succinylcholine)
Myalgia (muscle soreness)
K+ release from skeletal muscle --> hyperkalemia --> cardiac arrhythmias
**beware in patients w/ extensive burns or soft tissue damage + paraplegics
Atypical pseudocholinesterase-->prolonged paralysis
Malignant hyperthermia (rare)
Skeletal muscle relaxants
Baclofen
Dantrolene
GABAb rececptor agonist?
Baclofen
-acts in spinal cords and supraspinal CNS --> inhibit excitation to motor neurons
Who use Baclofen for?
Treatment of SPASTICITY associated w/ MS
Spinal cord injury
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic de leroux)
Inhibits calcium release form sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle?
Dantrolene
Use Dantrolene?
tx of malignant HYPERthermia (caused by inhalation of anesthetics (except N2O) and succinylcholine
First aid use of dantrolene?
Treat neuroleptic malignant sydrome (toxicity of antipsychotic drugs)
treatment of cardiac arrythmias
Lidocaine for ventricular arrhythmias
Mucosal vasoconstrictor of upper airway?
cocaine
obtund pressor resposne to tracheal intubation
IV lidocaine
drug of abuse
cocaine
Local anesthetics work at what type of channel?
reversibly block nerve conduction through inhibition of sodium channel activity (fast voltage-gated channels)
Which form of local anesthetics bind to channel?
Ionized drug binds to channel
**but penetrates membrane in uncharged form
**effect of pH is a crucial concept
Local anesthetics preferntially bind to ?
inactivated sodium channels --> stabilize inactive state
-->block FAST FIRST
Primary action local anesthetics
Sensory nerves>motor nerves (somatic and autonomic)>CNS>CVS>other smooth muscle>skeletal muscle
Sensory nerve sodium gated channel?
Nav1.7
Order of functional block and recovery local anesthetics?
pain, autonomic C-fibers>cold>warmth>touch>deep pressure>motor
treatment of cardiac arrythmias
Lidocaine for ventricular arrhythmias
Mucosal vasoconstrictor of upper airway?
cocaine
obtund pressor resposne to tracheal intubation
IV lidocaine
drug of abuse
cocaine
Local anesthetics work at what type of channel?
reversibly block nerve conduction through inhibition of sodium channel activity (fast voltage-gated channels)
Which form of local anesthetics bind to channel?
Ionized drug binds to channel
**but penetrates membrane in uncharged form
**effect of pH is a crucial concept
Local anesthetics preferntially bind to ?
inactivated sodium channels --> stabilize inactive state
-->block FAST FIRST
Primary action local anesthetics
Sensory nerves>motor nerves (somatic and autonomic)>CNS>CVS>other smooth muscle>skeletal muscle
Sensory nerve sodium gated channel?
Nav1.7
Order of functional block and recovery local anesthetics?
pain, autonomic C-fibers>cold>warmth>touch>deep pressure>motor
oder of action of local anesthetics on fiber size?
(autonomic fibers),C, A-delta>>A-alpha,A-beta>A-alpha, motor fibers
**in general, small more suscible than large
Crucial concept to remember about order?
Autonomic fibers>=pain>sensory>motor
Key property of Bupivacine
Sensory anesthesia>>>motor blockade
2 main types of local anesthetics?
amide and ester LAs
First aid mnemoic to remeber diffs amides and esters?
Amides have 2 I's --> LidocaIne, EtIdocaIne, bupivacaine, mepivacaine
degraded by plasma esterases (plasma cholinesterase)?
Ester type
How can ester types of local anesthetics cause problems?
PABA metabolism product can inhibit sulfonamides --> allergic reactions
Degraded by hepatic cytochrome P450s?
Amide type local anesthetics
-->problems w/ patients w/ severe hepatic disease
Longer duration of action?
Bupivacine
Ropivacaine
Tetracaine
Lidocaine
Prilocaine?
Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine
Tetracine
medium duration of action?
Bupivacine
Ropivacaine
Tetracaine
Lidocaine
Lidocaine
Priolocaine
How do you increase the duration of action of amide type local anesthetics?
protein binding and hydrophobicity
where is drug elimination of esters less?
CNS --> ester hydrolysis by cholinesterases is less here
Most common local anestetic OTC?
Benzocaine
topical anesthesia ears, noset, throat, only?
Cocaine --> vasoconstricting action --> blocks reuptake NE
Eutectic mixture (low melting point) of what 2 drugs allows anesthetic action to 5 mm depth after topical administration?
Licocaine and Priolcaine
**bridges gap btwn topical and infiltration anesthesia
Concerns of Metheoglobinemia?
Benzocaine
What will prolong duration of action of infiltration anesthesia?
Epinephrine
Bad fact about infiltration anesthesia?
Patient may experience pain immediately after injection
Infiltration anesthesia 3 drugs and durations of action?
Short: procaine
Moderate: lidocaine
Long: bupivacaine
cardiovascular collapse reported after using this drug via IV regional anethesia?
Bupivacaine
most commonly used drug via IV regional anethesia?
Lidocaine w/o epinephrine
some prefer prilocaine for less vasodilation
What can be added when doing a peripheral nerve blockade to raise pH and speed onset?
Sodium bicarbonate
Cardiotoxic potential epidural anesthesia?
Bupivacine --> used for long duration surgeries
Induces motor block --> good for muscle relaxation with epidural anesthesia
Etidocaine
Drugs potentially used for spinal anesthesia?
Lidocaine
Tetracaine
Bupivacaine
potential problem of spinal anesthesia?
sympathetic block, vasodilation common, blood pooling, reduced cardiac output, age dependent
Toxicity of local anesthetics on heart?
decreased conduciton, force of contraction, and excitability
**Bupivacaine more cardiotoxic than lidocaine
Hypersensitivity reactions mostly caused by
esters, sometimes amides
**also reaction to vasoconstrictors
If seizure as result of local anesthetic toxicity can use?
thiopental or midazolam
Methemoblobinemia potential side effect of?
Prilocaine and Benzocaine
Hepatic disease?
Amides
Low esterase activity
Esters
Neonates
Low levels plasma binding proteins
Pregancncy
Drugs may be more effective in pregnant women (lower CSF protein levela nd higher pH)?
Spinal cord dz
be careful w/ drug use
One page summary list:
Most popular, doses producing CNS toxicity, can cause CV depression?
Lidocaine
One page summary list:
More toxin in NEONATES!
Mepivacaine
One page summary list:
-more cardiotoxic than lidocaine
-long-acting
-levo-bupivacaine - S-enatiomer
Bupivacaine
One page summary list:
-less cardiotxic than bupivacaine
-long acting?
Ropivacaine (long rope)
One page summary list:
Methemoblobinemia
Priolcaine (or benzocaine)
One page summary list:
=slow onset, short durtaion
-metabolized to PABA which inhibits sulfonamides
Procaine
One page summary list:
-slower metabolism w/ more systemic toxicity
Tetracaine
One page summary list:
-blocks neorepinephrine (catecholamine uptake)
-vasoconstrictor
-abuse potential
-used primarily URT
Cocaine
One page summary list:
-low solubility
-popular topical agent
-methemegobinemia
Benzocaine
What is unique about action of estrogen?
at critical point in the female cycle the rising leelsof estrogen switch to exert POSITIVE FEEDBACK on secretion of gonadotropic hormones...Timing is everything
common cause of infertility?
excessive estrogenic inhibition of hypothalamic/pituitary axis
Treatment of PCOS?
Clomiphene
Action of clomiphne?
Estrogen receptor antagonist (SERM) --> really a PARTIAL agonist
Major action clomiphene?
Blocks estrogen inhibition of hypothalamic/pituitary axis
**however, potential overstimulate ovaries and cause multiple births!
Nickname of Clomiphene?
Fertility drug
What are other drugs affecting FSH/LH
Clomiphene
Menotropins
hCG
Danazol
Stimulates release of FSH and LH?
hCG
-inject hCG to induce ovulation
-->mimics "LH surge"
Can any sex steroid inhibit the secretion of FSH or LH in either sex?
yes!
Endometriosus?
Danazol
Medical castration?
Leuprolide (Goserelin, Nafarelin)
GnRH analog --> fertility and chemotherapy
How do you use Leuprolide (Goselin, and Nafarelin) for fertility treatment?
Intermittent administration
result = ovulation and fertility
How do you use Leuprolide (Goselin, and Nafarelin) for infertility treatment?
more frequent administration --> suppresses FSH and LH release = infertility
First Aid mnemonic leuprolide?
Leuprolide can be used in Lieu of GnrH
Important point about GnRH receptors
Subject to desensitization when overstimulated
What kind of cancer can useuse Leuprolide (Goselin, and Nafarelin) for f
80% prostate CA androgen dependent
**hormonal control therapy
**leuprolide is a GnRH superagonist
-->desensitizes GnRH receptors on pituitary Gonadotrophs
Inhibits FSH/LH release without initial increase?
Ganirelix and Abarelix
Action of Ganirelix (and Abarelix)
Used in management of infertility, especially in IVF b/c prevents prematrue LH surge!
What are menotropins?
purified prep of FSH, given w/ hCG to mimic lH surge
What are urofollitropin and follittropin
urofollitropin (purified FSH) and Follitorpin (recombinant product) are similar to menotropins
Why do estrogenic drugs have weak oral potency?
Strong First-pass hepatic metabolism
-note: highly lipophilic, highly bound, hepatic metabolism
Positive effects of synthetic estrogens?
Bone Mass and Density
What is a major contraindication to bifing sythetic estrogens?
>35 y/o and smoke --> history of clot formation
What kind of CA is synthetic estrogen use a concer for?
Endometrial cancer (w/o progestin), clear cell vaginal and cervical, bresat cancer?
Not orally effective, very rapid, t1/2 several minutes?
Estradiol
Slower, t1/2 12-24 hrs, orally effective?
Ethinyl estradiol (not, prodrug is mestranol)
conjugated estrogen?
Estrone
Orally effective PRODRUG, quickly demethylated into Ethinyl estradiol
Mestranol (note: also used in oral contraaceptives)
Whay are steroidal estrogens available in transdermal patch?
Highly lipophilic --> well-absorbed GI tract; easily cross biomembranes
All steroidal estrogens are subject to?
Enterohepatic circulation
-->contributes significantly to prolonged half-life of ethinyl estradiol
**giving estrogens by oral route may intensify effects on liver
What should you give estrogens with to reduce risk of endometrial cancer?
Progestin
Uses of estrogenic agents?
Pre-menopausal hypogonadism (true replacement therapy)

Post-menopausal Hormone Repalcement therapy (HRT)
Synthetic estrogen, many side unpleasant side effects (clear cell adenoCA of bagina in f/m exposed in utero)
DES (diethylstilbestrol) --> conjugated
Non-steroidal compounds from plants w/ estrogen-like structures/activity, weak activity, activity not clear
Phytoestrogens
HRT (hormone replacement therapy) good for waht types of CA?
Breast, prostatic, and endometrial
3 non-steroidal estrogenic agents?
Clomiphene
Raloxifene
Tamofien
Drug of choice in tx of breast CA?
Tamoxifen
Mechanism of Tamoxifen?
Functional competitive estrogen receptor antagonist
**but may exhibit partial agonist activity in some settings and tissues
Adverse effects Tamoxifen?
Nausea, vomiting **Hot flashes**
Problem since Tamoxifen **but may exhibit partial agonist activity in some settings and tissues
increased risk of endometrial CA resulting from estrogenic stimulation of uterus
Added bonus of Tamoxifen?
appears to INCREASE bone density in post-menopausal women
Not much action on breast or uterus, therefore also good breast CA (thought to have less clotting issues than tamoxifen)
Raloxifene --> however, increased incidence of thromboembolic events early in therapy
SERM we learned about --> "Fertiliyt drug" and PCOS
Clomiphene
What are 3 aromatase inhibitors?
Anastrazole
Letrozole
Exemestane
Steroidal aromatase inhibitors?
Exemestane
Anastrozole
Letrozole
Exemestane
Non-steroidal aromatase inhibitors?
Anastrozole, Letrozole
Why would you use Exemestane
Anastrozole
Letrozole (steroidal aromatase inhibitors)
Adjuvant therapy of breast CA w/ tamoxifen AND as first line treatment
Unwanted side effect of Aromatase inhibitors (and SERMS)
Hot flashes!!!
Anastrozole and Letrozole particularly important for what category women?
Postmenopausal women w/ breast CA who have + or - lymph nodes and who are at increased risk for recurrent dz
Progesterone Analogs (selective progestational activity)
Progesterone
Medroxyprogesterone
Progestesterone antagonist?
Mifepristone (RU-486)
19-Nortestestosterone derivatives? (progestational and adrogenic activity)
Norethindrone
Drospirenone
Norgestrel, Levonorgestrel
Which have the least adrogenic activity of 19-Nortestestosterone derivatives? (progestational and adrogenic activity)
Norethindrone
Drospirenone
Norgestrel, Levonorgestrel
Gonanes
Levonorgestrel (norgestrel too)
Key action of progestin receptor-mediated action?
Maintenance of pregnancy
SUPPRESS MENSTRUATION AND UTERINE CONTRACTILITY
Where do progestins have cross-over effects?
Androgen receptors
"newer" --> anti-androgenic and anti-mineralcorticoid activity; now available in combination types oral contraceptives
Drospirenone
What is the best way to administerpr progestines?
Right now transdermal dosing practical b/c highly lipophilic and easily cross biomembranes, then extensively bound plasma proteins
Of Progesterone and 19-Nor compounds, which are orally effective?
19-Nor compounds orally effective (t1/2 = 6-24 hours)

Progesterone: plasma t1/2 = 5 min by oral route (first pass effect)
Two oral contraceptives?
Estrogen and Progestin
What is in the combi patch?
Estradiol and Norethindrone
How do progestins inhibit ovulation?
Devrease frequency of GnRH pulses
also decrease penetration cervix of sperm
How do combi OCs inhibit ovulation?
suppress LH and FSH levels
Eliminate mid-cycle LH surge
-inhibit sperm penetration
Beneficial effects of OCs (oral contraceptives?)
Reduced risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer

Normalization of menstrual irregularities
Contraindications OCs?
Cardiovascular --> thromboemoblic disorder
Hormone dependent neoplasia like breast, ovarian, or uterine
Liver tumors/dysfunciton
Pregnancy
Slow release OC that is transformed into active progesterone rapidly?
Medroxyprogesterone
Post coital emergency contraception?
RU-486
Mifepristone
Mechanism of Mifepristone?
Progesterone and glucocorticoid receptor antagonist
Who does OC use significantly increase risk in?
>35 y/o smoker

smoking, age, DB, HTN, gallbladder dz
Key fact about progestin-only contraceptives?
Useful for ursing mothers (do not interfere with lactation)
What may interfere with metabolism of OC's?
Antibiotic treatment --> may block good absorption of drug
alternative drug therapy for osteoperosis
Alendronate
How is testosterone converted to DHT?
5 alpha reductase
What does DHT do?
External genitalia devopment (also associated w/ adulthood prostatic dz)

Hair follicles
Direct actions Testosterone?
Androgen receptors
-Internal genitalia (Wollffian deveopment), skeletal muscle increase, erythropoeisis
Estradiol conversion from testosterone
done via CYP19 aromatase
-Estrogen receptor
-->epiphyseal closure
-->increased density
?? libido
Legitimate uses testosterone?
1. Hypogonadism
2. Breast cancer
3. Stimulation of erythropoiesis
4. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
5. aids related muscle waisting
Problem w/ administrationof testosterone?
rapidly metabolized (inactive oral route b/c first pass effect)
How can testosterone be bioactivated?
To DHT in certain target tissues via 5-alpha-reductase
Orally effective Androgenic steroids?
Oxandrolone and Danazol
Problems with Oxandrolone and Danazol
Hepatotoxicity, increases LDL, decreased HDL
Diff between Oxandrolone and Danazol
Oxandrolone (alkylated) and Danazol (synthetic)
Steroidal antagonist and antiadrgoen --> weak partial agonist for androgen receptor?
Cyproterone acetate
Problem w/ Cyproterone acetate?
May inhibit spermatogenesis and libido
Useful in treatment of Prostatic cancer?
Flutamide (non-steroidal antiandrogen)
Diff. between Flutamide and Bicalutamide?
Bicalumatide has LESS HEPATOTOXCITY and once/day dosing
Problems with Flutamide and Bicalutamide?
If used alone
-->gyncecomastia and impotence (therefore, use with GnRH analog like Leuprolide to block effect)
Inhibitor of 5-alpha-redcutase (type II)
Finasteride
2 uses of FInasteride?
1. BPH
2. Male pattern baldness (caused by excess DHT)
Side effect Finasteride
Impotence
PREGNANT MUST AVOID
liver problems