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77 Cards in this Set
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1. You have just injected your patient with 3.6 ml of the new local anesthetic 3 % Crossleycaine with Wynnephrine 1:50,000. Respectively, how much of each expressed in milligrams have you injected?
A. 40 mg and 0.018 mg B. 72 mg and 0.036mg C. 72 mg and 0.018 mg D. 108 mg and 0.072 mg E. 54 mg and 0.018 mg |
D. 108 mg and 0.072 mg
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2. This local anesthetic exhibits low antigenicity, no cross allergenicity and is metabolized in the liver
A. procaine(Novocaine) B. tetracaine(Pontocaine) C. benzocaine D. prilocaine (Citanest) E. c and d only |
D. prilocaine (Citanest)
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3. Following administration of local anesthetic, the patient initially loses the sensation of
A. temperature B. pain C. proprioception D. skeletal muscle tone E. touch |
B. pain
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4. Which of the following does NOT produce vasodilation:
A. lidocaine (Xylocaine) B. mepivacaine (Carbocaine) C. prilocaine (Citanest) D. cocaine E. articaine (Septocaine) |
D. cocaine
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5. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
A. The mantle fibrils of the nerve subserve (innervate) the more proximal structures. B. The core fibrils of the nerve subserve (innervate) the more distal structures. C. Anesthesia progresses from posterior to anterior. D. Anesthesia regresses from anterior to posterior. E. Cm is the minimal concentration of local anesthetic required to completely block propagation of an impulse down a nerve. |
D. Anesthesia regresses from anterior to posterior.
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6. This local anesthetic has a plunger that consists of a butyl rubber material and does not contain any latex.
A. lidocaine (Xylocaine) B. mepivacaine (Carbocaine) C. articaine (Septocaine) D. cocaine E. procaine (Novocain) |
C. articaine (Septocaine)
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7. The Cm of a local anesthetic is determined by
A. the diameter of the neuron B. the degree of myelination C. the cost of the local anesthetic D. all of the above E. a and b only |
E. a and b only
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8. The vasoconstrictor is added to the local anesthetic to
A. produce hemostasis B. restrict the absorption of the local anesthetic and decrease the chance of systemic toxicity C. prolong the duration of action of the local anesthetic D. increase the profoundness of the anesthesia E. all of the above |
E. all of the above
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9. Approximately 10% of the population is allergic to aspirin.
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
b. statement is false
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10. The primary route of metabolism of aspirin is by hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterases.
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
a. statement is true
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11. The mechanism of the anti-platelet effect of aspirin is attributed to the inhibition of what substance or substances listed below?
a. thromboxane A2 (TXA2) b. prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) c. prostaglandin F2 α (PGF2 α) d. all the above e. b and c only |
a. thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
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12. Medical uses for aspirin EXCEPT:
a. prevention of Reyes’s syndrome b. management of rheumatoid arthritis c. management of gout (high dose) d. treatment of fever e. prevention of myocardial infarction |
a. prevention of Reyes’s syndrome
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13. The local anesthetic articaine (Septocaine) is rapidly metabolized by carboxyesterase enzymes found where?
a. hepatic cells b. gastrointestinal mucosal cells c. plasma d. kidney cells e. gingival tissue |
c. plasma
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14. Patients expressing an allergic predisposition to bisulfites found in the local anesthetics containing epinephrine most likely have a history of what medical condition below?
a. type 2 diabetes b. asthma c. hyperthyroidism d. epilepsy e. rheumatoid arthritis |
b. asthma
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15. A topical local anesthetic in dentistry is a product known as Oraquix (Oraqix). It is a mix of lidocaine and prilocaine. Its use is as an injection near nerve trunks to produce nerve block.
a. The use of Oraqix stated above is true b. The use of Oraqix stated above is false. |
b. The use of Oraqix stated above is false.
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16. The mechanism of action of local anesthetics on nerve function is best explained by binding selectively to:
a. extracellular surface of neuronal channels to block influx of sodium into the axon b. intracellular surface of neuronal channels to block influx of sodium into the axon c. extracellular surface of neuronal channels to block influx of potassium into the axon d. the intracellular surface of neuronal channels to block influx of ;potassium into the axon |
b. intracellular surface of neuronal channels to block influx of sodium into the axon
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17. Your patient’s doctor indicates that the patient is allergic to ester-type local anesthetics. Which anesthetic below would you avoid in using in this patient?
a. lidocaine b. mepivacaine c. prilocaine d. benzocaine e. bupivaciane |
d. benzocaine
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18. What type of patient should you avoid in using lidocaine with epinephrine?
a. type 2 diabetic b. patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) c. patient with a history of controlled hypertension d. patient with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism e. arthritic patient |
d. patient with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
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19. Duration of anesthesia by bupivacaine 0.5% with epinephrine 1:200,000 after inferior alveolar block is:
a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 5 hours d. 24 hours |
c. 5 hours
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20. A cartridge of 1.8 ml containing 1:100,000 solution of epinephrine as vasoconstrictor contains ___ mg of epinephrine.
a. 18 b. 36 c. 0.018 d. 0.18 e. 0.036 |
c. 0.018
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21. Acetaminophen may cause hepatic cell necrosis due to which mechanism below:
a. it crystallizes within the hepatic cell b. it uncouples hepatic cell mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation c. it breaks down hepatic cell membrane integrity d. it is reduced to an alcohol derivative to cause cirrhosis e. at high doses, it is converted to a reactive metabolite which overloads the pathways of normal metabolic protection. |
e. at high doses, it is converted to a reactive metabolite which overloads the pathways of normal metabolic protection.
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22. The maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen over a 24 hour period is
a. 500 mg b. 4000 mg c. 325 mg d. 2400 mg e. 3200 mg |
b. 4000 mg
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23. Acetaminophen can be given to a patient on an anticoagulant without any effect on the efficacy of the anticoagulant.
a. statement is true b. statement is false |
a. statement is true
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24. Pharmacological effect or effects of acetaminophen:
a. anti-inflammatory b. antipyretic c. analgesic d. all the above e. b and c only |
e. b and c only
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25. Which of the following patients should you avoid giving ibuprofen?
a. females in third trimester of pregnancy b. patients taking lithium c. patients allergic to aspirin d. all the above e. b and c only |
d. all the above
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26. The mechanism of anti-inflammatory action of ibuprofen states that it inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by decreasing the activity of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase, which results in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors.
a. Above statement is true b. Above statement is false |
a. Above statement is true
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27. This is considered a major and relatively frequent adverse effect caused by use of ibuprofen.
a. blurred vision b. abdominal pain c. confusion d. acute renal failure e. decreased hearing |
b. abdominal pain
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28. This NSAID has relatively selective inhibition on COX-2 enzyme with little or no inhibition on COX-1 enzyme.
a. naproxen sodium (Aleve) b. ibuprofen (Advil) c. flurbiprofen (Ansaid) d. celecoxib (Celebrex) e. etodolac (Lodine) |
d. celecoxib (Celebrex)
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29. Nortriptyline (brand name Pamelor) is considered a miscellaneous class of analgesic and has a dental use of:
a. treatment of burning mouth syndrome b. treatment of post operative inflammation c. treatment of severe post operative extraction pain d. all the above e. none of the above |
a. treatment of burning mouth syndrome
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30. Which drug below has a mechanism of action of binding to alpha 2 – delta subunit of voltage gated calcium channels?
a. carbamazepine (Tegretol) b. nortriptyline c. pregabalin (Lyrica) d. all the above e. none of the above |
c. pregabalin (Lyrica)
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31. This (these) narcotic analgesic(s) all cause nausea as a side effect.
a. naloxone (Narcan) b. codeine c. hydrocodone d. all the above e. b and c only |
e. b and c only
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32. This (these) narcotic analgesic(s) all cause sedation
a. hydrocodone b. codeine c. oxycodone d. all the above e. none of the above cause sedation |
d. all the above
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33. True for the opiate receptor
a. coupled to G-protein; when stimulated result is opening of potassium channels b. couple to G-protein; when stimulated result is opening of chloride channels c. is ligand-gated channel which results in opening of potassium channels d. is ligand-gated channel which results in opening of chloride channels |
a. coupled to G-protein; when stimulated result is opening of potassium channels
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34. In the spinal cord descending system of pain modulation, the interneurons within the DLF which communicate with opiate receptors are also known as what?
a. endorphin interneurons b. enkephalin interneurons c. substance P interneurons d. cholecsytokinin interneurons e. GABA interneurons |
b. enkephalin interneurons
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35. The actions of this narcotic pain reliever includes mu receptor agonism
a. oxycodone b. hydrocodone c. meperidine (Demerol) d. all the above e. a and b only. |
d. all the above
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36. The actions of this narcotic pain reliever includes “unlimited” analgesia
a. pentazocine (Talwin) b. naloxone (Narcan) c. buprenorphine (Buprenex) d. morphine |
d. morphine
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37. This (these) opium alkaloids are found naturally in the poppy plant.
a. codeine b. hydrocodone c. oxycodone d. all the above e. none of the above are found in poppy plant |
a. codeine
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38. A narcotic agent which antagonizes at both the mu and kappa opiate receptors is known as:
a. a pure agonist b. a partial agonist c. a pure antagonist d. a partial (mixed) agonist-antagonist |
c. a pure antagonist
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39. Erythromycin antibiotics can enhance the ability of this drug to cause muscle pain, and break down muscle protein
a. simvastatin (Zocor) b. niacin c. clofibrate (Atromid-S) d. ezetimibe (Zetia) e. cholestyramine resin (Questran) |
a. simvastatin (Zocor)
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40. It is thought that this drug lowers cholesterol by inhibiting synthesis of the lipoproteins that carry cholesterol in the blood stream.
a. simvastatin (Zocor) b. niacin c. clofibrate (Atromid-S) d. ezetimibe (Zetia) e. cholestyramine resin (Questran) |
b. niacin
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41. Inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol at the brush border of the small intestine.
a. simvastatin (Zocor) b. niacin c. clofibrate (Atromid-S) d. ezetimibe (Zetia) e. cholestyramine resin (Questran) |
. ezetimibe (Zetia)
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42. Acts by inhibiting the enzyme which controls the formation of cholesterol in liver. This enzyme is called hydroxyl-methylglutaryl Co-enzyme A reductase (HMG-CoA Reductase for short).
a. simvastatin (Zocor) b. niacin c. clofibrate (Atromid-S) d. ezetimibe (Zetia) e. cholestyramine resin (Questran) |
a. simvastatin (Zocor)
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43. Bleeding times and platelet aggregation are measures of effect of this “blood thinner”.
a. enoxaparin (Lovenox) b. warfarin (Coumadin) c. clopidogrel (Plavix) d. heparin e. none of the above are measured by bleeding times and platelet aggregation |
c. clopidogrel (Plavix)
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44. Which class of drugs below should be avoided in patients taking the “blood thinner” known as clopidogrel (Plavix) because of the possibility of bleeding in the stomach?
a. narcotic analgesics b. NSAIDs c. local anesthetics d. beta blockers e. calcium channel blockers |
b. NSAIDs
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44. Which class of drugs below should be avoided in patients taking the “blood thinner” known as clopidogrel (Plavix) because of the possibility of bleeding in the stomach?
a. narcotic analgesics b. NSAIDs c. local anesthetics d. beta blockers e. calcium channel blockers |
b. amlodipine (Norvasc)
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46. Inhibits sodium tubular reabsorption primarily within the distal portion of the nephron.
a. calcium channel blockers b. loop diuretics c. potassium-sparing diuretics d. ACE inhibitors e. thiazide diuretics |
e. thiazide diuretics
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47. This diuretic does not require potassium supplementation
a. bumetanide (Bumex) b. chlorothiazide (Diuril) c. hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) d. furosemide (Lasix) e. triameterene (Dyrenium) |
e. triameterene (Dyrenium)
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48. Which is the “cardioselective” beta adrenergic receptor blocker?
a. timolol (Blocadren) b. nadolol (Corgard) c. propranolol (Inderal) d. atenolol (Tenormin) |
d. atenolol (Tenormin)
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49. The actions of this class of antihypertensives is mainly to reduce heart rate and cardiac output.
a. beta-adrenergic blockers b. calcium channel blockers c. angiotensin II receptor antagonists d. ACE inhibitors e. thiazide diuretics |
a. beta-adrenergic blockers
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50. This diuretic can cause hypokalemia to result in increased thirst and dry mouth.
a. furosemide (Lasix) b. spironolactone (Aldactone) c. triamterene (Dyrenium) d. enalapril (Vasotec) e. atenolol (Tenormin) |
a. furosemide (Lasix)
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51. This class of antiarrhythmic drugs is also known as beta-adrenergic receptor blockers.
a. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs b. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs c. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs d. Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs |
b. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs
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52. This class or antiarrhythmic drugs act by blocking potassium channels in myocardial cells.
a. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs b. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs c. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs d. Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs |
c. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs
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53. The following is true of methotrexate use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis:
a. it is a biological response modifier that acts through an antagonism of IL-1 and IL-6 receptors b. it is a slow-acting compound requiring 6-9 months for effects to be seen c. it is considered a first-choice drug in newly-diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis patients and is often used in combination with other anti-inflammatory agents d. it is like NSAIDs in that it decreases symptoms, but does not delay disease progression e. all of the above |
c. it is considered a first-choice drug in newly-diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis patients and is often used in combination with other anti-inflammatory agents
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54. This drug, used to treat angina, has a significant incidence of gingival hyperplasia.
a. nitroglycerin b. phenytoin c. carbamazepine (Tegretol) d. verapamil (Calan) e. nifedipine (Procardia) |
e. nifedipine (Procardia)
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55. Classes of drugs used to prevent angina pectoris EXCEPT:
a. nitrates b. cardiac glycosides c. nitrites d. beta-adrenergic receptor blockers e. calcium channel blockers |
b. cardiac glycosides
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56. Best describes the actions of digitalis in treating congestive heart failure
a. Overcomes the weakened heart muscle to allow for a more efficient pumping action b. Reduces volume and pressures within the heart and decreases total peripheral resistance in the circulatory system c. Reduces overall fluid volume within the circulatory system and reduces fluid congestion in the lungs d. Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors in the myocardium |
a. Overcomes the weakened heart muscle to allow for a more efficient pumping action
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57. Best describes the actions of diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide in treating congestive heart failure
a. Overcomes the weakened heart muscle to allow for a more efficient pumping action b. Reduces volume and pressures within the heart and decreases total peripheral resistance in the circulatory system c. Reduces overall fluid volume within the circulatory system and reduces fluid congestion in the lungs d. Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors in the myocardium |
c. Reduces overall fluid volume within the circulatory system and reduces fluid congestion in the lungs
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58. Beta blocker drugs are used in the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD) because of their actions to:
a. lower the heart rate b. lower the peripheral resistance in the peripheral cardiovascular system c. increase the force of contraction of the myocardium d. dilate the coronary blood vessels |
a. lower the heart rate
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59. This drug, used to treat coronary artery disease (CAD), acts by inhibiting the enzyme known as angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE).
a. amlodipine (Norvasc) b. ramipril (Altace) c. propranolol (Inderal) d. warfarin (Coumadin) e. clopidogrel (Plavix) |
b. ramipril (Altace)
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60. The mechanism of action of warfarin (Coumadin) is best described by which statement below?
a. inhibits platelet aggregation b. inhibits thromboxane A2 in the prostaglandin pathway c. inhibits cyclo-oxygenase type 1 d. interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin-K dependent coagulation factors. e. None of the above describe how warfarin (Coumadin) works. |
d. interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin-K dependent coagulation factors.
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61. Drugs used to prevent future MIs in infarct survivors EXCEPT:
a. ibuprofen b. nadolol (Corgard) c. warfarin (Coumadin) d. aspirin e. clopidogrel (Plavix) |
a. ibuprofen
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62. The principle of methadone maintenance is to:
A. Decrease exposure to HIV, bacterial infection, etc. associated with IV street heroin B. Prevent the “high” (euphoria) obtained from IV street heroin by producing cross-tolerance between heroin and methadone C. Satisfy opioid physical dependence to prevent the withdrawal sickness D. A and B E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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63. There are legitimate concerns about the use of Methadone during pregnancy because methadone:
A. Produces physical dependence in the infant B. Exhibits mutagenic effects C. Exhibits teratogenic effects D. A and B E. None of the above |
E. None of the above
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64. Which hypnotic below is an agonist of the melatonin receptor?
A. ramelteon (Rozerem) B. eszopiclone (Lunesta) C. zolipdem (Ambien) D. zaleplon (Sonata) |
A. ramelteon (Rozerem)
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65. Which hypnotic below falls under the category of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic?
A. triazolam (Halcion) B. diazepam (Valium) C. zolpidem (Ambien) D. all the above E. A and B only |
C. zolpidem (Ambien)
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66. Which drug below is indicated for the treatment of insomnia?
A. ramelteon (Rozerem) B. zaleplon (Sonata) C. zolpidem (Ambien) D. all the above E. none of the above |
D. all the above
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67. This drug is a popular agent used to promote expectoration of excess fluid from the respiratory system.
A. codeine B. guaifenesin C. oxymetazoline (Afrin) D. dextromethorphan E. none of the above |
B. guaifenesin
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68. Guaifenesin is available in combination with hydrocodone. Hydrocodone is what?
A. a decongestant B. an anti-tussive C. a mucolytic D. an expectorant E. none of the above |
B. an anti-tussive
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69. Which drug below was developed as an S-isomeric form from a racemic mixture?
A. ramelteon (Rozerem) B. eszopiclone (Lunesta) C. zolipdem (Ambien) D. zaleplon (Sonata) E. triazolam (Halcion) |
B. eszopiclone (Lunesta)
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70. The antiasthmatic is a corticosteroid.
A. zafirlukast (Accolate) B. cromolyn (Intal) C. triamcinolone (Azmacort) D. ipratropium (Atrovent) E. albuterol (Proventil) |
C. triamcinolone (Azmacort)
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71. This drug is a beta-adrenergic receptor agonist.
A. zafirlukast (Accolate) B. cromolyn (Intal) C. triamcinolone (Azmacort) D. ipratropium (Atrovent) E. albuterol (Proventil) |
E. albuterol (Proventil)
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72. Valproic acid (Depakene) is an anti-epileptic agent of the benzodiazepine family of drugs.
A. statement is true B. statement is false |
B. statement is false
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73. Which classification of antidepressants listed below has precautions advised with the use of vasoconstrictor?
A. Selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B. Dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) such as tranylcypromine (Parnate) D. All the above have precautions advised with the use of vasoconstrictor |
C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) such as tranylcypromine (Parnate)
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74. Which antidepressant below is associated with causing the most significant dry mouth?
A. amitriptyline (Elavil) B. duloxetine (Cymbalta) C. buproprion (Wellbutrin) D. fluoxetine (Prozac) E. nortriptyline (Pamelor) |
A. amitriptyline (Elavil)
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75. True for carbamazepine (Tegretol) as an antiepileptic EXCEPT:
A. highly effective in complex partial seizure disorder B. associated with causing heart failure C. causes aplastic anemia D. long term use requires monitoring with blood tests E. has caused thrombocytopenia |
B. associated with causing heart failure
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76. True for phenytoin (Dilantin) as an antiepileptic EXCEPT:
A. highly effective for all partial seizures B. not effective in tonic-clonic seizures C. causes gingival hyperplasia D. is teratogenic E. effective for status epilepticus |
B. not effective in tonic-clonic seizures
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77. True for phenobarbital as an antiepileptic EXCEPT:
A. causes gingival hyperplasia B. causes sedation early on in treatment C. effective in treating simple partial seizures D. interacts with many drugs to increase their metabolism E. effective in treating tonic-clonic seizures |
A. causes gingival hyperplasia
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