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166 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is pharmacodynamics?
the study of the biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action
What is pharmacokinetics?
the way the body handles drug absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and excretion
What are the 4 stages which all drugs go through when introduced into the body?
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
What is methenamine used to treat?
UTIs, releases formaldehyde and acts through simple chemical interactions
What is an electrostatic interaction?
attraction between functional groups having opposite charges
What is hydrogen bonding?
hydrogen covalently bonded to an electronegative atom is attracted to another electronegative atom
What molecules affect gene expression?
corticosteroids, mineralocorticoids, sex steroids, Vitamin D, thyroid hormone, and P450 inducers
What are the 2 major consequences of drugs which act through affecting the gene transcription of cells?
1)the effects occur after a lag period of 30 minutes to several hours b/c of the time required for the synthesis of new proteins
2)effects persist for hours or days even after the hormone concentration has been reduced to 0 b/c new proteins that have been synthesized last until they are degraded
What molecules act through protein tyrosine kinase signaling?
insulin, epidermal growth factor, and platelet derived growth factor
What is imatinib (gleevec)?
a BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor
-it is a type of signal transduction inhibitor
-sorafenib and sunitinib also inhibit several protein tyrosine kinases
-used to decreased the response to some of the growth factors which may be overstimulated in some cancers
What molecules/drugs act through ligand gated channels?
-nicotinic/ACh-->sodium channel
-GABA-->chloride channel
-benzodiazepines (eg diazepam)-->chloride
-barbiturates-->chloride
What 2 compounds enhance the effects of GABA on it's receptor?
benzodiazepines
phenobarbital
What are the drugs and receptors that increase cAMP formation (Gs)?
epinephrine (B1 and B2), norepinephrine (B1 and B2), isoproterenol (B1 and B2), dopamine (D1), dobutamine (B1), histamine (H2), FSH, glucagon, ACTH
What 2 substances inhibit phosphodiesterase and subsequently increase cAMP levels?
caffeine and theophylline
What are some drugs and receptors that inhibit cAMP formation (Gi)?
norepinephrine (alpha2), dopamine (D2), clonidine (alpha 2), ACh (M2), morphine, serotonin
What are some Gq coupled receptors which act through IP3/DAG?
-M1 and M3 muscarinic receptors (ACh)
-Alpha 1 receptors (NE, and phenylephrine)
-serotonin receptors
Where does NO production occur and in response to what?
in endothelial cells in response to activation of histamine or muscarinic receptors
What does sildenafil (viagra) do?
it inhibits the enzyme PDE V (which inactivates cGMP normally) which will increase its concentration and lead to increased vasodilation
Name an alpha 1 antagonist?
phentolamine
Name a Beta 1 and 2 antagonist?
propanolol
What is the EC50 of a drug?
the drug concentration at which the effect is 50% or half the maximal effect
What is Kd?
the drug concentration at which the receptor occupancy is half the maximal (or 50%)
What is drug affinity?
a measure of the propensity of a drug to BIND with a given receptor

-a drug with an affinity of 10^-7 has a greater affinity for a receptor than a drug with a Kd or 10^-6 M
What is drug potency?
a comparative expression relating to the dose required to produce a particular EFFECT of given intensity relative to a standard reference

-a drug that exerts 50% of its effect at lower concentrations (ED50) is more potent than one that exerts the same effect at higher concentrations
What is drug efficacy?
a biologic response resulting from the binding of a drug to its receptor
-a receptor antagonist has no efficacy b/c it does not directly provoke a biologic response, it does have potency tho (the smaller the dose needed to block a specific response the more potent the antagonist)
-this concept is synonymous with intrinsic activity of a drug
What effect do competitive inhibitors have on Vmax and Km?
-they decrease affinity (increase Km) and Vmax is unchanged
What is threshold dose?
a dose below which no response is observed
What is the therapeutic ratio for humans?
TR=TD50/ED50

where TD50 is the dose that is toxic to 50% of the population (humans)
What is pharmacokinetic tolerance?
the response to the drug is lessened b/c the drug induces enzymes responsible for its own metabolism
-AKA metabolic tolerance
ex: pentobarbital sleeping time is reduced in subjects pretreated with barbiturates for several days
-also, the dose of warfarin must be increased in pts. taking barbiturates or phenytoin b/c they induce enzymes that metabolize warfarin
What is pharmacodynamic tolerance?
tolerance develops at the cellular level
-may be due to changes in receptor number or function
-ex: continuous exposure to B-adrenergic agonists results in receptor downregulation and decreased responsiveness to the drug
-also, the dose of opioids (morphine) must be increased over time to obtain sufficient relief of pain
What is tachyphylaxis?
when there is a very rapid development of tolerance
-occurs with indirectly acting amines such as tyramine and amphetamine which exert their effects by releasing monoamines from the mobile pool
-if several doses are given over a short time, the monoamine pool is depleted reducing the response in successive doses
What is desensitization?
-it is a mechanism of drug tolerance
-refers to a process that occurs rapidly such as when exposure to an agonist results in the conversion of a channel to an altered state that remains closed (ex: succinylcholine)
-another type is when a receptor coupling element is phos. to an inactive form
What is down-regulation?
-a mechanism of drug tolerance
-refers to the process of ligand-induced endcytosis and degradation of receptors which decreases receptor number b/c the rate of degradation is enhanced w/o an increase in receptor synthesis
-in general, agonists cause a down-reg if admin. at high doses for prolonged periods
What is physiologic tolerance?
occurs when 2 agents that yield opposing physiologic effects are administered
-ex: histamine admin. w/NE they counteract each others effects
What is competitive tolerance?
occurs when a receptor antagonist is admin. w/an agonist
-ex: yohimbine (natural tx for impotence) may block the hypotensive effect of clonidine or methyldopa
What is chemically induced increased drug activity?
-admin. of a certain chemical can serve as an antagonist to a specific receptor target and this tends to cause an increase in the number of receptors (up-regulation)
-ex:admin. of general anesthetic halothane causes increase in catecholamine sensitivity
-ex: catecholamine sens. also enhanced in pts. admin. a B-adrenergic receptor antagonist
What is surgically induced increased drug activity?
a supersensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to agonists develops when the presynaptic nerve has been surgically destroyed or lesioned, resulting in a decrease in the amount of endogenous agonists and an increase in receptor # (denervation supersens)
How does a deficiency in degrading enzymes lead to increased drug activity?
-these deficiencies are typically generic in nature
-ex: there is an increased sensitivity to succinylcholine (sk. mm. relaxant) in pts. with abnormal serum cholinesterase
-ex: primaquine (anti-malarial drug) induces acute hemolytic anemia in pts. with G6PD deficiency
How does competition for binding sites lead to increased drug activity?
-drugs may displace one another from plasma albumin binding sites, enhancing the response to one agent
-ex: the dose of warfarin must be decreased in pts. taking phenytoin (anticonvulsant) which will displace warfarin from plasma albumin
What is drug synergism?
when the effect of the combination is larger than the sum of the two individual effects (ex: antihypertensive agents)
What is drug potentiation?
when one drug that does not have a specific effect increases the effect of another drug
What does an "overextension" of the therapeutic effect of a drug refer to?
we call is an overextension of the drug is a toxic rxn is mediated by the same "receptor-effector" mechanism
ex: excessive fall in BP by an antihypertensive drug
What types of drugs have a higher likelihood of producing Hypersensitivity rxns?
highly charged molecules (penicillin, heparin) and compounds with a long half-life (isoniazid, etc)
Describe a Type I HS rxn.
includes anaphylaxis, urticaria, and angiodema
-rxn is mediated by the synthesis of an Ab directed toward the allergen
-IgE molecules bind to blood basophils and tissue mast cells via Fc receptors for the Ab
-when the drug is introduced into the body it binds to IgE bound to the sensitized cells which causes release of inflamm. mediators (LTs, PGEs, histamine)
How is a type I HS rxn treated?
-immediate tx consists of an injection of epinephrine (0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution or 0.5 mg IV or IM)
-corticosteroids sometimes used
-EX: penicillin induced anaphylaxis
Describe a type II HS rxn.
-some AI syndromes can be induced by drugs
-damage usually mediated by IgM or IgG binding to cells or tissue which activates complement (these rxns usually subside w/in months after drug withdrawal)
-immunosuppressive therapy required only in unusually severe cases
Describe a type III HS rxn.
-mediated by immune complexes, also called serum sickness
-reactions usually last 6-12 days and subside once the agent is removed
-corticosteroids useful in treating severe cases
-several drugs including sulfonamides, penicillins, thiouracil, anticonvulsants, and iodides can induce immune vasculitis
-stevens-johnson syndrome is a more severe form of vasculitis caused by sulfonamides
Describe type IV HS rxn.
-cell-mediated or delayed HS often occurs when drugs are applied topically
-mediated by sensitized T-cells
-ex:poison ivy
What is a drug idiosyncrasy?
an abnormal response to a drug that is not immunologically mediated
-likely that these defects are all genetically determined abnormalities of enzymes and receptors
-often referred to as "pharmacogenetic disorder"
Describe the examples of drug idiosyncrasies.
1)Apnea caused by succinylcholine in pts. with abnormal serum cholinesterase (succinylcholine depolarizes motor end plate which causes paralysis and relax. of voluntary mm.), pts. with abnormal serum cholinesterase cannot destroy the drug and remain paralyzed for 4-8 hours instead of 30 mins.
2)fast and slow acetylation of isoniazid, slow have low hepatic-N-acetyltransferase and are more prone to isoniazid induced B6 defic. (anemia), fast more prone to hepatotox.
3)hemolytic anemia elicited by primaquine in pts. whose RBCs are deficient in G6PD, RBCs without this enzyme cannot regen. NADPH b/c they don't have G6PD which is a major regulatory site of the pentose phosphate pathway
4)Barbiturate induced porphyria in pts. with abnormal heme synthesis-barbituric acid mimics part of the heme structure thereby occupying a portion of the heme site on the protein that regulates production of ALA synthase (heme normally inhibits prod. of ALA synth), barbituric acid is a less effective repressor -->more poryphyrins produced
What is the dibucaine number?
a measure of the ability of a pt. to metabolize succinylcholine and can be used to identify at-risk pts.
-under standard test conditions, dibucaine inhibits the normal enzymes by 80% and the abnormal by only 20%
-this is not a routine clinical procedure however
What is the incidence of a placebo response in most clinical trials?
fairly constant between 20-40%
-this can complicate the evaluation of efficacy and toxicity in clinical trial
What is a single-blind design study?
-it involves the use of a placebo administered to the same subjects in a crossover design if possible or to a separate control group
-does not protect against observer bias b/c the clinical scientist knows which pts. are receiving test agent and which get the placebo
What is a double-blind design study?
neither the pt. nor the clinical scientist knows who is receiving the test agent
-protects against investigator and subject bias in the collection and eval. of data
In what manner is L-DOPA transported into the CNS?
via facilitated diffusion
-does not require energy, slower than active transport, and goes with the concentration gradient
What form will predominate of an acidic drug in a weakly acidic medium?
the less ionized form which means that it will be more lipid soluble and rapidly absorbed
What will happen if a weakly basic drug diffuses into an acidic medium?
it will become ionized and will accumulate in that environment (known as ion trapping)
What 2 compounds will make the urine pH more alkaline?
sodium bicarbonate
acetazolamide
How can we acidify the urine?
give ammonium chloride
In what form are strong acids and strong bases in the body?
they are ALWAYS IONIZED
-they are never lipid soluble and can not penetrate lipid membranes by passive diffusion
What is bioavailability of a drug?
the amount of active drug available in the bloodstream
-bioavailability is 100% for IV drugs
-calculated by dividing the AUC produced with any non-IV admin. by the AUC produced with IV admin.
What is "first pass effect"?
the initial metabolism of a drug while passing through the wall of the gut and liver
Example: Morphine by the oral route is absorbed completely but its bioavail. is only 33%. About 67% of morphine is extracted in the liver thus we say it has a significant first pass-effect or high extraction ratio
-this first pass effect can be eliminated to some extent by using routes other than oral
How does gastric emptying time affect drug absorption?
the longer the gastric emptying time, the more delayed absorption is b/c the drug resides for a longer time in the poor absorptive environment of the stomach before it reaches the intestine
Describe subcutaneous absorption of drugs.
usually occurs more slowly
-large volumes should not be admin. this way unless they contain hyaluronidase (an enzyme that facilitates their spread through the tissues)
Describe absorption via intraperitoneal injection.
-the peritoneal cavity has a large absorbing surface but drugs must first pass into the portal vein and therefore first pass metabolism is possible
-these are seldom used
How is the volume (apparent) of distribution calculated?
total amount of drug in the body/concentration in plasma
=Div/Co
Co=concentration of drug in plasma at time zero
Div=intravenous dose
Describe the significance of Vd (volume of distribution).
-the values for most drugs do not represent their actual distribution in the body fluid
-it is a conceptual figure
-drugs that distribute extensively or that bind extensively to peripheral tissues always show large Vd and vice versa
-low Vd would indicate that the drug is mostly present in the plasma
-drugs with very high plasma protein binding have low Vd
Describe how fat can act as a reservoir for drugs.
lipid soluble drugs will accumulate in the fat
-ex: obese individuals are harder to anesthetize b/c you must first saturate their fat store before circulating levels of the drug become significant
What are the sites of drug exclusion?
CSF, ocular fluid, endolymph fluid, fetal fluid, pleural fluid
What kinds of drugs will accumulate in breast milk?
-basic drugs b/c the milk is more acidic than plasma
-fat soluble drugs b/c of high lipid content of milk
-tetracyclines which chelate Ca will accumulate
Describe the concept of redistribution.
-several forms may occur but the most clinically relevant is observed with highly lipid-soluble agents
example: when thiopental is admin. IV, it is initially distributed to areas of highest blood flow such as brain, liver, and kidneys, after this the drug is redist. to and stored in mm. and fat which decreases plasma concentrations
-as the plasma level falls, the drug then diffuses out of the sites of initial accumulation decreasing the brain levels and terminating the clinical effect
-thiopental is a rapidly onset, short acting general anesthetic
What are the 2 ways in which drug elimination from the body occurs?
1)first order kinetics
2)zero order kinetics
What is clearance of a drug?
a measure of the capacity of the body to remove a drug
-systemic clearance is the sum of all clearances (renal+hepatic+lung+others)
-for most drugs the clearance is constant over the usual plasma concentration range (first order elim)
How many half-lives does it take to reach a steady state condition and concentration (first order elim only)?
about 5 half lives
What percent of the steady-state drug concentration is achieved in 3.3 half-lives?
90%
Describe the plateau state of a steady state concentration for first order elimination drugs.
-attained after 4-5 half lives
-time to plateau is independent of dose
-level of plateau is proportional to dose
What will shortening the dosing interval do to the steady state concentration of a drug?
it will increase it
What is maintenance dose?
the quantity of drug to be administered at selected intervals, or by continuous infusion, to produce steady state plasma levels
-alternate name for this concept is target concentration (TC)
How is dosing rate calculated?
it is equal to the elimination rate
CL*TC/F
F=bioavailability
How is maintenance dose calculated?
it is the dosing rate multiplied by the dosing interval
(CL*TC/F) X dosing interval
How is loading dose calculated?
Vd X TC
-used to achieve immediate therapeutic concentration
Describe generic drugs.
they contain the same active ingredients, different formulation, similar dissolution, similar AUC, and do have FDA approval, cost less
What are the properties of most pharmacologically active drugs?
-lipid soluble (can diffuse across lipid membranes)
-unionized or partially ionized at phys. pH
-strongly bound to plasma proteins and other tissues
-not readily excreted by the kidney
-tend to remain in the body for a long time unless liver metabolizes them and kidney excretes them
Where is the most important biotransformation site?
the liver
-but drugs can also be metabolized in the GI tract, intestinal wall, skin, lung, kidney, etc..
What are the 2 classes of rxns in which all drug biotransformations are divided?
1)Phase I reactions (modification of the molecule)
2)Phase II reactions (conjugation)
Describe Phase I reactions.
-they usually convert lipid-soluble parent compounds to more polar metabolites (that are less lipid soluble)
-these metabolites are often inactive and readily excreted
-these rxns usually introduce or unmask certain functional groups (OH, SH, etc), the metabolic products formed are generally inactive, but sometimes can be more active than parent compound
-these rxns are not compound specific (no specific enzymes), the enzymes attack specific groups or bonds of many different molecules
-
Describe Phase II reactions.
-the resulting products of these rxns will be of larger molecular wt., increased polarity (less lipid soluble), and decreased biological activity
-some of these rxns produce free radicals which then must be reduced by Glutathione
-the groups most often involved in conjugate formation are glucuronyl, sulfate, methyl, acetyl, glycyl, and glutathione
Describe the size of molecules able to pass through the kidney.
MW<350=excreted by kidney (lost in urine)

MW>350=excreted into GI tract and bile
-in the GI tract digestive or bacterial enzymes may free the conjugated drug which can then be reabsorbed into the bloodstream
What drug is administered in a conjugated form and why?
estrogen
-the conjugates are metabolized in the GI tract and some of the drug will get absorbed
What are 3 notable drugs which increase the activity of the microsomal oxidase and conjugating systems when administered repeatedly?
rifampin
ethanol
carbamazepine
Describe how the toxicity of acetaminophen is altered with induction of the p450 system.
it's toxicity is increased b/c the phase I metabolites are mainly responsible for the toxicity seen with acetaminophen use
What is the only phase II enzyme that is microsomal and, therefore, inducible?
glucoronyl transferase
Give some examples of phase I reactions (oxidative) that are not catalyzed via the p450 system.
1)ethanol also metabolized by cytoplasmic enzyme, alcohol dehydrogenase (not inducible) in addition to CYP2E1

2)xanthine oxidase inactivates 6-mercaptopurine
3)MAO inactivates many biologically active amines (NE, tyramine)
What are some important reductive rxns that take place as phase I rxns?
-warfarin is inactivated by conversion of a ketone to a hydroxyl group by CYP2A6
What types of bonds are susceptible to hydrolysis (phase I rxn)?
ester (more) and amide (less)
In the elderly what usually occurs first: liver or kidney decline in function?
kidney before liver
-capacity for renal excretion decreases and then the capacity for Phase I metabolism becomes reduced
-the capacity for conjugation is maintained for the longest time
What is the relationship between penicillin and probenecid?
they share the same transport system in the kidney for excretion
-when admin. together, competition occurs for excretion and probenecid prolongs the action of penicillin by retarding its excretion
Describe the excretion of digoxin and aminoglycosides.
they are highly polar drugs which means they have low tubular permeabillity (cannot freely diffuse across the lipid membrane)
-the filtered drug remains in the tubule and its concentration rises until it is about 100 times as high in the urine as in the plasma (very easily excreted this way)
What significance does the ion-trapping effect have on drug excretion?
it basically means that a basic drug is more rapidly excreted in acidic urine b/c the low pH within the tubule favors ionization and thus inhibits reabsorption
ex: urinary alkalinization is used to accelerate the excretion of aspirin and phenobarbitol in treating suspected cases of overdose
What is subacute toxicity?
occurs from repeated exposures of an agent over a period of no longer than 3 months
What is chronic toxicity?
occurs from repeated exposures over a period >3 months
What are the primary determinants of toxicity?
-dose and dose rate
-duration of exposure
-route of exposure (IV>inhalation>SC>oral>topical)
After what time point is gastric lavage not recommended?
after 4 hours
What are the contraindications for gastric lavage?
-more than 30 mins have elapsed since ingestion of a corrosive material
-hydrocarbon solvents have been ingested
-coma, stupor, delirium or convulsions are present or imminent
What are the drugs that reduce absorption/enhance elimination?
activated charcoal: adsorb chemicals
ipecac syrup:oral emetic
Ammonium chloride: acidify urine
sodium bicarbonate:alkalinize the urine
magnesium sulfate:cathartic
mannitol:osmotic diuretic
What are some drugs that chelate metals??
-deferoxamine mesylate:used for iron poisoning
-dimercaprol:arsenic, gold, mercury, and acute lead poisoning
-edetate, Ca disodium:used for lead poisoning
-penicillamine:used for Wilson's disease, cystinuria, and resistant cases of rheumatoid arthritis, chelates copper (also used for lead)
What are some drugs that inactivate toxins?
-acetylcysteine:used in acetaminophen poisoning
-digoxin-specific FAB abs:used for cardiac glycoside tox.
WHat is flumazenil?
used for benzo overdoses
What can be used to treat cholinesterase inhibitor protein overdose/toxicity?
atropine
Describe Botulinus toxin poisoning. (including sx, tx, and cause)
food borne toxin which is an exotoxin produced by an anaerobic microbe clostridium botulinum, can be destroyed easily by boiling
-causes paralysis of mm. by preventing release of Ach
-sx are vomiting, double vision, and muscular paralysis (flaccid)
-tx: emesis, lavage, or cathartic depending on time elapsed since ingestion, support vital signs and draw blood for toxin determination in blood, give type ABE botulinus antitoxin
Describe bacterial food poisoning. (acute gastroenteritis)
caused by toxins elaborated during the growth of salmonella
-sx appear 2-4 hrs after eating and include severe GI inflammation, mild fever, dehydration, occasionally shock
-tx is anti emetic to control severe vomiting, maintain fluid intake, and supportive care
Decribe toxicity by bleach.
-bleaches are normally 3-6% solutions of sodium hypochlorite in water
-sx: severe irritation, hypotension, delirium, coma
-tx: remove from skin by flooding with water, DO NOT use emesis, lavage, or acid antidotes, but DO give milk, melted ice cream or beaten eggs, antacids can be helpful
Describe toxicity by organophosphates.
-an agricultural poison that is an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor
-sx:cholinomimetic symptoms of the SLUD (salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation
-milk intox. causes anorexia, headache, dizziness, weakness, anxiety, tremors of the tongue and eyelids, miosis and impairment of visual acuity
-moderate tox. results in nausea, salivation, tearing, abdominal cramps, vomiting, sweating, slow pulse, etc.
-severe tox. results in diarrhea, pin point and NR pupils, resp. difficulty, pulmonary edema, cyanosis, coma and heart block
-tx: remove contaminated clothing wash skin thoroughly, cautiously give a small dose of atropine to block cholinergic effects, then increase dose as needed
-2PAM may also be given to reactivate the Achase enzyme
-gastric lavage or emesis if ingestion was recent, support vital signs
Describe toxicity by carbamates.
-an agricultural toxin that is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor
-sx and tx similar to organophosphates but 2PAM is CONTRAINDICATED!!
Describe toxicity by strychnine.
-was widely used as a rodenticide but is rarely used today b/c rats quickly become bait shy
-a competitive agonist of glycine, glycine is an important inhibitory transmitter to motorneurons and interneurons in the SC, strychnine blocks this and causes convulsions and rigidity of skeletal mm.
-sx: convulsions, death results from resp. paralysis and failure
tx: IV diazepam or succinylcholine to control convulsions, after convulsions and hyperactivity are controlled prevent further absorption of strychnine using charcoal
Describe toxicity via chlorophenoxy compounds.
-an herbicide that produces signs of neuromuscular involvement in high doses
-these agents are usually contaminated with TCDD which is extremely toxic in some spp but not as much so in humans (this compound may have reproductive and carcinogenic affects in large amounts for long periods)
-
Describe toxicity by dinitrophenols.
an herbicide that uncouples ox. phos. thus increasing metabolic rate and temperature
Describe toxicity by paraquat.
undergoes redox cycling and causes free radical-mediated injury to lungs
Describe toxicity by halogenated hydrocarbons.
an occupational hazard (ex. carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, methylene chloride, etc)
-mechanism of liver toxicity for CCl4 results from metabolism by cytochrome P450 to the trichlormethyl free radical (CCl3), free radical induced lipid peroxidation causes an increase in intracell. Ca leading to cell death
-sx: CNS depressants, may cause cardiac arrhythmias at high doses by sensitizing the myocardium to catecholamine stimulation, liver and kidney damage
-tx: remove contaminated clothing to stop further absorption, treat sx and support vitals
Describe poisoning by methanol.
-the acute tox. results from its rapid metabolic conversion to formaldehyde and formic acid
-sx: visual disturbances, metabolic acidosis, death is usually due to acidosis and resp. failure
-tx: emesis or gastric lavage, antidot is 50% ethanol IV (since they compete for same enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase)
-alternatively, fomepizole, a synthetic alc. dehydrogenase inhibitor is used
-treat acidosis with sodium bicarb.
Describe toxicity by ethanol.
sx: CNS effects include stim. due to inhibition of inhibitory pathways (GABA), followed by anaesthetic like CNS depression at higher doses, visual impairment, musc. incoordination, slowing of reaction time, euphoria, resp. depression and coma
-effects on kidney include diuresis by ADH inhibition and temp. positive fluid balance
-increased salivation and gastric secretion stimulates the appetite
-peripheral vasodilation causes warm, flushed skin, inferfering with normal homeostatic mechanisms
-tx: with acute poisoning support vital signs, avoid depressant drugs, hemodialysis if blood levels are greater than 500 mg %
-in chronic poisoning treat seizures associated with alcohol withdraw with IV diazepam, addiction and family counseling
What is disulfiram?
it is given to discourage alchohol use
-it inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase causing an accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood resulting in nausea and vomiting
Describe toxicity by isopropyl (rubbing) alcoho.
sx: CNS depression (like other alcohols), renal damage
-tx: gastric lavage,
Describe toxicity by ethylene glycol and diethylene glycol.
sx: similar to ethanol, CNS depression, kidney damage due to calcium oxalate crystals
-tx: gastric lavage, give ethanol IV as an antidote since it prevents the conversion of glycols to oxalic acid by competing for the dehydrogenase
-give fomepizole a synthetic alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor
Describe toxicity by petroleum distillates.
-a hydrocarbon, mixtures of aliphatic hydrocarbons like kerosene, diesel fuel, and gasoline, white spirit, polishes and other household products
-sx:pulmonary irritation by high concentration of vapor, CNS depression by ingestion or inhalation, severe pneumonitis after aspiration
-tx: emesis and gastric lavage w/o tracheal intubation are CONTRAINDICATED
Describe toxicity by aromatic hydrocarbons.
examples are benzene, toluene, xylene
-sx: CNS stimulation at low doses or early in high doses followed by CNS depression , kidney and liver damage, cardiac arrhythmias caused by catecholamine release can be enhanced by high exposure, long term exposure to benzene can cause aplastic anemia and leukemia
-tx: remove ingested hydrocarbon by gastric lavage only if aspiration can be prevented, DO NOT INDUCE EMESIS, control convulsions with IV diazepam
Describe toxicity by oxalic acid and oxalates.
-they are corrosives
-sx: local irritation and corrosion of the GI tract, mm weakness, convulsions and ollapse due to Ca chelation, renal tubular damage due to Ca oxalate ppt
-tx: ppt oxalate in the GI tract by giving Ca in any form (milk, antacids, etc)
-monitor renal function and force fluids to prevent oxalate crystals from depositing in the kidney tubules, specific antidote is Ca gluconate IV
-DO NOT USE GASTRIC LAVAGE OR EMETICS
Describe toxicity by mineral acids.
-examples are hydrochloric, sulfuric, acetic, perchloric
-sx: irritation, inflammation, and or necrosis in all parts of the GI tract exposed to the corrosive substance
-death usually due to unresolved hypovolemic shock after massive hemorrhage
-tx: do not use gastric lavage or emesis, dilute the acid with water, give analgesics to reduce pain, a non specific antidote is milk of magnesia
Describe toxicity by strong alkali.
-corrosive, hydroxides in soaps, cleansers, drain cleaners
-sx: irritation, inflammation and tissue damage, more penetrating than strong acids, death usually due to hypovolemic shock
-tx: DO NOT USE GASTRIC LAVAGE OR EMESIS
-dilute with water and treat sx, support vitals
Describe toxicity by arsenic and arsine.
-occur in many chemical forms and cause toxicity by binding to sulfhydryl groups on enzymes and interfering with cell. metabolism
-sx: acute causes GI disturbances, CNS effects where convulsions and coma are the terminal signs, ventricular arrhythmias, kidney tubular damage
-chronic causes polyneuritis, nephritis, dermatitis, cardiac failure, cirrhosis, personality changes
-tx: remove ingested arsenic by lavage or emesis, dimercaprol or penicillamine can be used to chelate
Describe toxicity by lead.
-one of most toxic metals b/c it accumulates in the body, usually occurs in kids, primarily stored in bones but sx are due to lead in soft tissues
-sx:acute inorganic lead tox. leads to GI irritation and kidney damage
-chronic inorganic lead tox. lines the gums, basophilic erythrocyte stippling (characteristic of immature RBCs due to RNA in the cells), accumulation of aminolevulinic acid (hgb precursor) due to inhibition of heme synthesis by lead
-GI effects, constipation, pain
-CNS effects in lead-poisoned kids (BBB more permeable)
-hyperirritability loss of recently developed skills, finally coma and intractable convulsions, wrist drop, ankle drop, paralysis, weakness, incoordination, etc
-acute organic lead by organo-lead cmpds are much more likely to get into CNS and can even cause sx in adults
-tx: remove unabsorbed lead, chelation forms the organic form of lead which is more likely to cross the BBB but in cases of severe CNS tox it must be used
Describe toxicity by iron.
-sx: severe GI irritation, inflammation, necrosis and hemorrhage resulting in hypotension, metabolic acidosis and shock
-tx: lavage only within the 1st hr after ingestion
-admin deferoxamine orally and parenterally
Describe toxicity by mercury.
all inorganic mercury salts are toxic, many effects of acute poisoning are related to GI tract damage
-sx:
acute:irritation and superficial corrosion, abdominal pain, vomiting
secondary effects: diarrhea, shock, acute renal tubular necrosis
delayed effects: severe kidney damage leading to anuria, severe GI damage and hemorrhage
chronic effects: early: salivation, stomatitis (swollen, bleeding gums)
late: erethism (emotional instability, tremor, more severe stomatitis, coarse jerky movements, depression, loss of memory, hallucinations, mania
-organic mercury has predominately CNS effects: paresthesia, mm. twitching, ataxia, gross constriction of visual fields
-tx: lavage or induce emesis, give milk, raw eggs, or charcoal, give dimercaprol parenterally for inorganic mercury but not orally since the chelated form is more readily absorbed from GI tract
What is dimercaprol (BAL)?
used to chelate arsenic, lead, gold, and inorganic mercury
-can have toxic effects such as CNS disturbance, CV disturbance, BAL-iron complex is toxic so avoid medicinal iron during therapy
-usual course for metal poisoning is 7-14 days by deep IM injection
-can be used with virtually complete renal shutdown
What is calcium disodium edetate?
used to chelate lead, zinc, alternate choice for other metals
-can cause renal damage, EKG abnormalities, toxic effects can be avoided using less than 50mg/kg/day
-during use urine flow must be maintained, therapy should not exceed 5-7 days, do not use NaEDTA b/c it will bind Ca and cause hypocalcemia
What is penicillamine?
used to chelate copper (Wilson's disease), alternate antidote for other metals
-can have toxic effects such as nephrotic syndrome, pyridoxine deficiency, transient eosinophilia, contraindicated in kids w/chronic renal insufficiency
What is succimer?
a lead chelator similar to dimercaprol but can be given orally, GI disturbances most common side effect
What is deferoxamine?
used to chelate specifically iron
-toxic effects include rapid infusion may induce shock, long term therapy may cause ocular damage
-oral dose is effective in binding iron in the GI tract
What are methemoglobin inducing agents?
-agents which oxidize hemoglobin to methemoglobin (Fe3+, ferric form) which is incapable of carrying O2
-direct acting agents are nitrites
-indirect are converted to metabolites which oxidize hgb to methgb
What are the ramifications of nitrite toxicity?
-sx:chocolate colored blood, hypotension, hypoxia and cyanosis, convulsions, coma, resp. failure
-tx: only necessary when 35% or more of hgb is in the oxidized form
-methylene blue
-in severe cases O2 admin. and exchange transfusions are helpful
Describe toxicity by carbon monoxide.
-odorless, colorless, one of most common causes of lethal poisonings in US
-CO has a greater affinity than O2 for Hgb and carboxyhemoglobin cannot transport O2, also impairs the ability of oxyhgb to give up its O2 to peripheral tissues
-sx:headache, dizziness, stupor, carboxyhemoglobin is cherry red so victims may have bright red healthy looking mucus membranes
-tx:terminate exposure immediately, admin. O2 by best means possible, do not give methylene blue
Describe toxicity by cyanide.
colorless gas with an odor of almonds
-cyanide complexes with ferric iron of cytochrome oxidase and produces cell. anoxia by inhibiting O2 use in the mito., one of most rapid acting poisons
-sx: dizziness, headache, convulsions, hypotension, resp. failure,
-tx: tx must be rapid to be of any benefit, form methemoglobin by admin. of Na nitrite or amyl nitrite, the methemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxidase for the cyanide ion
-rhodanese is the normal enzyme which leads to excretion of cyanide in the body (binds cyanide with thiosulfate to be excreted), sulfur is the limiting cofactor so sodium thiosulfate is given directly after nitrite admin (to make methgb)
-give 100% O2
Describe toxicity by free crystalline silica.
only very small particles of free crystalline forms of silica appear to cause silicosis
-sx:first stage:dyspnea and SOB,
second stage:weakness, resp problems
third stage:total disability, expirations are prolonged and difficult, induces a predisposition to TB, pt. usually dies of right heart failure
-tx:only symptomatic and supportive
-also seems to lead to cancer
Describe toxicity by asbestos.
can lead to linear fibrosis of the lungs, pleural adhesions and calcifications and tumors after moderate exposures
-cig smoking multiplies the risk of lung cancer
-sx: dyspnea, resp impairment and disability, pleural mesothelioma, brochogenic carcinoma
-tx: only sx and supportive
Describe radon toxicity.
naturally occurring radioactive gas which can't be seen or smelled
-increased risk of lung cancer, multiplied by smoking
-
Who is often considered to be the father of pharmacology?
Paracelsus
What entity regulates drugs?
the FDA
What information must a prescription note contain?
-the prescriber's information (name, degree, address, phone #),
-patient's name, date and address
-drug name
-strength of the drug
-quantity to be dispensed
-directions for taking the rx (how many times/day)
-refill information
-waiver of childproof containers, additional information, such as warnings regarding use
-prescriber's signature
-DEA number for scheduled drugs only
-state license #
Describe the properties for a rx of non-scheduled drugs.
-rx valid for one year from date of issue
-may be refilled multiple times
-may be faxed or phoned into a pharmacy
-may be preprinted
Describe schedule 1 drugs.
high abuse potential, with no recognized medical use (heroid, LSD, PCP,e tc)
-cannot be prescribed legally and are only used for research
Describe schedule 2 drugs.
-high abuse potential
-DEA number needed
-only a 30 day supply can be prescribed
-best to write out the number being prescribed in brackets following the number
-NO REFILLS
-cannot be filled more than 90 days following issuance of the rx
-no phone orders except in Emergency with written script within 7 days indicating it was recently placed by phone
-no pre-printed rx
-the rx should contain only ONE DRUG PER RX (unless in a hospital)
Describe schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs.
-lower abuse potential than schedule 2
-DEA number required
-may be refilled 5 times
-rx must be rewritten after 6 mos.
-no pre printed rx
What are some examples of non-microsomal (and therefore non-inducible) metabolism?
-esterases and amidases
-MAO
-alchohol and aldehyde dehydrogenases
What are some of the major types of conjugation reactions?
glucoronidation, acetylation, glutathione conjugation, glycine conjugation, sulfate conj, methylation, water conj.
Where does blood flow/venous drainage from the buccal mucosa go?
into systemic veins, not portal circulation
How much ethanol is eliminated per hour in humans?
10 grams/hr
How is half life calculated?
0.7 * Vd/CL
or
0.693/Kel
Kel=elimination constant
What is the therapeutic index?
LD50/ED50
What is the margin of safety?
LD1/ED99
How is clearance calculated?
Vd*(Keq)
Keq=elimination rate
What are inducers of many of the P450 enzymes including 3A4?
rifampin, barbiturates, phenytoin, carbamazepine, glucocorticoids, St. John's wort
What are the inducers for CYP1A2 P450 enzyme?
smoking
charcoal broiled foods
cruciferous veggies
dioxin
What are the inhibitors for many P450 enzymes?
cimetidine, amiodarone, paroxetine, fluoxetine
What are the CYP3A4 inhibitors?
ketoconazole, itraconazole, HIV protease inhibitors, erythromycin, clarithromycin, diltiazem, nicardipine, verapamil, grapefruit juice
What are the CYP2D6 inhibitors?
quinidine
SSRIs
What are the inducers for CYP2D6?
there are none!