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156 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
main source of energy for growing fetus
carbohydrates
Most common congenital heart defects
Bicuspid aortic valve and VSD
Embryology Week 1
fertilization in fallopian tube ampulla, implantation begins
Embryology Week 2
implantation complete; endoderm and ectoderm form (bilaminar embryo)
Embryology Week 3
Mesoderm formed (trilaminar embryo)
Embryology Week 5
subdivisions of forebrain, midbrainand hindbrain are formed
Embryology Week 7
Heart formed
Embryology Week 8
primary organogenesis complete; placentation occurs
Embryology Week 9
permanent kidneys begin functioning
Embryology Week 10
midgut returns from umbilical cord, where it was developing, to abdominal cavity, while undergoing counterclockwise
Embryology Week 24
primitive alveoli are formed and surfactant production begins
Embryology Week 26
testicles descend
Describe embryology of the heart
Week 3: paired heart tubes begin to work
Week 4: Primordial atrium is divided into left and right by septa primum and secundum; Septum primum forms the valve of the foramen ovale, which closes about 3 months after birth.; failure of the foramen ovale to close results in an atrial septal defect (ASD)
Week 7: The single ventricle is divided into left and right; prior to that the interventricular foramen communicates between left and right sides.; failure of the interventricular foramen to close results in a ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Describe the fetal circulation
placenta-> umbilical vein->ductus venous->IVC->RA->foramen ovale->aorta
How is the closure of the ductus arteriosus prevented and facilitated
prevented by prostaglandin E1
facilitated by indomethacin by inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
failure of the kidneys to develop results in what
oligohydramnios - decrease fluid in the amniotic cavity
failure of the kidney to migrate results in what
ectopic kidneys
A horseshoe kidney gets caught on what during its ascent
inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)
Failure of testicles to descend results in what
cryptorchidism, may need to be corrected surgically to prevent progressive dysplasia and may affect fertility
Where and when does fetal erythropoiesis occur
yolk sac (3-8 wks)
liver (6-8 wks)
spleen (9-28 wks)
bone marrow (28 weeks onward)
What are metanephri and when do they start functioning
permanent kidneys; start functioning at 9 weeks; urine is excreted into amniotic cavity
What forms the Placenta
fetal portion of placenta is formed from chorionic sac
maternal portion is derived from endometrium
What does the placenta synthesize
glycogen and cholesterol
what does the placenta transport
- nutrients, electrolytes, water, and gases are diffused or transported across the placenta
- most drugs pass through placenta and can be detected in fetal plasma
- a few substances cannot pass because of their size or charge (heparin); protein hormones (insulin) do not cross the placenta
Maternal alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is high in what
- multiple gestations (most common)
- fetal neural tube defects
- Gastroschisis
Which supplements during pregnancy reduce incidence of neural tube defects
folic acid
What is the placenta's endocrine functions
produces beta HCG, ACTH, human placental lactogen human chorionic somatomammotropin
What allows for early detection of pregnancy
testing urine for Beta hCG
Describe the CNS embryo development
- during week 3, the neural tube is formed on the ectodermal surfaces
- neural tube openings are closed by 25-27 days
- by week 5, subdivisions of forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain are formed
What results if the neural tube fails to close
-failure of caudal neural tube to close completely can result in spina bifida
-failure of the rostral neural tube to close can result in anencephaly
When are the lungs formed
by 24 weeks, primitive alveoli are formed and surfactant production is begun
What is given to infants if they are born prior to 30 weeks? why?
exogenous surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome
How is lung maturity determined
lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio in the amniotic fluid is greater than 3
What is gastroschisis
failure of the intestine to return to the abdominal cavity with intestinal contents remaining at the base of the umbilical cord; it is a abdominal wall defect with extruded intestine
What is a TE fistula
incomplete separation of foregut and primitive airway
What happens to the GI tract at week 10
midgut returns from the umbilical cord, where it was developing, to the abdominal cavity, while undergoing counterclockwise rotation
When do morphologic sexual characteristics develop
week 7 gestation
When does testosterone production begin in males? What does this lead to?
in males, testis determining factor induces primary sex cords to develop as male gonads, with testosterone production by week 8
Describe the testicles development
testicles develop intra-abdominally and then descend through inguinal canals into teh scrotum by 26 weeks
How does cocaine affect the fetus
placental abruption
When is the maternal AFP low
trisomies 21 (Down Syndrome) and 18
what is the most common cause for abnormal AFP
incorrect dates
Why shouldn't pregnant women change a cat's litter box
risk of toxoplasmosis
Infants who have experienced an intra-uterine infection have a higher than average risk of what
- being small for gestation age
-hepatosplenomegaly
-congenital defects
-microcephaly
-intracranial calcifications
What are the clinical features of Toxoplasmosis ingestion
-microcephaly
-hydrocephalus
-intracranial calcifications
-chorioretinitis
-seizures
Describe Maternal infection of toxoplasmosis
-is due to ingestion of oocytes from feces of infected cats
-mother is asymptomatic
What are clinical features of congenital rubella
meningoencephalitis
microcephaly
cataracts
hearing loss
congential heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary artery stenosis)
What are clinical features of CMV
-intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
-low birth weight
-petechiae and purpura
-jaundice
-hepatosplenomegaly
-microcephaly
-chorioretinitis
-intracranial calcifications
What are the late manifestations of CMV
learning and hearing deficits can occur in 10% of infected
What are narcotics like heroin and methadone associated with
IUGR, SIDS, infant narcotic withdrawal syndrome
Smoking is associated with
decreased birth weight
Phenytoin is assoicated with
fetal hydantoin syndrome (includes IUGR, mental retardation, dysmorphic facies, and hypoplasia of nails and distal phalanges)
What does tetracycline cause
tooth discoloration and inhibits bone formation
What is Isotretinoin (Accutane) associated with
hydrocephalus, microtia, micrognathia, aortic arch abnormalities
what is Warfarin associated with
abnormal cartilage development
mental retardation
deafness
blindness
** instead use low molecular weight heparin which has fewer side effects
What does elevated maternal glucose cause
elevated fetal glucose->fetal hyperinsulinism, which can -> hypoglycemia in the newborn
What is maternal diabetes associated with
-macrosomia (wt >4kg), which can cause birth related injury
-metabolic disorders
-respiratory distress syndrome
-hyperbilirubinemia
-polycythemia and hyperviscosity
-congenital malformations including cardiac, renal, GI, neuro and skeletal defects
maternal lupus is associated with
first degree AV block in affected infants
What are maternal HTN and renal and cardiac disease associated with in infants
small for gestational age babies and prematurity
vascular disease of placenta, caused by maternal illnesses such as diabetes or lupus can cause
insufficient supply of nutrients to fetus and IUGR
Most common teratogen
alcohol
What nationality has the highest incidence of fetal alcohol syndrome? Why?
Native americans because alcoholism is higher in this population
Clinical manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome
microcephaly, mental retardation, IUGR, facial dysmorphism(shortened nasal philum), renal and cardiac defects, hypospadias
what is cocaine associated with
higher risk of spontaneous abortion, placental abruption, fetal distress, meconium staining, preterm birth, IUGR, low APGAR scores at birth, intracranial hemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis, increase incidence of SIDS
What affect does cocaine have on the infant
causes maternal HTN and constriction of placental circulation-> decrease uterine blood flow and fetal hypoxia
What is cocaine withdrawal associated with
irritability, increase tremulousness, and poor feeding, increase incidence of learning difficulties and attention and concentration deficits later on
What can the cord blood be used for
-blood gas study if fetal distress is present
-test for infants blood type
-rich in stem cells, which are pleuripotential cells that have potential use in malignancies and gene therapy
Which prophylaxis is given in the delivery room to the baby
-gonococcal and chlamydial eye infection prophylaxis is with erythromycin or tetracycline
- vitamin K is given intramuscularly to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
What are the steps that occur during childbirth
1. once the head is delivered, the nose and mouth are suctioned
2. once the whole body is delivered, the newbornis heldat the level of the table and the umbilical cord is clamped
3. Newborn is then placed under radiant warmer and is dried with warm towels
4. mouth and nose are gently suctioned
5. gentle rubbing of the back or flicking of the soles of the feet, if needed to stimulate breathing
6. when the umbilical cord is clamped and cut, absent blood flow within the umbilical vein -> the closure of the ductus venosus
What is the APGAR score
-practical method of assessing newborn infants immediately after birth to help identify those requiring resuscutation
- assessment at 1 and 5 mins
What prenatal infections most commonly cause birth defects
TORCH
-Toxoplasmosis
-Other (hepatitis B, syphilis, varicella-zoster virus)
-Rubella -CMV -Herpes simplex virus/HIV
When is a bulging fontanelle seen
increase intracranial pressure, hydrocephalus, meningitis
early onset small for gestation age associations
-insult begin before 28 wks gestational age
-head circumference and height both small (symmetric)
-seen in infants born to mothers with severe vascular dz w/ HTN, renal dz, congential anomalies, infections, chromosomal abnormalities
late onset small for gestational age
-occurs with an insult after 28 wks gestational age
- sparing the head circumference (asymetric IUGR)
-occur with multiple gestations and preeclampsia
What does absent breath sounds indicate
tension pneumothorax or atelectasis
what does bowel sounds in the thorax indicate
congenital diaphragmatic hernia
What does diminished femoral pulses indicate
coartation of the aorta
Which infants are at risk for being Large for gestational age
-born to diabetic mother, postmature infant, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
what is the most common cause of an abdominal mass in a newborn
enlarged kidney
What are the layers of the skull
SCALP
-skin, cutaneous tissue, aponeurosis, loose areolar tissue, periosteum
Circumcision should be avoided in which boys
boys with hypo or epispadias, as foreskin can be used to repair these defects later
what is the most common bone fracture during delivery
clavicular fracture
What is caput seccedaneum
-area of edema over the presenting portion of the scalp during a vertex delivery
-associated with bruising and petechiae
-can cross suture lines
What are the neonatal screening test? Where does it occur?
-heel is punctured
-hypothyroidism, galactosemia, adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, PKU,
What are the types of newborn screening tests
neonatal screening and auditory screening
What can improve the intellectual outcome in infants born with hypothyroidism
early diagnosis and Tx with thyroid hormone prior to 3 mths of age
what is a cephalohematoma
-caused by bleeding that occurs below the periosteum of the overlying bone (usually the parietal)
-associated with skull fractures
-contained within periosteum: does not cross suture lines
What should occur with all macrosomic infants
they should be examined for signs of birth trauma and checked for hypoglycemia
what does a complete clavicular fracture cause
absence of Moro reflex
what is molding
temporary asymmetry of the skull from the overlapping of bones that occurs following prolonged labor and vaginal deliveries. Normal head shape returns in several weeks
what is Klumpke palsy
-involves the lower arm and affects the 7th and 8th cervical and first thoracic nerve root
- the hands are paralyzed and has absent grasp reflex, causing "claw hand"
What is the most common type of Erb palsy
Erb-Duchenne (involves the upper arm)
What is Erb palsy
-involves the fifth and sixth cervical roots
-arm is adducted and internally rotated, but the grasp reflex is intact
Delivery room management of a meconium stained infant
nasopharyngeal suctioning before the delivery of the thorax. Infants with respiratory depression require intubation and tracheal suctioning
Problems with full-term infants
-developmental dysplasia of the hip
-hypoxic/ischemic encephalopathy
-congenital diaphragmatic hernia
-jaundice
what are the signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip
-asymmetry of the skin folds int the groin and shortening of the affected leg
-more likely unilateral and involve the left hip
Dx of developmental dysplasia of the hip
confirmed by ultrasound
Tx for developmental dysplasia of the hip
special brace (Pavlik harness) or sometimes casting
Who do developmental dysplasia of the hip more likely occur in
white females with breech presentation
What is meconium
first intestional discharge of a newborn infant and is composed of epithelial cells, fetal hair, mucus and bile
Meconium ileus is the most common presentation of what disease
cystic fibrosis in the neonatal period
When do most full term infants pass their first stool
within the first 24 hrs of life
What should infants with meconium ileus be tested for
cystic fibrosis
What is meconium ileus
occurs when meconium becomes obstructed in the terminal ileum
How does an infant with meconium ileus present
failure to pass stool, abdominal distention and vomiting
what is meconium aspiration syndrome? When does it occur?
intrauterine stress may cause passage of meconium into the amniotic fluid, which can cause airway obstruction and a severe inflammatory response, which cause severe respiratory distress known as meconium aspiration syndrome
What are the neurological manifestations of hypoxic/ischemic encephalopathy
hypotonia, coma, seizures
What are the outcomes of hypoxic/ischemic encephalopathy
death, cerebral palsy, mental retardation
What is hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
important cause of permanent damage to the cells of the CNS that occurs secondary to hypoxia (decrease oxygen delivery) and ischemia (decrease blood flow)
What are the causes for hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
maternal conditions (HTN), placental insufficiency, severe neonatal blood loss, overwhelming infection
What are congenital diaphragmatic hernias associated with
c-some abnormalities, low birth weight, IUGR
What is the cardinal sign in neonates with congenital diaphragmatic hernia
respiratory distress
Dx of congenital diaphragmatic hernia
prenatal ultrasound btw 16-24 weeks
What are the signs of congenital diaphragmatic hernia
respiratory distress immediately on delivery, tachypnea, poor breath sounds over affected side of chest (most commonly left), and scaphoid abdomen
Tx for congenital diaphragmatic hernia
ex-utero intrapartum treatment (EXIT) procedure, where neonatologists and surgeons are present at delivery and infant is intubated and central extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) catheters placed at the delivery of the head and neck
When does physiologic hyperbilirubinemia occur, peak and resolve
seen after first 24 hrs of life, peaks at 3 days, and resolves over 2 weeks
what is kernicterus
bilirubin neurotoxicity secondary to persistently elevated bilirubin levels, which exceed albumin-binding capacity of the blood resulting in deposition of bilirubin in the basal ganglia
what does kernicterus result in
neurologic deficits, hearing loss, profound encephalopathy and death
Tx for Kernicterus
-phototherapy with blue-green light converts bilirubin in skin to nontoxic isomers that are excreted without conjugation
-elevated bilirubin levels (12-20 mg/dL) are usually treated with phototherapy
-exchange transfusion should be considered at higher levels (20-25 mg/dL)
what types of injuries occur during birth
brachial plexus injuries
what are the perinatal infection risk factors
-rupture of amniotic membranes for 18 hrs or more
-chorioamnionitis
-intrapartum maternal fever
-maternal group B strep
-prematurity
-maternal UTI w/ gram negative organisms is emerging as the common cause due to perinatal GBS prophylaxis
What percentage of pregnant women are colonized with GBS
20%
what is the recommended screening for pregnant women for GBS
all pregnant women be screened (vaginal, rectal swab) at 35-37 wks of gestation
what is the most important route of transmission of group B strep
vertical transmission
what are the 2 patterns of disease for group B strep
early onset disease- < 1 wk
late onset disease- 1 -12 wks
How does early onset Group B strep present
presents shortly after birth as sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis
What is early onset Group B strep associated with
persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn
How does late onset Group B strep present
bacteremia, meningitis, bulging fontanelle, lethargy, irritability, vomiting, seizures
Dx of group B strep
isolation from sterile body fluids (blood, CSF)
What is the Tx the symptomatic and asymptomatic group B strep
-symptomatic (apnea, low temp, feeding intolerance) Tx with ampicillin and gentamicin
-asymptomatic- monitor
what are risk factors for E. coli infection in newborn
maternal urinary tract infection during last month of pregnancy
What are the clinical manifestations of of E. coli in newborn
sepsis, meningitis, UTI, pneumonia
Tx for E. coli in newborn
third generation cephalosporin
E coli infection in the infant is common in which infants
infants with galactosemia
E.coli is the principal cause of what conditions
gram negative sepsis and meninigitis in newborn
cesarean section is performed for women with what infection
primary genital herpes and vaginal lesions in late gestation
Tx for Herpes simplex
acyclovir
Dx of herpes simplex virus
-HSV can be isolated in cell culture from skin lesions or nasopharyngeal swabs
-PCR is a sensitive for HSV detection
what percentage of adults have genital herpes
20%
How is 90% of neonatal Herpes Simplex infection acquired
infected secretions during birth
What are the 3 distinct patterns of herpes simplex dz
-cutaneous disease (skin, mouth, eyes)
-encephalitic disease
-disseminated dz
When is chlamydia acquired in infants
passage through birth canal of an infected mother
what does chlamydia cause in newborns
conjunctivitis (few days to several days) and pneumonia (3-19 wks)
Tx for chlamydia in newborn
erythromycin orally for 14 days
Chlamydia Dx
culture
Erythromycin use is associated with what development
pyloric stenosis
Tx for syphilis
penicillin G
Dx for syphilis
-rapid plasma reagin (RPR) titers and flourescent treponemal anti-body-absorption test (FTA-ABS)
-
features of syphilis
-intermittent fever, osteitis and osteochondritis, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, persistent rhinitis (snuffles), maculopapular rash involving the palms and the soles
late manifestations of syphilis
saddle nose deformity, saber shins, frontal bossing, Hutchison teeth and mulberry molars, sensorineural, and Clutton's joints (painless joint effusions)
Dx of HIV
detection of p24 antigen in peripheral blood, PCR to detect viral nucleic acid in peripheral blood, and ELISA for detection of antibodies
Tx for HIV
nutritional support, Pneumocystis jiroveci prophylaxis, antiviral therapy and anti-infective agents
What reduces the transmission of HIV
maternal Tx with zidovudine in the second trimester reduces the rate of transmission by >70%
Clinical features of infant HIV
persistent thrush, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly, severe diarrhea, failure to thrive, and recurrent infections
What are the strategies to reduce transmission of HIV to newborns
-maternal Tx with ZDV during pregnancy
-consider elective C-section at 38 wks
-mothers who are HIV positive should be advised not to breast feed due to risk of transmission
What percentage of pediatric HIV infection results from maternal fetal vertical transmission
25%