Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
365 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Pencillin G is given oral or IV and used to treat what disease primarily?
|
IV, syphilis
|
|
Pencillin V is given oral or IV and used to treat what disease primarily?
|
oral, oropharyngeal infections
|
|
Nafcillin, dicloxacillin, oxacillin, and methicillin are all good against what organism?
|
Staph
|
|
What is a major side effect of Nafcillin?
|
neutropenia
|
|
What is a major side effect of oxacillin?
|
hepatitis
|
|
Are antistaphylococcal penicllins beta-lactamase resistant
|
yes
|
|
Cloxacillin and Dicloxacillin are classified as what type of penicllins?
|
Anti-staph
|
|
What is one side effect of ampicillin
|
maculopapular rash
|
|
Are broad spectrum penicillins betalactamse sensitive or insensitive?
|
sensitive
|
|
Infections such as Enterococci, Listeria monocytogenes, E. coli, Proteus mirabilis, H. influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis can be treated with what type of penicillins?
|
amoxicllin and ampicillin
broad specturm |
|
ONLY penicillin where absorption is NOT hindered by food
|
amoxicillin
|
|
Are the antipseudomonal penicillins beta lactam sensitive?
|
No, beta lactam resistant
|
|
Ticarcillin is effective against Gram negative ____
|
rods, such as pseudomonas, klebsiella, Enterobacter
|
|
Azlocillin is effective agains?
|
pseudomonas, klebsiella, Enterobacter
|
|
Most penicillins act synergystically with what other class of drug?
|
aminoglycosides
|
|
Cephalexin is what generation cephalosporin?
|
1st generation
|
|
1st generation cephalosporins such as cephalexin, cefadroxil, and cefazoli can be used to treat _____
|
UTIs and skin and soft tissue infections
also used for surgical phrophylaxis |
|
2nd generation cephalosporins include cefuroxime, cefotetan, cefaclor, and cefoxitin. Which one can cross the BBB?
|
cefuroxime
|
|
2nd generation cephalosporins include cefuroxime, cefotetan, cefaclor, and cefoxitin. Which one causes a disulfiram like reaction with ethanol?
|
cefotetan
|
|
2nd generation cephalosporins include cefuroxime, cefotetan, cefaclor, and cefoxitin. Which two is potent against bacteriodes fragilis?
|
cefotetan, cefoxitin
|
|
2nd generation cephalosporins include cefuroxime, cefotetan, cefaclor, and cefoxitin. Which two are good to used against Pneumococcus and H. influenza?
|
cefuroxime
cefaclor |
|
Can ceftriaxone be used to treat sepsis and menigintis? What generation is it?
|
Yes
3rd |
|
What cephalosporin can be used to treat gonorrhea?
|
Ceftriaxone
|
|
Moxalactam, cefotaxime, and ceftraixone, Ceftazidine are ___ generation cephalosporins
|
3rd
|
|
Ceftazidine is a ____ generation cephalosporin
|
3rd
|
|
Cefotaxime is a ___ generation cephalosporin
|
3rd
|
|
Do third generation cephalosporins enter the CNS?
|
Yes, with the exception of cefoperazone
|
|
Do third generation cephalosporins have any activity against Listeria, atypicals, MRSA, or enterococci?
|
No
|
|
Cefepime is a ___ generation cephalosporin
|
4th
|
|
Cefepime has improved stability to ____
|
beta-lactamase
|
|
Does cefepim have activity against Pseudomonas?
|
yes
|
|
Clauvulanic acid and sulbactam are beta lactamase ___
|
inhibitors
|
|
Clauvulanic acid and sulbactam are usually used with which two broad spectrum antibiotics?
|
amoxicillin
ampicillin |
|
Imipenem and ertapenem belong in the class of ____
|
carbepenams
|
|
High levels of imipenem may provoke ___
|
seizures
|
|
Which antibiotic binds D-ala-D-ala of nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide and inhibits transglycosylation. This prevents peptidoglycan elongation and cross-linking of the peptidoglycan cell wall.
|
vancomycin
|
|
What drug is used to treat MRSA?
|
vancomycin
|
|
"red man syndrome" is associated with usage of what antibiotic?
|
vancomycin
|
|
This antibiotic interferes with dephosphorylation in cycling of the lipid carrier that transfers peptidoglycan subunits to the growing cell walls
|
Bacitracin
|
|
What is the route of administration of bacitracin?
|
topical
|
|
Bacitracin should be administered how?
|
topically
|
|
Why is Bacitracin only used topically?
|
highly nephrotoxic
|
|
What antibiotic blocks incorporation of D-ala into peptidoglycan side chain
|
Cycloserine
|
|
Cycloserine is used to treat what disease?
|
TB
|
|
What side effect is there to cycloserine?
|
neurotoxicity
|
|
Is neomycin bacterialcidal or bacteriostatic? What group of drugs does it belong to?
|
bacterialcidal
aminoglycoside |
|
Which class of drugs blocks binding to the P site via the 30S ribosome?
|
aminoglycoside
|
|
Aminoglycosides are good to use against ___ gram negative bacteria
|
aerobic
|
|
Gentamicin is an _____ and is capable of treating Francisella tularenis
|
aminoglycoside
|
|
What are two common side effects of treatment with aminoglycosides?
|
ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
|
|
Streptomycin is an _____ and can be used for TB, bubonic plague, and tularemia
|
aminoglycoside
|
|
Steptomycin can also act as a neuromuscular blockade and therefore mimic ___ toxin
|
botulin
|
|
Which aminoglycoside has the least antibacterial resistance?
|
amikacin
|
|
Tobramycin is an _____ and can be used to treat pseudomonas along with an antipseudomonal penicillin such as ____
|
aminoglycoside
piperacillin, ticarcillin, azolocillin |
|
Contact dermatitis is a common reaction to topically applied ___
|
neomycin
|
|
Kanamycin is a _____
|
aminoglycoside
|
|
Erythromycin is a ______
|
macrolide
|
|
Which antibiotic works by blocking the translocation of the amino acid by binding to the 50S ribosome?
|
macrolide
|
|
What antibiotic works by blocking the peptidyltransferase reaction?
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
Atypicals, MAC in HIV patients, Legionella are treated with what macrolide?
|
erythromycin
|
|
All macrolides inhibit cytochrome p450 except for ____
|
azithromycin
|
|
Clindamycin is the drug of choice to treat against anaerobes such as ____
|
bacteriodes fragilis
|
|
Does clindamycin have activity against S. aureus?
|
yes
|
|
Osteomyelitis is treated very well with clindamycin. True or false.
|
True
|
|
Clindamycin has what side effect?
|
promotes pseudomembranous colitis with C. difficile
|
|
Clarithromycin is a ____
|
macrolide
|
|
Besides Chlamydia, legionalla, moraxella, and ureaplasma, Clatrithromycin also has activity against?
|
H. influenza
|
|
Which macrolide is used to treat Chlamydia?
|
azithromycin
|
|
Can chloramphenicol cross the BBB?
|
Yes
|
|
Grey baby syndrome is caused by what antibiotic?
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
Is chloramphenicol bacteriostatic, or bacteriocidal?
|
bacteriostatic
|
|
Which antibiotic blocks the metabolism of warfarin, phenytoin, tolbutamide, and chlorpropamide?
|
chloramphenical
|
|
What class of drugs binds reversibly to the 30S subunit, blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the acceptor site on the mRNA-ribosome complex
|
tetracyclines
|
|
What class of drugs cause Phototoxicity, Bone/teeth deposition, GI distress, Hepatotoxicity,
|
tetracyclines
|
|
What tetracycline is used to treat amebiasis, malaria prevention, Lyme disease?
|
doxycycline
|
|
Methacyclin and Minocyclin are both part of what group of drugs?
|
tetracylines
|
|
What two tetracyclines exhibit vestibular toxicity?
|
doxycycline, minocyclin
|
|
Which tetracycline eliminates meningococcal carrier state?
|
minocyclin
|
|
Which sulfa drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase--> stops folic acid reduction to tetrahydrofolate
|
trimethoprim
|
|
Can UTI's be treated with trimethoprim?
|
Yes
|
|
Can MRSA be treated with a combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
|
Yes
|
|
megaloblastic anemia can result from treatment with which sulfa drug?
|
trimethoprim
|
|
The G6PD gene is considered ____ recessive and lack of the gene can lead to hemolytic anemia in patients on sulfa drugs
|
X-linked
|
|
TMP-SMX is used for pneumocystis pneumonia. True or False?
|
True
|
|
Cotrimoxazole is what two drugs together?
|
trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
|
|
What class of drugs is an innhibitor of folate synthesis: competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase b/c it's structurally similar to PABA
|
sulfoamides
|
|
Steven-Johnson syndrome could be a result of treatment with which class of drugs?
|
sulfa drugs
|
|
Sulfisoxazole are used to treat ____
|
UTIs
|
|
Sulfadiazine is used to treat ____ in conjunction with pyrimethamine
|
toxoplasmosis
|
|
What sulfa drug is used to treat ulcerative colitis, enteritis, and other inflammatory bowel disease?
|
sulfasalazine
|
|
Sulfacetamide is used IV, orally, or applied topically? What is it used to treat?
|
bacterial conjunctivitis, trachoma
|
|
Sulfadoxine is the second line of treatment for ___
|
malaria
|
|
Nalidixic acid is part of the ____ family of drugs
|
Quinolone
|
|
This drug is bactericidal: selectively/reversibly blocks DNA replication in bacteria; inhibits the subunit of DNA gyrase, DNA topoisomerase 2
|
Nalidixic acid
|
|
Nalidixic acid is part of the ____ family of drugs
|
Quinolone
|
|
Seizures, hallucinations, confusion; visual disturbances; metabolic acidosis; intracranial hypertension are side effects of what medication?
|
Nalidixic acid
|
|
This drug is bactericidal: selectively/reversibly blocks DNA replication in bacteria; inhibits the subunit of DNA gyrase, DNA topoisomerase 2
|
Nalidixic acid
|
|
Norfloxacin is part of the ____ family of drugs. Therefore it inhibits bacterial ____
|
Quinolone
topoisomerase |
|
Seizures, hallucinations, confusion; visual disturbances; metabolic acidosis; intracranial hypertension are side effects of what medication?
|
Nalidixic acid
|
|
What is norfloxacin used to treat?
|
UTIs and atyicals (chlamydia, mycoplasma)
|
|
Norfloxacin is part of the ____ family of drugs. Therefore it inhibits bacterial ____
|
Quinolone
topoisomerase |
|
Tendonitis and tendon rupture are a side effect of using what class of drugs?
|
Quinolones
|
|
What is norfloxacin used to treat?
|
UTIs and atyicals (chlamydia, mycoplasma)
|
|
Should one used quinolones in children or pregnant women?
|
No
|
|
Tendonitis and tendon rupture are a side effect of using what class of drugs?
|
Quinolones
|
|
Which drugs could potentially increase the QT interval and thus cause cardiac arrhythmias?
|
Quinolones
|
|
Should one used quinolones in children or pregnant women?
|
No
|
|
Which drugs could potentially increase the QT interval and thus cause cardiac arrhythmias?
|
Quinolones
|
|
Ciprofloxacin is effective in Effective in urogenital, GI tracts, and some respiratory infections; activity versus gonococci rapidly declining; limited use in tuberculosis. True or False
|
True
|
|
Isoniazid is effective against _____
|
antimycobacterial
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?
|
inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids, which are in mycobacterial cell walls
|
|
What are the first line drugs for TB therapy? 4 drugs
|
RIPE
rifampin isoniazid pyrazinamide ethambutol |
|
What is a major side effect isoniazid?
|
neurotoxicity (peripheral neuritis, restlessness, muscle twitching, and insomnia)
|
|
What TB drug disrupts mycobacterial cell membrane metabolism and transport functions
|
Pyrazinamide
|
|
nongouty polyarthralgia is a side effect of what TB drug?
|
Pyrazinamide
|
|
What TB drug inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase by binding to its beta subunit
|
Rifampin
|
|
What does rifampin do to cytochrome 450?
|
induces
|
|
light-chain proteinuria, rashes, thrombocytopenia, nephritis, harmless orange color to urine, sweat, and tears; flu-like symptoms; induces most cytochrome P450 isoforms (1A2, 2C9, 2C19, 2D6, and 3A4)--> increase elimination of many other drugs are side effects of what TB drug?
|
Rifampin
|
|
Which drug inhibits arabinosyl transferases involved in the synthesis of arabinogalactan, a component of mycobacterial cell walls
|
Ethambutol
|
|
visual disturbances such as decreased visual acuity, red-green color blindness, optic neuritis, and possible retinal damage is seen with what TB drug
|
Ethambutol
|
|
What TB drug is an aminoglycoside?
|
streptomycin
|
|
peripheral neuropathy, CNS dysfunction (depression and psychotic reactions) is seen with what 2nd line TB drug
|
Cycloserine
|
|
Dapsone is used to treat what disease?
|
leprosy
|
|
Which antimyobacterial drug inhibits folate synthesis: competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase b/c it's structurally similar to PABA
|
Dapsone
|
|
usually given with rifampin and/or clofazimine to prevent resistance
|
dapsone
|
|
Dapson can cause hemeolysis with what deficiency?
|
G6PDH
|
|
amphotericin B is used to treat what type of infections?
|
systemic fungal infections
|
|
Amphotericin B is a ___ and therefore binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, forming "leaky pores"
|
polyene
|
|
Candidemia and infections caused by Aspergillus, Blastomyces, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma, Mucor, etc can be treated with ____
|
Amphotericin B
|
|
What side effect is there to amphotericin B?
|
nephrotoxicity
|
|
What drug is sometimes given with amphotericin B?
|
flucytosine
|
|
Nystatin is what type of fungal drug?
|
polyene
|
|
Nystatin is used how?
|
Topically
|
|
Nystatin is usually used to treat what type of fungal infection?
|
Candida
|
|
What type of side effects means that Nystatin can only be taken topically?
|
causes severe GI distress if given orally
|
|
miconazole is an ____ and is used to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis
|
azole
|
|
clotrimazole is an ____ and binds to phospholipids in the fungal cell membrane altering cell wall permeability resulting in loss of essential intracellular elements
|
azole
|
|
Which pharm drug is a topical agent used in lotions and oral troches?
|
clotrimazole
|
|
What fungal drug displays: Hepatic: Abnormal liver function tests; Dermatologic: Pruritus; Gastrointestinal: Nausea, vomiting
|
clotrimazole
|
|
flucanoazole, itraconazole, and ketocazole all Inhibit fungal P450-dependent enzymes blocking ergosterol synthesis; resistance can occur with long-term use. True or False?
|
True
|
|
Itraconazole requires ____ pH for absorption and does not penetrate CSF
|
low
|
|
Can Fluconazole be used to treat meningitis?
|
Yes
|
|
What fungal drug is broad spectrum and can be used for vaginal and oral candidiasis?
|
Clotrimazole
|
|
Hypersensitivity cross reaction between _____ and griseofulvin is possible
|
penicillin
|
|
Flucytosine is a synthetic anti____ drug that is given orally for systemic infections
|
fungal
|
|
echinocandin prototype, inhibitor of (1-3)-glucan synthesis, a cell wall component.
|
casofugin
|
|
what anti-fungal drug Inhibits DNA and RNA polymerases
|
flucytosine
|
|
What class of drugs leads to Kernicterus?
|
Sulfonamides
|
|
What antifungal drug is good to use against cryptococcal meningitis?
|
flucytosine
|
|
Which antifungal drug inhibits thymidine synthetase and DNA synthesis?
|
flucytosine
|
|
Which antifungal drug inhibits fungal cell mitosis at metaphase; binds to human keratin making it resistant to fungal invasion; inhibits the microtubules
|
griseofulvin
|
|
Griseofulvin ____ cytochrome p450
|
induces
|
|
How is caspofungin administered?
|
intravenously
|
|
What is the mechanism by which metronidazole work?
|
Bioactivation of Metronidazole's nitro group by electron transport proteins in anaerobic bacteria and protozoa produces cytotoxic intermediates (free radicals)
|
|
What is the drug of choice against C.difficle?
|
metronidazole
|
|
What drug is used to treat amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis?
|
metroniadazole
|
|
What drug leaves a metallic taste in your mouth and also disulframlike effect
|
metronidazole
|
|
What drug is used in conjunction with chloroquine to treat malaria?
|
primaquine
|
|
Can primaquine cause hemolytic anemia?
|
Yes in patients with G6PD deficieny
|
|
Mefloquine is used against what pathogen?
|
malaria, used against chloroquine resistant strains
|
|
With higher doses of mefloquine patients may experience what type of symptoms?
|
neuropsychiatric symptoms with higher dose
|
|
What drug inhibits malarial heme polymerase
|
chloroquine
|
|
malaria drugs are usually administered via which route?
|
oral
|
|
What drugs are used to treat P. vivax and P. ovale?
|
chloroquine + primaquine
|
|
What drug which is not approved in the USA is effective against erythrocytic stage of malarial species only
|
halofantrine
|
|
What are the side effects of halofantrine?
|
cardiotoxicity, GI disturbance
|
|
What drug works on all four malarial species?
|
quinine
|
|
What drug causes cinchonism (constellation of symptoms including tinnitus, headache, nausea, dizziness, visual disturbances, flushing)
|
quinine
|
|
What drug is used for toxoplasmosis and also as a back up drug to chloroquine for malaria?
|
pyrimethamine
|
|
What tetracycline is used to treat multi-drug resistant p. falciparum
|
doxycycline
|
|
artemisinin works against what pathogen?
|
P. falciparum
|
|
proguanil has the same mechanism of action as ____ except it is a pro-drug and used for prophylaxis anti-malarial drug
|
pyrimethamine (blocks dihydrofolate reductase)
|
|
Methemoglobinemia is a side effect of what anti-leprosy drug?
|
dapsone
|
|
Sulfadoxine is an ultra-long-lasting sulfonamide often used in combination with pyrimethamine to treat or prevent ____
|
malaria
|
|
Niridazole is used to treat ____
|
schistosomiasis
|
|
Niridazole is rapidly concentrated in the parasite and inhibits oogenesis and spermatogenesis. The compound also inhibits the phosphofructokinase enzyme, leading to glycogen depletion. True or False?
|
True
|
|
This drug activates GABA receptors leading Cloride channel influx of Cl- leading to worm paralysis.
|
ivermectin
|
|
Does ivermetcin cross the BBB?
|
no, Rapid Absorb 4 hours maximum plasma conc. Wide tissue distribution. Excretion in feces.
|
|
onchocerciasis (river blindness) and strongyloidasis are treated with ivermetcin. true or false?
|
true
|
|
Mazotti reaction (fever, rash, hypotension, arthralgias, vertigo) results from what drug?
|
ivermectin
|
|
Is ivermectin contra-indicated in meningitis patients?
|
Yes
|
|
What anti-helminthic drug inhibits glucose uptake and microtubule synthesis and function?
|
Mebendazole
|
|
Pinworm is treated with which drug?
|
Mebendazole
|
|
Is mebendazole contraindicated in pregnant women?
|
Yes
|
|
Metronidazole, taken up by diffusion, is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. True or false?
|
True
|
|
Thiabenazole works by inhibiting microtubule synthesis and function. True or False?
|
True
|
|
How is thiabenazole taken?
|
Insoluble in aqueous solution. Absorbed orally
|
|
This antihelminthic drug should not be given to pregnant women and a number of fatalites because of erythema multiforme and stevens johnson syndrome have been caused by this drug
|
thiabendazole
|
|
diloxanide is used to treat what type of pathogens?
|
anti-helminthic specifically amebiasis in the intestine
|
|
This drug inhibits worm production of ATP- kill adults but not ova
|
niclosamide
|
|
niclosamide is used to treat ____
|
tapeworm
|
|
What is a side effect of niclosamide?
|
GI upset
|
|
iodoquinol is used to treat?
|
anti-helminths
Trophozoites in lumen not intstinal wall or extraintestine |
|
praziquantel increase ____ uptake causing parasite contraction and paralysis
|
calcium
|
|
Schistosomiasis, neurocysticercosis, hydatid disease and infection by D. latum and clonorchis is treated with which anti-helminth?
|
praziquantel
|
|
Contraindicated in ocular cysticerosis because paracyte distruction of eye can cause perm. damage
|
praziquantel
|
|
activates parasitic nicotinic receptors, causes worm paralysis so are expelled with feces
|
pyrantel
|
|
pyrantel is commonly used to treat ___
|
pinworm as is mebendazole
|
|
What do mebendazole, thiabendazole, and albendazole have in common?
|
anti-helminths that work by inhibiting microtubule synthesis and function
all contraindicated in pregnant women |
|
What antihelminth blocks acetylocholine leading to paralysis and evenually excreted by parastalsis
|
piperazine
|
|
Piperazine is used to treat ____
|
ascariasis (roundworm)
|
|
What anti-helminth immobilize microfilarae and render suseptable to host defense?
|
diethylcarbamazepine
|
|
Filariasis. with albendazole and diethylcarbamzine trats wuchereria bancrofti and brugia malayi. The worms that cause blockage of lymph flow. True or False?
|
True
|
|
Diethylcarbamazepine is used with what other two drugs?
|
ivermectin or albendazole
|
|
Mechlorethamine is what type of drug?
|
antineoplastic --> alkylating agent
|
|
Alkylating agents form DNA ___, facilitating DNA strand breakage
|
cross-links
|
|
mechlorethamine is used against what types of cancers?
|
Hodgkins' and non-Hodgkins' lymphoma
|
|
What antifungal drug inhibits thymidylate synthase, leading to thymine-less death?
|
Flucytosine
|
|
ondanestron, granisetron, or palonosetron are what type of medications?
|
anti-nausea/vomiting medications
|
|
neuroblastoma, Wilms' tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma can be treated with what anti-neoplastic drug?
|
Cyclophosphamide
|
|
What is one major side effect of cyclophosphamide and what metabolite causes this problem?
|
hemorrhagic cystitis
|
|
Treatment with mesna can trap ____ and therefore decrease the chance of developing hemorrhagic cystitis with the usage of _____
|
acrolein
cyclophosphamide |
|
What anti-neoplastic drug that is an alkylating agent is used to treat multiple myeloma?
|
melphalan
|
|
Secondary malignancy (cumulative dose and duration dependent, includes acute myeloid leukemia, myeloproliferative syndrome, carcinoma) can be caused with treatment with what drug?
|
melphalan
|
|
Carmustine crosses the BBB and thus is used primarily to treat ____
|
brain tumors
|
|
What group of alkylating agents are used to treat brain tumors?
|
nitrosoureas
|
|
Busulfan is used to treat what cancer?
|
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
|
|
Pulmonary fibrosis and hyperpigmentation is seen with the usage of what alkylating agent?
|
Busulfan
|
|
5-fluorouracil is a ____ analog that inhibits thymidylate synthase and can be rescued with thymidine
|
pyrimidine
|
|
Antimetabolites are all ___ phase specific
|
S
|
|
esophageal carcinoma, anal cancers, breast cancers, superficial bladder cancer can be treated with what alkylating agent?
|
mitomycin
|
|
Cisplatin is used to treat testicular, bladder, ovary, and lung carcinomas. What side effects does it cause?
|
nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage
|
|
Nephrotoxicity from cisplatin can be avoided via administration of ____ (free radical scavenger)
|
amifostine
|
|
What anti-metabolite depletes thymidine due to inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), prevents the conversion of FH2 to FH4
|
methotrexate
|
|
Toxicity via methotrexate can be reduced via rescue with ___
|
leucovorin
|
|
Methotrexate is used to treat leukemias, lymphomas, choriocarcinomas and sarcomas. True or False?
|
True
|
|
5-fluorouracil is effective against basal cell carcinoma. how do you administer the drug?
|
topicallly
|
|
Cytarabine acts as a ____ analog and inhibits DNA polymerase
|
pyrimidine
|
|
What types of cancers is cytarabine used to treat?
|
AML, ALL, Hodgkin's lymphoma
|
|
Is megaloblastic anemia a toxicity of cytarabine?
|
Yes
|
|
6-mercaptopurine inhibits de novo ___ synthesis. It is activated by HGPRTase
|
purine
|
|
6-mercaptopurine treats what types of cancers?
|
leukemias and lymphomas
|
|
Does allopurinol increase the toxicity of 6 mercaptopurine? 6-thioguanine?
|
Yes to 6-mercaptopurine
No to 6-thioguanine |
|
6-thioguanine is used to treat what cancer?
|
acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)
|
|
What antimetabolite inhibits the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase leading to decreased production of deoxyribonucleotides?
|
hydroxyurea
|
|
What antimetabolite can be used to treat melanoma?
|
hydroxyurea
|
|
vincristine and vinblastin have what mechanism of action?
|
microtubule inhibitor (blocks ability of tubulin to polymerize; blocks mitosis in metaphase)
|
|
Vincristine and vinblastin are used to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma, Wilm's tumor, choriocarcinoma and ALL. True or False?
|
True
|
|
What is a side effect of vincristine?
|
neurotoxicity, does not display bone marrow suppression
|
|
What is a side effect of vinblastin?
|
bone marrow suppresion
|
|
Procarbazine prolongs ____, producing chromosomal breaks
|
interphase
|
|
Resistance to Cisplatin can occur due to a mutation in the ____ transporter
|
copper
|
|
Vincristin is used a lot to treat tumors of what age group?
|
pediatrics
|
|
This drug is administered with bleomycin and cisplatin for metastatic testicular carcinoma
|
vinblastine
|
|
This antibiotic interferes with DNA dependent RNA polymerase, hinders DNA synthesis at higher doses, and causes single strand breaks. It intercalates DNA
|
dactinomycin or actinomycin D
|
|
Actinomycin D is used for ____ tumors such as Wilm's tumor, Ewing's sarcoma, and rhadomyosarcoma
|
childhood
|
|
Doxorubicin and daunorubicin generate ____ in DNA that breaks up the DNA leading to a decrease in replication
|
free radicals
|
|
Can doxorubicin and daunorubicin be used to treat Hodgkin's lymphomas?
|
Yes
|
|
What is a major side effect of doxorubicin and daunorubicin? What other iron chelator drug can be used to prevent the toxicity?
|
cardiotoxicity
Dexrazoxane |
|
Bleomycin induces ____ formation which causes breaks in DNA strands
|
free radical
|
|
When administered with vinblastin and cisplatin, bleomycin is curative for what cancer?
|
testicular cancer
|
|
What is a major side effect of bleomycin?
|
pulmonary fibrosis
|
|
Bleomycin works on cells in what phase?
|
G2
|
|
Paclitaxel produce overly _____ microtubules that are nonfunctional
|
stable
|
|
Paclitaxel works in what phase of the cell cycle?
|
M-phase
|
|
What cancers are treated by Paclitaxel?
|
ovarian and breast carcinomas
|
|
What natural product is a topoisomerase II inhibitor, leads to irreversible double strand breaks in DNA
|
etoposide
|
|
Etoposide is used to treat what cancers?
|
small cell carcinoma of the lung and testicular cancer
|
|
camptothecins (topotecan and irinotecan) inhibits topoisomerase __, prevents religation of single strand breaks
|
I
|
|
irinotecan, a camptothecin, used with _____ and 5-fluorouracil for colon or rectal carcinoma
|
leucovorin
|
|
Topotecan can be used to treat advanced ____ cancer
|
ovarian
|
|
arsenic trioxide induces ___ through a mitochondrial dependent pathway
|
apoptosis
also induces differentiation of leukemic cells by degrading the PML/RAR alpha protein |
|
arsenic trioxide is used to treat what types of cancers?
|
leukemia
|
|
What is an acute toxicity of arsenic trioxide?
|
headache and lightheadedness
|
|
This enzyme hydrolyzes asparagine to aspartic acid and ammonia (some neoplastic cells require an external source of asparagine--needed for protein synthesis)
|
L-asparaginase
|
|
administered with vincristine and prednisone for acute lymphocytic leukemia
|
L-asparaginase
|
|
What drug can lead to decrease in clotting factors and even coma due to increased ammonia toxicity?
|
L-asparingnase
|
|
This drug inhibits tumor tyrosine kinase such as BCR-abl
|
Imantinib
|
|
How is Imantinib administered?
|
oral
|
|
What cancer is imantinib used to treat?
|
CML and gastrointestinal stromal tumors
|
|
fluid retention and edema can be a side effect of what anti-neoplastic drug that is a targeted antibody?
|
Imantinib
worsens congestive heart failure |
|
monoclonal antibody (targets epidermal growth factor receptor on the surface of cancer cells)
|
Cetuximab
|
|
IV administration; usually combined with irinotecan
|
Cetuximab
|
|
Cetuximab is used to treat what cancer?
|
colorectal cancer
|
|
Gefitinib targets what receptor?
|
epidermal growth receptor
|
|
Gefitinib is used to treat what cancer?
|
non-small cell lung cancer
|
|
Gefitinib and Imantinib have what mode of administration?
|
oral
|
|
What are the acute toxicities of Gefitinib?
|
hypertension/diarrhea
long term can cause interstitial lung disease rarely |
|
Bevacizumab is an antibody against what growth factor? It is used to treat what cancer?
|
vascular endothelial growth factor
metastatic colorectal cancer |
|
Amantadine blocks the ___ proton ion channel and prevent "uncoating" of viral RNA. It is used against what virus?
|
M2
Influenza A |
|
What drug inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase?
|
terbinafine
|
|
What are some side effects of amantadine?
|
ataxia, dizziness, slurred speech
|
|
What is the mechanism of resistance to amantadine?
|
mutated M2 protein
|
|
rimantadine has a ___ half like compared to amantadine
|
longer, requires no renal dosing
|
|
acyclovir is used to treat what virus?
|
HSV/VZV
|
|
How do viruses become resistant to acyclovir?
|
lack of viral thymidine kinase
|
|
Valacyclovir is a prodrug converted to ______ by hepatic metabolism, has better oral availabilty
|
acyclovir
|
|
famciclovir should be used to treat what virus?
|
herpes zoster
|
|
penciclovir is a ____analogue - activated by thymidine kinase -- inhibits DNA polymerase (but does not cause chain termination)
|
guanosine
|
|
How is penciclovir administered? What virus is it potent against
|
topically
HSV |
|
ganciclovir is used to treat what viral infection?
|
CMV
|
|
Does ganciclovir cause more BMS than acyclovir?
|
Yes
no BMS with acyclovir because HSV does not infect bone marrow cells |
|
Is foscarnet a nucleoside analog? What is its mechanism of action?
|
No
viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that is a pyrophosphate analog |
|
This drug is used to treat CMV retinitis when ganciclovir fails and also in acyclovir resistant HSV
|
foscarnet
|
|
What main toxicity is there to foscarnet?
|
nephrotoxicity
also hypocalcemia |
|
sorivudine is a ____ analogue -- activated via triphosphorylation - inhibits DNA synthesis
|
thymine
|
|
This antiviral drug has a dangerous interaction w/ flucosytine
|
sorivudine
|
|
idoxuridine is what type of drug?
|
antiviral
|
|
HSV keratitis is treated via what two drugs?
|
idoxuridine, trifluridine
|
|
Irritation, blurred vision, photophobia is seen with which antiviral drug?
|
idoxuridine
|
|
Ceftaroline is a ____ generation cephalosporin that is active against MRSA
|
5th
|
|
_____ can be used be ppl who are allergic to penicillin because there is no cross-allergenicity with penicillins
|
Aztreonam
|
|
Can one experience photosensitivty with tetracyclines?
|
Yes
|
|
Erythromycine and Chloramphenical ___ cytochrome P450
|
inhibit
|
|
Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy. One can give this drug to lessen the problem
|
pyridoxine
|
|
vidarabine is a ____ analogue - activated via triphosphorylation and inhibits DNA synthesis
|
adenine
|
|
Fluorinated pyrimidine nucleoside that inhibits viral DNA synthesis by competing with thymidine triphosphate for incorporation by the viral DNA polymerase
|
trifluridine, topical use only
|
|
Use w/ IFN-alpha for chronic HCV
|
ribavarine
|
|
retrovir/zidovudin/AZT is a ____ analog
|
pyrimidine
|
|
What HIV drug is used as phrophylaxis during pregnancy?
|
retrovir/zidovudin/AZT
|
|
What is a major side effect of retrovir/zidovudin/AZT
|
bone marrow suppression, megaloblastic anemia
|
|
didanosine is a dd___, used against ___ and can have what fatal side effect?
|
DDI, HIV, pancreatitis
ionsine produces both adenine and guanine |
|
Zalcitinbine is a ____ analog and is used to treat ___
|
cytosine, HIV
|
|
Stavudine is a ____ analog that is used to treat ___
|
thymidine, HIV
|
|
Palivizumab targets the F glycoprotein on the surface of ____
|
RSV
|
|
Atripla contains emtricitabine, tenofovir, and efavrienz. True or False?
|
True
|
|
Fomivirsen has what mechanism f of action?
|
antisense oligonucleotide that binds to mRNA and inhibits protein synthesis and viral replication
|
|
Lamivudine and Zalcitibine are both ___ analogs
|
cytosine
|
|
abacavir can cause allergic reactions in 5% of patients. It is used to treat ___
|
HIV
Guanosine analog |
|
tenofovir should not be used with AZT. True or False?
|
True
|
|
tenofovir is part of what class of HIV drugs?
|
NRTs inhibits adenosine monophosphate
|
|
emtricitabine (FTC) is a fluoro derivative of ______
|
lamivudine
|
|
All protease inhibitors end in ___
All NNRTI's contain the stem ____ |
navir
vir |
|
hyperpigmentation of soles and palms, associated with lactic acidosis, fatty liver, and hepatomegaly is associated with the use of which HIV therapy?
|
emtricitabine
|
|
Nevirapine, efavirenz, and delavirdine are all what class of drugs?
|
NNRTIs
|
|
Which NNRTI has been used to reduce vertical transmission of HIV by 50%?
|
nevirapine
|
|
With nevirapine, there have been reports of severe rashes that resulted in ____ syndrome
|
steven-johnson
|
|
Ribavirin, an anti__ drug should be avoided during pregnancy
|
viral
|
|
What anti-fungal drug should be avoided during pregnancy?
|
Griseofulvin
|
|
nevirapine is an ___ of cytochrome 450 while delavirdine is an ____
|
inducer
inhibitor |
|
Which HIV drug causes vivid dreams?
|
efavirenz
|
|
This class of drugs prevents post-translational cleavage of Gag-Pol polyprotein into functional conformation
|
protease inhibitors
|
|
Protease inhibitors are all taken ___
|
orally
|
|
hyperglycemica, GI intolerance, and lipodystrophy are symptoms of what class of antiviral drugs?
|
protease inhibitors
|
|
Concurrent use with ritonavir is contraindicated; causes QT and PR interval elongation (associated with arrythmia). What is this drug?
|
saquinavir
|
|
This class of antiviral drugs are all inhibitors of CYP34A
|
protease inhibitors, especially Ritonavir
|
|
Atypical pnemonias such as Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Legionella are primarily treated with which class of drugs as a first line choice?
|
macrolides
|
|
What is a mechanism of resistance to fluorquinolones?
|
chromosome-encoded mutation in DNA gyrase
|
|
Fluoroquinoles hurt attachments to your ____
|
bones such as tendons
|
|
Red-green colorblindness can be caused by the use of what TB drug?
|
ethambutol
|
|
What drugs are used to treat VRE?
|
linezolid and streptogramins (quinupristin/dalfopristin)
|
|
Indinavir is best consumed on an empty stomach whereas nelfinavir is better absorbed after a meal. True or False?
|
True
|
|
Hyperbilirubinemia and nephrolithiasis due to urinary crystallization of drug is a complication of what protease inhibitor?
|
Indinavir
|
|
Nelfinavir causes diarrhea and flatulence. True or false?
|
True
|
|
People on amprenavir have a 3% chance of experiencing this skin problem
|
Steven-Johnson syndrome
|
|
Should one use metroniadazole in pregnancy? What type of pathogen does it protect against?
|
No, protozoas
|
|
Zanamivir and oseltaminivir are _____ inhibitors that can be used against Influenza A and B
|
neuraminidase
|
|
____ are a family of small anti-viral proteins produced as the earliest response to viral infections
|
Interferons
|
|
The primary use of ribavirin, a guanosine analog is ____
|
RSV and chronic hepatitis C
|
|
Rivavirin and Abacavir are ___ analogs
|
guanosine
|
|
Acyclovir should be administered ___ to treat recurrent genital herpes and varicella in children
|
orally
|
|
What class of drugs are rendered ineffective due to transferase enzymes that inactivate the drug by acetylation, phosphorylation, or adenylation?
|
aminoglycosides
|
|
What class of drugs bind to 30S and prevent attachment of aminoacyl-TRNA, also has limited CNS penetration?
|
tetracyclines
|
|
Decreased uptake in cells and increase in efflux of the drug out of the cell is a mode of resistance to tretracyclines. True or False?
|
True
|
|
The most common cause of non-compliance in macrolide use is ____
|
GI complaints
|
|
TB can enter an anaerobic condition and drugs that block metabolic processes will become ineffective. What two TB are not subject to resistance due to state of dormancy?
|
Rifamycin, fluoroquinolone
|
|
Which TB drugs can be affected by alteration of enzyme from being able to convert a pro-drug to the actual drug?
|
pyrazinamide, isoniazid
|
|
Isoniazid (INH) is toxic to what two types of cells?
|
neurons, hepatocytes
|
|
A low pH renders what TY drug ineffective? This drug is also an aminoglycoside
|
streptomycin
|
|
Resistance to what two drug classifies you as having multidrug resistant TB?
|
isoniazid and rifampin
|
|
To have extremely drug resistant multi-drug resistant TB patients must not respond to isonaizid, rifampin and ___
|
fluroquinoloes
|
|
What drug causes sulphone syndrome: fever, jaundice, malaise?
|
Dapsone
|
|
Which anti-leprosy drug leads to skin discoloration ranging from red-brown to nearly black?
|
Clofazimine
|
|
In adults a serious side effect of chloramphenicol use is ____
|
aplastic anemia (dose-independent)
|
|
Does trimethoprim-sulfa drug combination inhibit or increase the effects of warfarin?
|
increase
|