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247 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
When a client become short of breath while you are changing their central line the nurse should...
place them in trendelenburg position to trap the air just in case an embolism is occuring
Fluids should not hang for more than...
24 hrs
anticholinergic/mnemonic side effects:
can't see can't pee
no stool no drool
aspirin's biggest adverse effect
GI bleed
6 rights of medication administration
client
dose
time
med
documentation
route
When administering nasal drops, what position should the client be in?
Supine with neck hyper extended
How might a nurse administer eye drops to promote client safety?
with her hand resting on the client's forehead so that she does not by accidently poke them in the eye
What are some things the nurse needs to monitor for her client on TPN?
daily weights, listen for crackles in lung, watch for fluid imbalances and allergic reactions
What are the differences between CPN and PPN?
CPN is diluted so quickly that more calories can be administered through it.
What's a big problem associated with TPN?
hyper/oglycemia
anticoagulants are...
heparin and warfarin
When administering a dose of heparin the nurse must remember that she has to...
get it double checked by another nurse
How often should a nurse monitor the rate of a heparin infusion?
q 30-60 min
The antidote for heparin is..
protamine sulfate
Normal levels of PT and INR are...
PT 18-24
INR 2-3
The time it takes for the effects of Warfarin to be seen
8-12 hrs
The antidote for Warfarin is...
vit K (.5-1 mg IV)
Antiplatelets:
examples, action, and side effects
aspirin, plavix, ticlid, aggrastat, reopro,
primary prevention of stroke and MI
S.E. hemm stroke, GI bleed...always take with food
An important thing for a nurse to inform a client taking aspirin or plavix would be...
always take the medication with food to decrease the chance of GI bleed
What does a thrombolytic do and what are some examples?
Thrombolytics dissolve clots that have already formed (alteplase, streptase -ase)
If someone was having an ischemic stroke the medication prescribed would be..
thrombolytics: alteplase
Thrombolytics must be taken within what time frame of an event?
4-6 hrs
When would a nurse want to administer iron?
Iron should be taken on an empty stomach so, an hour before a meal
B12 activates what?
Folic acid
What foods contain folic acid?
liver and green leafy vegetables
What drugs increase the production of RBCs?
Epogen/procrit epoetin
What are some side effects of Epogen?
hypertension and increased risk of a myocardial event
Epogen is contraindicated for what type of client?
Clients with uncontrolled HTN
What is something that the nurse should be careful to monitor for a client who is on Epogen?
Iron levels, without adequate iron the drugs effects are not great
What medication increases your Neutrophil count? Why would this be used?
Neupogen
used to decrease the chance of infection for clients with neutropenia (cancer)
What are some S.E. of Neupogen?
bone pain and leukocytosis
d/c if WBC are >50,000
How do you know if Neupogen has been effective?
no infection
What drug increases WBC production? For what patient would this be used?
Leukine for the patient who is recovering after a bone marrow transplant
What are some side effects of Leukine?
Diarrhea, weakness, rash, malaise, bone pain, leukocytosis
When is leukine contraindicated?
When the client is allergic to yeast
What drug increases platelet count?
Neumega
How does the nurse know if Neumega is effective?
If the platelet count is above 50,000
What are some side effects of Neumega?
cardiac dyssrhythmias, fluid retention, and conjunctival infection
What's a normal aPTT?
30-36 seconds
What type of anticoagulant would be used by a pregnant women?
Heparin, NOT COUMADIN/WARFARIN
autologous vs. homologous
auto self donated blood homo not
Packed cells
centrifuged concentration of RBC
What are the following compatible with?
A
B
AB
O
AB
A-A
B-B
AB-A,B,AB
O universal donor
AB universal recipient
Central venous lines may require what in order to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias?
blood warmer--not refridgerated blood
Change blood transfusion tubing q...
4-6hrs per institution policy
Dextrose and lactated ringers are contraindicated when...
Blood transfusions are taking place because hypotonic solutions induce RBC hemolysis
When administering blood how often should you check vital signs?
q 5-15 min
What should you prime the tubing you are going to use for a blood transfusion with?
0.9% normal saline
What gauge should a needle administering blood be?
19 gauge or bigger
How long should a blood transfusion take?
2-4 hrs
What does fresh frozen plasma do?
replace coagulation factors
What does albumin do and what is it commonly used for?
expand blood volume; used for burns, hypovolemia nephrosis
What is a side of effect of albumin?
Fluid volume overload...therefore contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure
For Pernicuous anemia what would you administer?
B12
What does angiotensin II do?
vasoconstrictor
What does aldosterone do?
promotes sodium and water retention
it is a hormone that many antihypertensives work against
How can one typically see fluid volume overload?
Edema, crackles, and jugular vein distention (JVD)
Adrenergic Agonists are known as what drug names?
Epinephrine, Dopamine, and Dobutamine
What does Epinephrine do?
works on alpha 1- vasoconstricts to increase BP, decreases congestion,
works on Beta 1which increases heart rate and treats AV block and cardiac arrest
works on Beta 2- bronchodilation
What does Dopamine do?
Works at different levels:
LEVEL 1: affects dopamine which dilates renal vessels
LEVEL 2: does above plus affects Beta 1 and increases heart rate
LEVEL 3: does above plus affects Alpha 1 which vasoconstricts
What does Dobutamine do?
affects Beta 1 which increases heart rate, contractility, and increases the conduction over the AV node

used for heart failure
What does the alpha 1 receptor do?
vasoconstricts veins, skin, viscera, mucous membranes
What does Beta 1 do?
Increases HR, contractility (CO), and conduction over the AV node also increases renal release so afffects the kidney
What does Beta 2 do?
bronchodilation, vasodilation, relax uterus
What does dopamine do?
causes renal blood vessels to dilate KIDNEY!
What are some side effects of epinephrine?
Hypertensive crisis, dysrhythmias, angina
What are the alpha adrenergic blockers?
Minipress and Cardura
What is Minipress used for?
BPH and HTN
selective alpha 1 block meaning vasodilation and sm. muscle relaxation
What should Minipress not be taken with?
NSAIDS and other hypertensive medications
Should Minipress be taken with food?
Yes, and the initial does can be taken at bedtime to decrease the 1st does hypotensive effects
Alpha 2 agonists are...
Catapress
(Tenex and aldomet)
What does Catapress do?
inhibits Alpha 2:
decreases CO
bradycardia occurs
this treats HTN and cancer pain
What are some side effects of Catapress?
drowsy, dry mouth, and rebound HTN
What does alpha 2 do?
- Vasodilation of arteries[2]
- Vasoconstriction of arteries to heart (coronary artery)[3] however the extent of this effect may be limited and may be negated by the vasodilatory effect from β₂ receptors[4]
- Vasoconstriction of veins[5]
-Decrease motility of smooth muscle in gastrointestinal tract[6]
- Contraction of male genitalia during ejaculation[c
How is Catapress given?
usually in 2 doses, the bigger of the two directly before bed
also, if a transdermal patch is used, replace q 7 days
Beta Adronergic Blockers do what?
Cardio selective: metoprolol
Non selective: propanolol
-lol
metoprolol blocks beta 1 so decreases HR, contractility, and conduction over the AV node
propanolol blocks beta 2 so bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction...
Use of Metoprolol
angina, cardiac dysrhythmias, MI (gets more O2 to the heart) Heart failure
Side effects of Metoprolol
decreased CO, bradycardia (hold if under 60 bpm) ortho hypotension,
Side effects of Propanolol/ Who is contraindicated?
bronchoconstriction, glucogenolysis

contraindicated for clients with asthma and diabetes
What are drug interactions for meto and propanol ol ?
Meto-CCB intensifies

prop- insulin
How do you know a Beta Adrenergic Blocker is effective?
when there is no chest pain, there are normal blood pressure readings, no cardiac dyssrhythmias
What drugs are ACE inhibitors?
-ril captopril
What do ACE inhibitors do? What is their action?
block the production of angiotensin II and cause vasodilation, excretion of H2O and sodium,
What is captopril used for?
heart failure, HTN, MI, nephropathy
What are some side effects of Captopril?
cough (dry cough) and hyperkalemia
What drug increases lithium levels?
-pril ACE inhibitors
When should Captopril be taken?
at least one hour before meals

or it will make you IL!
What type of drugs end in -sartan?
ARBs
What do ARBs do?
same as ACE vasodilate and excretee water and sodium except no cough or hyperkalemia
What is a difference between ARBs and ACE?
ARBs are fatal to the fetal and can be taken with or without food

ACE not with food
Sodium Nitroprusside is used for...
rapid lowering of the BP (vsodilation) and can decrease bleeding by producing controlled hypotension
When angina is not responding to other medications _________ is typically used.
Nitroglycerine (imdur)
What is the action of Nitro?
decrease oxygen and preload to the heart during angina and increase oxygen by preventing spasms during variant angina
What are some side effects of Nitro?
reflex tachycardia, tolerance, H/A, ortho hypo
Nitro should never be taken with...
alcohol, other antihypertensives, VIAGRA!
Nitro is contraindicated for what type of client?
Clients who had trauma to the head because it can increase intracranial pressure (ICP)
What is the action of Digoxin?
increase the force of contraction and decrease the heart rate (this allows the ventricles more time to fill)
When is Digoxin used?
heart failure, atrial fibrillation
What is a therapeutic level of Digoxin?
0.5-2
If a client reports seeing a halo around someone's head what should the nurse's initial reaction be?
CNS side effect of digoxin. Dig toxicity is probably occuring and dig should not be administered maybe admin digibind or active charcoal
What should the nurse check before administering digoxin?
that the heart rate is above 60 bpm or med should be withheld and primary care provider contacted
A client who is experiencing dig toxicity feels symptoms like...
fatigue, muscle weakness, anorexia
What is a sodium channel blocker used for dysrhythmias? What is it's action?
Lidocaine
action: decrease electrical conduction, increase repolarization, short term for vent dysrhythmias
How long should lidocaine be used?
never more than 24 hrs. can cause CNS (seizure dilantin should be given) or resp arrest
What are -statins used for?
Lipitor atorvastatin
used to decrease LDL and increase HDL
pulls LDL out of the blood which decreases plaque and increases vasodilation

their primary use: preventing coronary events and hypercholesterolemia
What does gemfibrozil do?
increases VLDL which are the precursor to HDLs
What is a side effect of gemfibrozil?
gall bladder stones
Gemfibrozil and Zetia cannot be taken with what medication?
Cholestyramine
Gemfibrozil should be taken...
30 min before breakfast or dinner
What does Zetia do and what are it's side effects?
Zetia inhibits the absorption of cholesterol and has no side effects
Cholestyramine
bile acid sequestriant: increases the LDL receptors in liver cells so LDL gets out of blood
What is cholestyramine's side effect?
constipation
What does Cholestyramine interact with?
Dig, Warfarin, Thiazide, Tetracycline
What is important for a nurse to remember when administering cholestyramine?
to dissolve it in at least 4-8 oz of water or applesauce
What does verapamil do?
CCB: for angina, hypertension, and dysrhythmias
due to vasodilation and decreased HR and force of contraction because calcium can't get through the channels in the myocardium
CCB's can be picked out by what...
-dipine
nifidipine
amlodipine
felodipine
and they all work on angina and HTN
A client is on a CCB and is experiencing constipation. Which CCB would you guess the client was on?
verapimil
A client has been diagnosed with HTN and prescribed propanolol. If the client had this condition it would be contraindicated.
Asthma
use cautiously with diabetes though.
When a client starts verapamil it is important for the nurse to tell them this about there diet.
CCBs can often cause constipation and so an increase in fiber and fluid will prevent this effect.
How do you prevent first dose hypotension?
Take medication at bedtime
Myopathy is seen in clients recieving...
statins and fibrates
myopathy is muscular weakness
What is the most common cause of dysrhytmias in clients receiving dig?
Hypokalemia secondary to diuretics.

chances for increased toxicity because dig and K bind to the same site so with less K dig can have higher levels
Beta 2 agonists terbutaline and albuterol have the following actions.
terbutaline- oral long term
albuterol inhaled short term
bronchodilation, histamine inhibition
When taking albuterol how long should the client inhale?
3 seconds and hold breath for 10
How long should the client take in between puffs of medicine?
1 full min
5 minutes in between two different types of inhalers to get best effect
What does theophylline do?
Bronchodilation; for long term/chronic asthma
What does theophylline react with?
Caffeine; causes increased effects
If a client misses a dose of theophylline, what should the nurse advise?
do not double the next dose. just resume at next scheduled time
Spiriva and Atrovent are used for...
COPD and exercise/allergen induced asthma
An asthmatic client with a peanut allergy should not take this medication for bronchodilation.
Spiriva or Atrovent are created in a soy
What do glucocorticoids do for the respiratory system and what are the commonly used medications?
decreases inflammation and prevent airway mucus
names are QVAR, pulmicort, flovent
Why would you use pulmicort?
to decrease the frequency and severity of exacerbations (or flovent or QVAR)
What a side effect of a gluccocorticoid? What can a nurse advise a client do to prevent this from occurring?
boneloss
a nurse can encourage weight bearing exercise and adequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the client's diet

other side effects include myopathy and PUD
What is an important teaching point for a client who is embarking on a gluccocorticoid regimen?
do not take longer than 3-10 days after an acute attack. not meant to be a long term medicine
What are a couple examples of mast cell stabilizers? What do they do?
Indal and Tilade
they inhibit mast cells which secrete histamine (anti-inflammation)
What is the safest medication for asthma?
Indal or Tilade (mast cell stabilizers)

typically used for exercise induced asthma or chronic asthma
What are the contraindications for Indal?
dysrhytmias, coronary artery disease
When should a mast cell stabilizer be taken for best effect?
15 min before exposure to an allergen
How does Singulair work and what are it's actions/uses?
Singulair is a leukotrien inhibitor which means it:
decreases inflammation, decreases bronchoconstriction and airway edema, and decreases mucous production
When does a client take Singulair?
at bedtime (1x daily)
What drug is used for cough supression?
Codeine (hydrocodone)
What are some side effects of codeine?
addicting, GI (take with food), CNS (resp decrease)
What are contraindications for Codeine?
head trauma, acute asthma, and alcoholic
What does Mucomyst do?
enhances the flow of secretions in the upper respiratory; used for cystic fibrosis clients
What medication smells like rotten eggs?
Mucomyst; mix with juice
Ephedrine, phenylephrine action and use?
action: decrease inflammation of nasal membranes
use; common cold
do not take for more than 3-5 days due to rebound congestion
What are the two types of asthma medications?
bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory medications
When advising a client on how to use Salmeterol what does the nurse want to teach?
To use the inhaler every 12 hrs. (beta agonist)
Pulmonary edema caused by heart failure would most likely be treated by this diuretic.
Lasix
What diuretic comes with the risk of ototoxicity?
Lasix
What is often the first med of choice for HTN?
hydrochlorothiazide
What does HCTZ interact with?
NSAIDS, Lithium, Digoxin, Potassium
What is a Potassium sparing diuretic?
Aldactone
What are some side effects of aldactone?
hyperkalemia, impotence in men, mentstrual irreg in woman,
What is an osmotic diuretic and what can it be used for?
Mannitol
used for decreasing ICP and IOP
What are some side effects of Mannitol?
heart failure and renal failure
Mannitol is most effective when administered in what way?
as a bolus
and should be filtered so that no crystals come through
What is amphojel?
A phosphate binder
used as an antacid and for clients with kidney disease; falls under same category as tums
Normal level of phosphate
3.0-4.5
Kayexalate
promotes potassium excretion
K dur administration?
never give faster than 10 mEq/hr
never give IV push only by controlled pump
What is Reglan used for?
N&V, GERD and decrease in emesis
What is lomotil used for?
Diarrhea,
it takes the water out of the intestine and decreases intestinal motility
What should a nurse think to advise for a client struggling with diarrhea?
To avoid plain water and drink things with electrolytes in it
What does Metamucil do?
Bulk forming laxative; works like fiber
What is colace used for and how does it work?
Colace is a surfactant; it decreases surface tension and is often used short term
What is Dulcolax used for and how does it work?
Dulcolax is a stimulant that increases peristalsis and is often used before surgery
What is Milk of Magnesia? How does it help constipation?
Milk of Mag is an osmotic that draws H2o in and can be used in a low or high dose
When taking antiemtics, what is something important a nurse should think of when administering meds?
It is better to PREVENT N&V rather than try to treat it
What are some antiemtics?
Zofran, compazine, decadron,
How does Carafate work?
stiks to ulcer for 6 hrs so that other acids can not get to it used for acute duodenal ulcers
When would Carafate be taken?
4x a day before meals and then before medtime
What are some antacids and how do they work?
Amphojel and Milk of Mag which neutralize gastric acid and are used in PUD and GERD
When progesterone levels drop...
Menstruation begins
What is a uterine stimulant ocytocic?
Oxytocin pitocin methergine
What does oxytocin do?
stimulates and increases the strength of uterine contractions
If a pregnant woman was experiencing sever postpartum hemmorhage what medication would be administered?
Methergine
If a woman needed to be induced into labor what drug would you guess would be administered?
Oxytocin
If a woman was experiencing postpartum bleeding what drug would you think they could give her to cease this/
Oxytocin
When a client has been given oxytocin the nurse wants to monitor the length, strength, and duration of contractions and keep a close eye because of what serious side effect?
uterine rupture
If a client was having severe bleeding and a nurse administered methergine, what else would she be wanting to keep an eye out for?
Hypertensive crisis--headache, nausea, vomiting, increase in BP
What are some contraindications for the drug oxytocin?
fetal-immaturity, presentation, distress
mother- unripened cervix, genital herpes
How is oxytocin administered?
by IV pump gradually, increase in 1mu/min q 30 min
Uterine hyperstimulation
contractions lasting longer than 60 sec occuring more frequently than every 2-3 min STOP INFUSION OF OXYTOCIN
what does a tocolytic medication do and what is an example?
Brethine- activates Beta 2 receptors which makes uterine smooth muscle relax
What can Brethine be used for?
To delay preterm labor for up to 48 hrs
What are some side effects of Brethine?
tachycardia (not entirely selective beta 2...sort of effects beta 1)
tremors- beta 2 stiumlant side effects
How is Brethine administered?
IV or SC because of it's high first pass effect with oral administration
If Brethine is administered and contractions decreased what would the nurse do?
know that the medication is taking an effect; if contractions continued or increased in freq/duration you would call the provider

it can be used in between 20-36 weeks
What are androgens and what are some names of medications prescribed?
Androgens are needed for maturation of sex organs. They promote skeletal muscle growth

Some names are Delatestryl, Halotestin, Oreton Methyl...
Uses of androgens include:
hypogonadism, delayed puberty, palliative treatment of androgen-responsive breast cancer
What are some side effects of androgens?
males-gynecomastia, acne, facial hair
females- deeper voice, unusual hair growth acne
heptatotoxicity
cholesterol irregularities hypercalcemia
What are estrogens and their names?
Premarin, Estrace, Vagifem
hormones needed for maturation of female repro tract and sex characteristics. block bone resorption and reduce low density levels (LDL) at high levels release FSH for conception
Estrogens many uses include:
contraception
relief of hot flashes, mood changes
prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis
treatment of prostate cancer
treatment of uterine bleeding
What are the contraindications of Estrogen?
pregnancy
history of heart disease
breast cancer
What is an instruction for the administration of Estrogen?
take at the same time each day
what drugs would be used to treat increased ICP?
Mannitol (osmotic diuretic) and Furosemide (loop)
The first would take water out of everywhere and the second would decrease the rate of production of the CSF
Avg CCP
85 mm Hg.
What are signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure?
H/A pupillary changes pulse pressure widening weaker puleses seizures
Rapid Acting Insulin
Humalog onset 15 min lasts 4 hrs
Short Acting Insulin
Humulin Novolin onset 30-60 min lasts 5-7 hrs
Intermediate Acting Insulin
NPH onset 1-3 hrs
Lente lasts18-24
Long acting
Supralente 24-36 onset 4-8
Lantus 24 hrs no peaks onset- 1 hr
Oral hypoglycemics are used for clients with...
type II DM
This oral hypoglycemic is taken 30 min before each meal
Pradin (glucophage)
PTU is used to treat what disease?
Graves
What oral hypoglycemic do you take 30 min before a meal?
Prandin
This medication works to vasoconstrict and reabsorb water by the kidneys. It is used in diabetes insipidus and cardiac arrest
Vasopressin
What is Lugol's solution?
a medication that inhibits thyroid hormone production and release of it into the bloodstream
What would you use to treat myxedema coma?
synthroid
What can you administer if a client is unconcious and had an insulin overdose?
glucagon
What are some side effects of glucophage?
b12 and folic acid not absorbed well, lactic acidosis
hypoglycemia is not an issue because it does not promote insulin release
What oral hypoglycemic does not cause hypoglycemia?
glucophage--because it reduces glucose production but it does not increase insulin release
What hypoglycemic should be taken with the first bite of food?
Precrose--it slows the absorption of carbs
what is the the only insulin that can be given IV?
REGULAR!
What is the long acting insulin?
Lantus no peak and 24 hour action takes one hour to onset
What is rapid acting insulin?
Lispro/humalog onset 15 min lasts 4 hrs
What is something important to teach your client to eliminate from the diet if they are prescribed sylfonylureas?
alcohol-can cause disulfaram reaction--extreme N&V
What action do penicillins do?
destroy the bacteria cell wall

gram +
What are examples of broad and narrow penicillins?
broad: amoxicillin
narrow: nafcillin
when should a penicillin be administered?
not with food hour before or two after
what are some side effects of penicillins?
renal impairment allergies (could have cross allergy to cephalosporins)
What is the action of a cephalosporin?
kill bacteria cell wall gram -
broad drugs that are often used for UTI, post op infection meningitus etc
What are the four generations of cephalosporins? What do we know about them?
1. Keflex
2. Ceclor
3. Rocephin
4. Maxipime

the generations get stronger
When should cephalosporins be administered?
with food
What are some examples of Carbapenems?
impenem
meropenem
what is impenem used for?
serious infections! UTI pneumonia, peritonitus
What is the prototype monobactum?
vancomycin (azactum, monurel_
What is Vancomycin most often used for?
infections by staph aureaus and c. diff
What are some side effects of vancomycin?
ototoxicity, thrombophlebitus
The VAN CAN deal with...
C. DIFF and staph aureus.
vancomycin
What are som examples of tetracyclines?
Sumycin, doxycycline
What are tetracyclines used for?
rickettsia chlamydia, helicobactor pylori
How do tetracyclines work?
do not allow bacteria to synthesize protein
What are some side effects of tetracyclines?
tooth discoloration, photosensitivity, supra infection of the bowel, hepatotoxicity
What are some examples of Bacteriostatic drugs?
Erythromycin, azithromycin, clindamycin
What is ezythromycin used for?
clients with infections that are allergic to penicillins
A client was just diagnosed with pertussis, what antibiotic would you guess would be prescribed?
Ezythromycin
What are examples of aminoglycosides?
Gentamycin; work on anaurobic gram - like E. coli
What are some side effects of gentamycin?
ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
What is Microdantin used for?
UTI
What is a side effect of Microdantin that would be important to inform your client about before leaving the hospital?
brown urine discoloration
What does Bactrim do?
inhibits folic acid which is used in UTI
What is an example of Cholinesterase inhibitor?
Prostigmin
What is Prostigmin's use?
myasthenia gravis; activates muscles
What is an example of a Neuromuscular blocking agent?
Tubarine, Anectine, Pavulon
What are the uses of a neuromuscular blocking agent?
relax bronchials for the insertion of mechanical ventilation, relaxing during the administration of anesthesia, endoscopy, seizure control