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165 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the leading cause of death in the US
cardiovascular disease
how many of the top 30 prescribed drugs are cardiovascular drugs?
14 of top 30
In severe CV cases epinephrine should be limited to cardiac safe dose =
0.04mg
an electrical device implanted in patient's chest to regulate heart rhythm
cardiac pacemaker
a foreign object, quantity of air or gas, bit of tissue or tumor, or piece of thrombus that circulates in the bloodstream until it becomes lodged in the bloodstream
embolus
what is a bloodclot that is stationary
thrombus
what is a serum inflammatory marker that can be found in the body when inflammation is present?
C-reactive protein (CRP), serum amyloid A, and fibrinogen
what can inefficient pumping of the heart cause
congestive heart failure
left heart failure is going to effect what (increased pressure on left side of heart)
the lungs (pulmonary congestion)
right heart failure is going to effect (increased pressure on right side of heart)
systemic venous congestion and peripheral/pitting edema
what is Starling's law?
some enlargement can produce more efficient contraction and output (like a bigger, better muscle from exercise)
what side of the heart usually fails first
left side
what is associated with pink frothy sputum
acute cardiac arrhythmia
drugs used to treat congestive heart failure
cardia or digitalis glycosides
what is the most commonly prescribed for CHF
digitalis, digitoxin, digoxin, (Lanoxin-most commonly prescribed)
digoxin have a ________ therapeutic index
narrow
adverse reactions of digoxin
copious salivation, can cause green and yellow vision,
for cardiac patients what should be used with caution
epinephrine
what two antibiotics can increase digoxin levels
erythromycin, and tetracycline
what kind of drugs are the first line of defense against congestive heart failure
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (may be first line now)
angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB = ACE II inhibitor)
where is the sinotatrial node (SA node) located
right atrium of heart
what antiarrhythmic agent also treats malaria
quinodine
what is the suffix for calcium channel blockers?
dipine
which type of drug block calcium movement into cardiac and vascular smooth muscle during contraction resulting in vasodilation
calcium channel blockers
why is hypertension known as the "silent killer"
it presents with no symptoms
what is hypertension
high blood pressure
normotensive
normal blood pressure
what range is normotensive
<120 systolic <80 dystolic
medical consult indicated if bloodpressure is what in the cbc college
>180/110
what are the categories of hypertension?
essential, secondary, malignant
which category of hypertension occurs 2nd to another condition ?
secondary
what are the big 5 antihypertensive drug groups?
diuretics, b-blockers, calcium channel blockers (CCBs), ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers
what are the three major types of diuretics?
thiazides, loop, potassium
what is the most common diuretic used?
thiazides
what is the most common thiazide used
HCTZ
hypokalemia (an adverse reaction to HCTZ)
low potassiumm
hyperuricemia (an adverse reaction to HCTZ)
what condition can this complicate further
inhibits uric acid secretion
gout
what is the most common oral adverse reaction of thiazides (diuretics)
xerostomia
what drug group reduces the antihypertensive effect of HCTZ?
NSAIDS
what are the most potent diuretics
loop diuretics
what is the most common loop diuretic used?
furosemide (lasix)
what drug group reduces lasix and what is lasix
NSAIDs
lasix is the most commonly used loop diuretic
where do loop diuretics work?
the loop of Henle in the kidney
what is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics?
prevent sodium and chloride reabsorption in loop of Henle in kidney
steroid suffix
sterone
what are the weakest diuretics?
potassium-sparing
what is the mechanism of action of spironolactone (Aldactone)?
what drug group does it belong to?
antagonizes aldosterone (hormone that regulates metabolism of Na, Cl, K) and sodium is excreted
belongs to potassium-sparing in diuretics
what is the mechanism of action of Triamterene (Dyrenium)? what drug group does it belong to?
promotes Na excretion in collecting tubules of kidney
belongs to potassium-sparing in diuretics
what physiologic processes are potassium salts important for?
nerve impulses, muscle contractions of smooth, cardiac, skeletal, normal renal function
what are some adverse reactions of potassium salts
nausea, GI irritation and discomfort
potassium supplements have what in there name generally?
a big ol' K
B-Adrenergic Blocking Drugs have what suffix?
olol
B-adrenergic Blocking drugs
beta receptor B1 deals with what
increased heart rate, increased contractility, av conduction
B-adrenergic blocking drugs
beta receptor B2 deals with what?
bronchodilation and vasodilation in skeletal muscle
suffix for alpha and beta blockers
alol
calcium channel blockers suffix
dipine
which calcium channel blockers are especially known for gingival enlargement
nifedipine and verapamil
what is suffix of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors or ACE inhibitors?
pril
what is suffix of angiotensin II receptor antagonists?
sartan
a-blockers end in suffix
zosin
what would be the drug of choice for hypertension for a pregnant hypertensive patient
hydralazine
what population percentage has a chronic seizure disorder?
one percent
what type of epilepsy do the majority of epileptic patients have?
Idiopathic epilepsy
what are the 2 major groups of seizure disorders?
general and partial there is a thir smaller miscellaneous group
what group of seizure is simple and complex
partial seizures
what group of seizure include generalized tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures
general seizures
there is ______ movement in absence seizures and _____ movement in tonic-clonic
little
major
what is an aura?
a brief period of heightened sensory activity characterized by numbness nausea, unusual sensitivity to light, sound, smells,
when may an aura occur
aura may occur just prior to a seizure
what are the drugs of choice for absence seizures petit mal
ethosuximide or valproate, or lamotrigine
what is petit mal
absence seizures
what is grand mal
tonic-clonic seizures
what are drugs of choice for tonic-clonic seizures
valproic acid, phenytoin, carbamazepine
what is status epilepticus?
continuous tonic-clonic seizures lasting longer then 30 mins. or recur before end of postictal period of previous seizure.
what might valproic acid be used for
grand mal or tonic- clonic seizure
what might phenytoin be used for?
grand mal or tonic-clonic seizure
emergency treatment is required with status epilepticus especially if patient is what?
hypoxic
term for when oxygen does not reach body tissues?
hypoxic
what drug is used for the control of status epilepticus
parenteral benzodiazepines such as diazepam (valium)
anticonvulsants are _______ depressants
CNS
what is the most common side effect of anticonvulsant agents?
cns depression, (dizziness, sedation, impaired learning and cognitive abilities, and excitability)
what is Stevens-Johnson syndrome
toxic epidermal necrolysis
what is erythema multiform and what can it advance to?
a mild rash

Stevens-Johnson syndrome
dilatin is a more common maker of stevens JOhnson syndrome
true
dental drugs most affected by anticonvulsant agents are?
propoxyphene, doxycycline
what drug is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia, bipolar disorder and some chronic pain syndromes
carbamazepine (Tegretol)
what does Carbamazepine (Tegretol) mainly treat
trigeminal neuralgia
what two blood disorders does carbamzepine cause
agranulocytosis(decrease in granular white blood cells) and aplastic anemia(redblood cells and platelets occur) alopecia can also occur
a tiny purplish red spot on the skin caused by the release into the skin of a very small quantity of blood from a capillary
petechia
what is a group of anticonvulsants not structurally relarted to any other anticonvulsant
valproate
excessive hairyness
hirsutism
what is the most common anticonvulsant used in treatment of epilepsy
phenytoin
phenytoin can cause what
hirsutism
phenytoin has a very ____ TI
narrow
what is phenytoin used for
arrythmia and anticonvulsant for epilipsy
all anticonvulsants interfere with what metabolism
folic acid metabolism
an impairment of the vision in one eye that does not have a physical cause
amblyopia
what is a possitive nikolsky sign
when you touch the skin it sluffs off
toxic epidermal necrolysis is also known as
stevens johnson
phenytoin can cause the serious condition
stevens johnson
what adverse reaction occurs in approx 50% of patients who are chronic users of phenytoin
gingival enlargement
what is the treatment of choice fro absence seizures
ethosuximide (Zaronitin)
what group of drugs is often used to treat status epilepticus?
benzodiazepines
why is Gabapentin unique and what does it treat
gabapentin is a seizure drug that is unique because it does not affect hepatic microsomal enzymes thus does not have any drug interactons
what has felbamate been associated with
aplastic anemia and acute hepatic failure
what does felbamate (felbatol) treat
seizures
what are some nonseizure uses of anticonvulsants
chronic pain syndromes,
psychiatric uses, mood stabilizers, bipolar disorder
what types can psychiatric disorders be divided into?
organic-congenital or caused by injury or disease
functional-
what are some positive symptoms of psychoses
hallucinations, delusion, unwanted thoughts, disorganized behavior, agitation, distorted speech
what are some negative symptoms of psychoses
flat affect, unemotional, apathetic, abstract thinking difficult, spontaneity and goals lacking, thought and speech impaired, lack of pleasure, social withdrawal
what is the most common type of psychosis
schizophrenia
if a person only has depression it is termed
unipolar depression
if a person has manic depression alternating from extreme high and extreme low is termed
bipolar disorder
endogenous depression is not related to what
external events
exogenous depression related to specific what
external events
before antipsychotic drugs were available what was used
electroconvulsive therapy (shock therapy)
Electroconvulsive therapy is still used in tx of what
refractory depression
what is used to treat psychoses
antipsychotics
what were the previously most used antipsychotics
phenothiazines
what is used to treat bipolar disorder
lithium
what is used to treat anxiety disorders
benzodiazepines
involuntary, abnormal movements of the tongue lips face and jaw is known as
tardive dyskinesia
what drug is used for treating intractable hiccups and certain drug withdrawals
prochlorperazine (Compazine)
what are some brand names of SSRI
zoloft, prozac, Paxil and Lexapro
a sensory perception that does not result from an external stimulus and that occurs in the waking state. It can occur in any of the senses and is classified accordingly (auditory, visual, olfactory, tactile, gustatory)
hallucination
is a persistent belief or perception held inviolable by a person despite evidence that refutes it.
delusion
absence of emotional response that normally elicits emotion.
flat affect
what is the most common type of psychosis
schizophrenia
what are the symptoms of hypertension?
no symptoms (silent killer)
what is the most common of all CV diseases
Hypertension
what are local hormones that occur in the body naturally known as?
autocoids
where are autocoids formed
they are formed by the tissues on which they act
what are histamine, serotonin cytokinins, eicosanoids, prostaglandins, thromboxanes, angiotensin
autocoids
what are drugs that mimic the effect of autocoids?
autocoid agonist
what are drugs that counteracts the action of autocoids
autocoid antagonist
what is histamine
autocoids
what drug is used in the diagnosis of achlorhydria and pheochromocytoma?
histamine
what drug is involved with allergic response?
histamine 1 receptors
what does histamine release cause?
vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, bronchoconstriction, and pain or itching in cutaneous nerve emdings
stimulation of histamine 2 receptors is involved with what?
increased gastric acid secretion
what is the drug of choice for counteracting histamine and why?
epinephrine which is a physiologic antagonist of histamine, it dilates bronchioles via beta 2 receptors
which drug blocks bronchoconstriction produced by histamine at the H1 receptor? only antagonizes one of the mediators released during anaphylaxis
antihistamine
what is the competitive antagonist to histamine and what do they compete for?
Histamine 1 receptors
what are some uses for antihistamines?
over the counter sleep aid, also allergic rhinitis, allergic reaction, nausea and vomiting, motion sickness, and preoperative sedation
how are antihistamines categorized
sedating and nonsedating
what antihistamine is best known for its sedation effect
diphenhydramine
what is the most common side effect of older antihistamines
sedation
prostaglandins and thromboxanes are members of a biologically active group known as what?
eicosanoids
what are thromboxanes synthesized by and what does it stimulate?
platelets,
platelet aggregation,
vasocinstrictor
what stimulates the release of growth hormone as well as teh release of female sex hormones
prostaglandins
what are some prostglandin antagonists
aspirin, NSAIDS, Eugenol (oil of cloves)
what drug group is leukotrienes
autocoid
what drug group is kinins
autocoid
what are leukotrienes derived from?
arachidonic acid
leukotrienes cause powerful
bronchoconstriction
what drug group is substance P
autocoids
what does substance P function as?
a neurotransmittor in CNS and a local hormone in GI tract
what machine can epilepsy be monitored on?
EEG or electroencephalogram
what percentage of the population has a chronic seizure disorder?
one percent
what are the two large groups of generalized seizures?
absence and tonic-clonic
which type of generalized seizure has major movement involved?
tonic-clonic
what type of seizure is characterized by staring off?
absence seizure petit mal
what is the drug of choice for grand mal?
parenteral benzodiazepines such as diazepam (valium)
what is the most common anticonvulsant used in the treatment of epilepsy
phenytoin
what can phenytoin cause then can lead to noncompliance in young women
hirsutism (excessive hairyness)