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109 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Resistance via what type of blood vessels controls peripheral vascular resistance?
precapillary arterioles
What is the hydraulic equation for BP
BP= CO X PVR
How does the blood pressure regulation differ in the normotensive patient from the hypertensive patient?
The baroreceptors and the renal blood-volume-pressure control systems are set higher
Baroreceptor activation ____ central sympathetic discharge
inhibits
what stimulates the carotid baroreceptors?
they are stimulated by the stretch of the vessel walls brouth about by the internal pressure (arterial pressure)
In the transition to upright position, what is the function of baroreceptors?
Disinhibit central sympathetic discharge
what does happens with the reflex increase in sympathetic outflow?
constriction of arterioles --> increase in PVR
constriction of capacitance vessels --> increase venous return
increase cardiac output --> direct stimulation of the heart
what is responsible for long term BP control?
the kidney by controlling blood volume
what is responsible for the production of renin?
decreased renal arteriolar pressure
sympathetic neural activity via B receptors
initial treatment with diuretics may_____ PVR
increase
this is due to the reduction of Blood pressure and cardiac output
how long does it take with diuretic therapy for the cardiac output to return to normal and for PVR to decline
6 - 8 weeks
how does sodium contribute to PVR?
it increases vessel stiffness, neural activity, and possible alteration to the sodium-calcium exchange with a resultant increase in intracellular calcium
how are diuretics still effective even when used with vasodilator and sympathoplegic drugs?
because the sympathoplegic and vasodilator drugs decrease vascular responsiveness ( blood vessel behaves like a lead pipe) --> the blood pressure becomes very sensitive to fluid
what class of hypertension is useful for Thiazides
mild to moderate hypertension
effective in lowering BP by 10 to 15 mmHG
what class of diuretics is useful in severe hypertension
Loop diuretics
also useful when GFR is less than 30 -40 mL, in cardiac failure/liver cirrhosis with marked sodiu retention
what is the most common adverse effect of diuretics?
Hypokalemia
how can potassium loss be minimized in diuretic use?
because potassium loss is coupled to sodium reabsorption then
less sodium in the diet then less excretion of potassium
can you name some other side effects of Diuretics?
magnesium depletion,
impaired glucose tolerance
increase serum lipid tolerance
what is the mechanism of action of methyldopa?
due to stimulation of central alpha adrenoceptors by alpha-methylnorepinephrine or alpha-methyldopamine
what is the action of clonidine at the alpha receptors?
1. there is a brief rise in BP due to the direct stimulation of alpha adrenoreceptors in arterioles
2. the hypotensive effect of clonidine is exerted at alpha adrenoceptors in the medulla of the brain
when is methyldopa primarily used?
in pregnancy
what are some side effects seen in methyldopa use?
sedation
lactation in both men and women
positive coombs test --> makes it difficult to cross-match blood for transfusion
What effect does clonidine have on the body to lower blood pressure?
blood pressure lowering by clonidine results from reduction of cardiac output due to decreased heart rate and relaxation of capacitance vessels with a reduction in peripheral vascular vessels
there is also reduced renal vascular resistance and maintenance of renal blood flow
what is the advantage of transdermal route of administering clonidine?
causes less sedation
the oral clonidine must be given twice a day for smooth BP control
why do people experience withdrawal while on clonidine
due to increased sympathetic nervous activity
how many doses can be missed before hypertensive crisis starts?
patients exhibit nervousness, tachycardia, headache, and sweating after missing one or two doses
what is the mechanism of action of ganglion blockers
ganglion blockers competitively block nicotinic cholinoceptors on postganglionic neurons in both sympathetic and parasympathetic
what are the adverse effects of ganglionic-blocking agents?
sympatholplegia - excessive orthostatic hypotension and sexual dysfunction
parasympathoplegia- constipation, urinary retention,precipitation of glaucoma, blurred vision, dry mouth
what is the mechanism of adrenergic neuron -blocking agents
by preventing normal physiologic release of norepinephrine from post ganglionic sympathetic neurons
why is guanethidine rarely used
can produce marked profound sympathoplegia- marked postural hypotension, diarrhea, and impaired ejaculation
What are the collective side effects of agents that lower the blood pressure by actions on the CNS?
They cause sedation and mental depression; disturbances of sleep, including nightmares
Is postural hypotension commonly seen with centrally acting sympathoplegic drugs?
NO
They reduce sympathetic outflow from vasomotor centers in the brain stem but allow these centers to retain their sensitivity to baroreceptor control
What is the effect of clonidine on the vasculature?
It reduces sympathetic and increases parasympathetic tone, resulting in lowered BP and bradycardia
Why is methyldopa associated with increased prolactin secretion?
It is mediated by inhibition of dopaminergic mechanisms in the hypothalamus
What drugs can block the antihypertensive effects of clonidine?
TCAs
What are the common side effects in Centrally acting sympathoplegic drugs?
dry mouth and sedation
How does guanethidine prevent the release of of norepinephrine?
Guanethidine is transported across the sympathetic nerve membrane by NET. Once it has entered the nerve it is concentrated in the transmitter vesicles where is replaces norepi. This leads to a gradual depletion of norepinephrine stores in the nerve ending.
How long does it take for guanethidine's sympatholplegia to take effect?
the onset is gradual (max effect in 1-2 weeks)
How does reserpine prevent norepinephrine from being released?
It blocks the ability of vesicles to take up and store amines by interfering with VMAT
This affects norepi, dopamine, serotonin in both central and peripheral neurons and also the chromaffin granules in the adrenal medulla
What are the side effects of reserpine?
It enters the CNS and causes sedation, mental depression, and parkinsonism symptoms.
At high doses, it can cause nightmares. It also causes mild diarrhea and GI cramps and increases gastric acid secretion
How does reserpine lower BP?
It decreases cardiac output and PVR
What is propanolol?
nonselective beta blocker
How does propanolol reduce BP?
It mainly decreases cardiac output
It also inhibits renin production by catecholamines by the beta 1 receptor
How can you tell propanolol is working?
by the resting bradycardia and a reduction in the heart rate during exercise
What is the withdrawal syndrome seen with propanalol discontinuation?
Nervousness, tachycardia, increased intensity of angina and increase of BP
Metoprolol and Atenolol are cardioselective. Which means they prefer the ____ receptor.
beta 1
What cardiac conditions are metoprolol indicated for?
It is effective in reducing mortality in patients with heart failure and hypertension
What is unique about nadolol and cartelol?
They are both nonselective beta- receptor anatagonists that have a long half life (they can be dosed once a day)
What is unique about betaxolol and bisoprolol?
They are selective beta1 antagonists that have a long half (they can be dosed once a day)
What disease states are useful for pinodol, acebutolol and penbutolol?
Because they decrease the cardiac output and heart rate less than other beta blockers--> this is useful in patients with bradyarrhythmia or PVD
What is unique about pinodol, acebutolol and penbutolol?
They are partial beta agonists with some intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. This means that they lower BP by decreasing vascular resistance but depress the cardiac output and heart rate less than other beta blockers
Why does the half life of Esmolol last only 9-10 minutes?
It is a beta1 selective blocker that is rapidly metabolized via hydrolysis by RBC esterases
What is the clinical indication for Esmolol?
It is used for management of intraoperative and postoperative HTN
Name the betablockers that have both beta blocking and vasodilating effects
Labetalol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol
How does Labetalol achieve both beta blocking and vasodilating effects
Labetalol is a racemic mixture of four isomers. Two are inactive and two are active. One of the active (S,R) isomers is a potent alpha blocker and the other (R,R) isomers is a potent beta blocker. It has a ratio of 3:1 of beta:alpha (decreases PVR)
How does Carvedilol achieve both beta blocking and vasodilating effects?
It is a racemic mixture that has a S isomer that has both alpha blocking and nonselective beta blocking potency and a R isomer that has the same alpha blocking potency
How does Nebivolol achieve both beta blocking and vasodilating effects?
It is a beta 1 selective blocker via its D-Nebivolol isomer and its L-Nebivolol isomer cause vasodilation via an increase in endothelial release of nitric oxide via eNOS induction
What is the clinical use for Labetalol?
Pheochromocytoma because of its combined alpha and beta blocking
What is the clinical use for Carvedilol?
It reduces morality in patients with heart failure and hypertension
How do prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin cause less reflex tachycardia than phentolamine?
Phentolamine is an nonselective alpha blocker that blocks both presynaptic and postsynaptic alpha receptors that cause reflex tachycardia because of greater release of transmitter.
Prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin are alpha1 receptor selective that allows norepi to exert unopposed negative feedback on its own release.
How do prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin lower blood pressure?
They selectively block alpha 1 receptors in arterioles and venules. They dilate both resistance and capacitance vessels
What is an expected side effect of prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin when used alone?
The retention of salt and water.
First dose precipitous drop in standing BP
What is the clinical indication of prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin?
It is beneficial in hypertensive men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder obstruction symptoms
Name the nonselective alpha blockers?
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
Name the oral vasodilators used for long term HTN management.
Hydralazine
Minoxidil
Name the parental vasodilators that are used for HTN emergencies.
Nitroprusside
Diazoxide
Fenoldopam
What are the antihypertensives that lower BP by hyperpolarization of smooth muscle membrane through opening K channels causing vasodilation?
Minoxidil
Diazoxide
What are the antihypertensives that lower BP by release of nitric oxide from either the drug or endothelium?
nitroprusside
Hydralazine
Nitrates
Why do diuretics work well with vasodilators?
When vasodilators decrease arterial pressure via vasodilation of arterioles it leads to decreased renal sodium excretion.
Diuretics work to increase renal sodium excretion and decrease aldosterone
Why do beta blockers work well with vasodilators?
When vasodilators decrease arterial pressure via vasodilation of arterioles it leads to increased sympathetic nervous system outflow.
Beta blockers work to decrease the HR, cardiac contractility, venous capacitance and renin release
Describe what happens in persons who slowly acetylate the hydralazine.
With dosages greater than 400mg/ day- A syndrome characterized by arthralgia, myalgia, skin rashes, and fever --> resembles lupus erythematosus
Why should hydralazine be used in caution with patients with ischemic heart disease?
The reflex tachycardia and sympathetic stimulation may provoke angina or ischemic arrhythmia
What is the mechanism of action for hydralazine?
It dilates arterioles but NOT veins
What is the clinical indication of hydralazine?
The COMBO with nitrates is effective in patients with heart failure, especially in African- American patients
What are the vasodilators that ONLY dilate arterioles?
Hydralazine
Minoxidil
Diazoxide
Fenoldopam
Calcium Channels blockers
What is the mechanism of action for minoxidil?
Minoxidil opens K channels in smooth muscle membranes; the increased K permeability stabilizes the membrane its resting potential and makes contraction less likely
What HAS to be combined with minoxidil to counteract the reflex tachycardia and salt water retention?
A loop diuretic and beta blocker
What are the side effects of Minoxidil?
HA, sweating, and hypertrichosis
What is clinical indication of sodium nitroprusside?
It is used in treating hypertensive emergencies as well as severe heart failure.
How does nitroprusside lower blood pressure?
It dilates arterial and venous vessels which decreases venous return and PVR via activation of guanylyl cyclase which increases intracellular cGMP
How is nitroprusside metabolized?
It is metabolized rapidly by RBCs with liberation of cyanide. Cyanide is metabolized by the mitochondrial enzyme rhodanse, in the presence of a sulfur donor to thiocyanate. Thiocyanate is slowly excreted by the kidney
What is the treatment of cyanide poisoning via nitroprusside administration?
1. Sodium thiosulfate- acts as a sulfur donor that helps with metabolism
2. Hydroxocobalamin- combines with cyanide to form nontoxic cyanocobalamin
What are the symptoms of thiocyanate toxicity (excessive nitroprusside)?
Thiocyanate toxicity- weakness, disorientation, psychosis, muscle spasms, and convulsions
What is a delayed side effect of nitroprusside administration?
Delayed hypothyroidism- thiocyanate inhibits iodide uptake by the thyroid
How does diazoxide lower BP?
It prevents vascular smooth muscle contraction by opening K channels and stabilizing the membrane potential at resting level.
It causes rapid fall in systemic vascular resistance (dilates arterioles) and mean arterial BP associated with tachycardia and increase in cardiac output
Why is diazoxide used to treat hypoglycemia secondary to insulinoma?
It inhibits insulin release from the pancreas - it opens K channels in the beta cell membrane
In which patients is Fenoldopam contraindicated?
Glaucoma patients
It increases intraocular pressure
How does Fenoldopam lower blood pressure?
It is peripheral arterial arteriolar dilator due to acting as an agonist of dopamine D1 receptors.
It causes dilation of peripheral arteries and natriuriesis
How do calcium channel blockers work to primarily lower BP?
It inhibits calcium influx into arterial smooth muscle cells causing vasodilation
Which of the calcium channel blockers has the least effect on the cardiac output and heart rate?
Nifedipine and the other dihydropyridine agents
Which of the calcium channel blockers lower the heart rate and cardiac output the most?
Verapamil
Which of the calcium channel blockers should NOT be used for HTN? Why?
Short acting oral dihydropyridines
There is increased risk of MI or mortality
Where is renin released from?
kidney cortex
What are the factors that stimulate renin release?
1. Reduced renal arterial pressure
2. Sympathetic neural stimulation
3. reduced sodium delivery
4. increased sodium concentration at the distal renal tubule
What is the renin antagonist?
Aliskiren
How do ACE inhibitors lower BP?
1. It inhibts the converting enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase that breaks down angiotensin I to angiotensin II- decreases PVR
2. It blocks the breakdown of Bradykinin - this leads to vasodilation via increased prostaglandin synthesis and the release of nitric oxide
Do ACE inhibitors cause reflex tachycardia?
NO
They decease PVR without decreasing CO and HR
What is the role of ACE inhibitors in treating patients with CKD?
They diminish proteinuria and stabilize renal function.
This is due to decreased glomerular efferent arteriolar resistance --> reducing intraglomerular capillary pressure
When is ACE inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy?
2nd and 3rd trimester
There is a risk of fetal hypotension, anuria, and renal failure
What over the counter drugs have an important interaction with ACE inhibitors?
NSAIDs impair the hypotensive effects of ACE inhibitors by blocking bradykinin mediated vasodilation
What are the common side effects to all ACE inhibitors?
ARF (esp in bilaterally renal artery stenosis)
Hyperkalemia (more likely in DM and renal insufficiency)
dry cough
angioedema
What is malignant hypertension?
HTN associated with hemodynamic complications such as HF, CVA, or dissectin aortic aneurysm
What is the underlying cause of malignant HTN?
progressive arteriopathy with inflammation and necrosis of arterioles.
The vascular lesions in the kidney releases renin-aldosterone pathway that further increases BP
What is Hypertensive encephalopathy?
A classic feature of maligant HTN.
Its clinical presentation includes severe HA, mental confusion, apprehension, blurred vision, N/V, and focal neuro deficits
How should malignant hypertension be treated?
BP should be lowered by about 25% maintaining diastolic BP no less than 100-110
Which antiHTN do blacks respond?
diuretics
CCB
Which antiHTN are suggested for hypertensive diabetics or for those with CKD and proteinuria?
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
Renin antagonists
Which antiHTN are suggested for those who have angina?
beta blockers
CCBs
Which antiHTN are suggested for those who have HF?
Diuretics; ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta blockers or hydralazine in combo with nitrates