Peds

Front 1

five criteria for apgar score?

Back 1

HR, color, breathing, reflex irritability, muscle tone

Front 2

three reasons why newborns are def. in vit. K?

Back 2

hepatic immaturity, poor ability to cross placenta, and absence of intestinal flora to produce it

Front 3

classic hemorrhage in newborn?

Back 3

localized or diffuse ecchymoses in otherwise healthy baby breastfed >24hrs. y/o

Front 4

exams used to figure gestational age?

Back 4

dubowitz or ballard

Front 5

low birth weight?

Back 5

<2500g

Front 6

ext. low birth weight?

Back 6

<1500g

Front 7

macrosomia?

Back 7

>4000g

Front 8

ecchymoses of overlying skin in skull that cross suture line?

Back 8

caput succedaneum

Front 9

subperiosteal hemorrhage in baby?

Back 9

cephalohematoma

Front 10

length of time of recovery from erb-duchenne palsy in newborn?

Back 10

3-6mo.

Front 11

which reflex absent in erb-duchenne in kids?

Back 11

moro reflex

Front 12

which reflex absent in klumpke?

Back 12

grab reflex

Front 13

phrenic nerve injury associated with which brachial plexus palsy?

Back 13

erb-duchenne

Front 14

horner's syndrome associated with which brachial plexus palsy?

Back 14

klumpke

Front 15

congenital absnece of orbicular angularis muscle and immobile motionless face?

Back 15

mobius syndrome (absence of CN VII)

Front 16

normal EEG background rythym in adults?

Back 16

alpha waves (10-12Hz)

Front 17

Hz range in delta rhythm?

Back 17

2-3Hz

Front 18

Hz range in beta rhythm?

Back 18

12-14 Hz

Front 19

Hz range in theta rhythm?

Back 19

5-6 Hz

Front 20

defining rhythm in infantile spasm?

Back 20

hipsarrhythmia (1-3Hz spike)

Front 21

defining rhythm of benign rolandic epilepsy?

Back 21

rolandic spikes

Front 22

family history of similar spells of myoclonic movements in neonates?

Back 22

benign neonatal familial convulsions

Front 23

this type of neonatal seizure can occurs out to 4-6wks. of age ?

Back 23

withdrawal seizures

Front 24

tx. of withdrawal seizures in neonates?

Back 24

supportive care

Front 25

age which benign infantile myoclonic epilepsy begins and ends?

Back 25

2-4 y/o

Front 26

drug of choice for absence seizures?

Back 26

ethosuximide

Front 27

seizure with no predisposition with normal labs and tests?

Back 27

febrile seizure

Front 28

male predominance with common verbal outbreaks at night?

Back 28

benign rolandic epilepsy

Front 29

treatment of infantile spasms?

Back 29

IV ACTH

Front 30

seizure associated with auto dominant tuberous sclerosis?

Back 30

infantile spasm

Front 31

profoundly retarded children with mult. seizure types?

Back 31

lennox-gastaut syndrome

Front 32

developmentally normal children that begins to have auditory agnosia and loss of speech, with continuous seizure activity during sleep?

Back 32

landau-kleffner syndrome

Front 33

which symptom will continue to persist in landau-kleffner syndrome?

Back 33

speech impairment unless treated early with IV ACTH

Front 34

status epilepticus or partial with gradual hemiplegia and intellectual loss?

Back 34

rasmussen's syndrome

Front 35

etiology of rasmussen's?

Back 35

viral inducement of antibodies against gluR3 receptors in brain, usually one side.

Front 36

myoclonic jerks upons awakening, hx. of absence seizures, and generalized seizure around 15-16 after sleep deprivation?

Back 36

juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Front 37

tx. of JME?

Back 37

depakote and lamictal

Front 38

systemic disorders in children which can present with seizures?

Back 38

SLE, and HSV

Front 39

myoclonic jerks caused by reflux stimulating the vagus nerve in 0-1 y/o?

Back 39

sandeifer's syndrome

Front 40

mc fx. seen in abuse?

Back 40

skull fx.

Front 41

mc location of the rib fx.?

Back 41

post. fx. resulting from squeezing

Front 42

constellation found in shaken baby?

Back 42

subdural hematoma, retinal hemorrhage, and skeletal fx.

Front 43

which IV fluid contain Ca and K?

Back 43

lactate ringer

Front 44

two disadvantage of lactate ringers?

Back 44

-contains Ca, that may bind to citrate in blood causing clots, or interact with other drugs
-liver failure pts. will be unable to convert lactate to bicarb, resulting in met. acidosis

Front 45

common IV order for babies and reasons?

Back 45

D5W or D10W w/(1/4)NS b/c they do not have glucose storage and kidney cannot handle high sodium low

Front 46

cardiac anomaly associated with WPW?

Back 46

Ebstein's anomaly, tx. is PGE1 for PDA patency and propranolol for arrythmia

Front 47

widely split S2 and diastolic rumble indicates what?

Back 47

ASD

Front 48

non-bilious vomiting usually in 2wks-2mo olds indicate?

Back 48

pyloric stenosis, tx. is surgery

Front 49

episodic, violent colicky pain in 2mo-2y/o indicates?

Back 49

intussuception, tx. with barium reduction

Front 50

biliary emesis in under 1mo. most likely?

Back 50

volvulus; tx. is surgery

Front 51

which plexus involved in hirschprung's?

Back 51

myenteric

Front 52

meckel's is remnant of which duct?

Back 52

omphalomesenteric

Front 53

main sx. of meckel's?

Back 53

painless rectal bleeding with peak incidence around 2y/o

Front 54

tx. for minimal change disease of kidney?

Back 54

prednisone for 4wks

Front 55

tx. for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

Back 55

treat with cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone

Front 56

crescent formation in glomeruli indicates?

Back 56

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

Front 57

urine AG calculation?

Back 57

N+K-Cl

Front 58

negative urine AG indicates what disease?

Back 58

proximal RTA

Front 59

which RTA commonly associated with obstructive uropathy?

Back 59

distal RTA type IV (acidosis and hyperkalemia)

Front 60

one sx. commonly found in kids with chronic renal failure?

Back 60

growth failure

Front 61

serious complication of dialysis?

Back 61

DDS(dialysis dysequilibrium syndrome), cerebral edema caused by dialysis

Front 62

infantile polycystic kidney disease also involves what other organ?

Back 62

lungs, causing mortality due to pulmonary hypoplasia

Front 63

one contraindication to circumcision?

Back 63

hypospadias

Front 64

tx. for vesicoureteral reflux?

Back 64

prophylactic bactrim

Front 65

long term side effect of valproic acid on peds?

Back 65

hepatic necrosis

Front 66

side effect of long term phenobarbitals on peds?

Back 66

behavioral disturbances

Front 67

mental change, stupor, and hyperammonemia in peds indicates?

Back 67

reye's syndrome from ASA tx. causing encephalopathy and liver dysfunction

Front 68

symptoms and common comorbidity of sturge-weber syndrome?

Back 68

seizures and glaucoma

Front 69

adrenoleukodystrophy?

Back 69

adrenal prob plus demyelination causing spastcity and extensor posturing

Front 70

late childhood onset progressive ataxia, weakness, and muscle wasting?

Back 70

friedreich's ataxia

Front 71

skin abnormalities found in tuberous sclerosis?

Back 71

facial angiofibromas, ash-leaf spots, shagreen(abnormal thickening in lumbar region), sebaceous adenomas, and hyperpigmented forehead

Front 72

retinal hamartomas, CNS vascular abnormalities, renal and adrenal carcinoma?

Back 72

von-hippau-lindau

Front 73

peds prone to strep, h. influ, staph, and pseudo infections may have which congenital immunodeficiency?

Back 73

X-linked (Burton's) agammaglobulinemia; absence of B-cells

Front 74

peds prone to respiratory, GI, and urinary infections may have which congenital immunodeficiency?

Back 74

selective IgA def.

Front 75

recurrent pulmonary infections with thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, hypothyroidism, and neutropenia may indicate?

Back 75

hyper IgM syndrome(defect in B-cell class switching)

Front 76

allergic triad?

Back 76

allergic rhinitis, reactive airway disease, and atopic dermatitis

Front 77

which cardiac anomaly associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

Back 77

trucus arteriosis

Front 78

electrolyte defect found in DiGeorge?

Back 78

hypocalcemia

Front 79

chronic or recurrent infections by catalase positive organisms may indicate?

Back 79

chronic granulomatous disease

Front 80

thrombocytopenia, eczema, and immunodeficiency indicates?

Back 80

wiskott-aldrich syndrome

Front 81

serpiginous rash on hand and feet in peds?

Back 81

serum sickness(type III hypersensitivity)

Front 82

eye disorder often associated with juvenile RA?

Back 82

uveitis

Front 83

tx. of juvenile RA?

Back 83

methotrexate

Front 84

phases of kawasaki disease?

Back 84

acute(10 days of fever and possible meningitis, pericarditis, and myocarditis), subacute(days 11-21 desquamation), convalescent(coronary art. aneurysms)

Front 85

infectious phase of varicella?

Back 85

24hrs. before rash onset until all lesions are crusted over

Front 86

PKU is deficiency in?

Back 86

phenylalanine hydroxylase (Phe to Tyr)

Front 87

mode of inheritance for all inborn errors of metabolism?

Back 87

autosomal recessive except for ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency(x-linked recessive)

Front 88

metbolic disorder presenting with marfan like appearance?

Back 88

homocystinuria

Front 89

liver, renal, and catarct problems in first days of life?

Back 89

galactosemia

Front 90

which head bleed does not cross suture line?

Back 90

cephalohematoma

Front 91

jaundice occurs at what bilirubin levels in neonates and children?

Back 91

5mg/dL in neonates, 2mg/dL in children

Front 92

indirect bilirubin level greater than what can cause kernicturus?

Back 92

25mg/dL

Front 93

sx. of kernicturus?

Back 93

lethargy, hypotonia, and high-pitched cry

Front 94

which street drug can cause NEC?

Back 94

cocaine

Front 95

medical tx. for crigler-najjar syndrome?

Back 95

hepatic enzyme induction by phenobarbital

Front 96

respiratory stimulants for tx. of apnea of prematurity?

Back 96

caffeine, aminophylline, doxapram

Front 97

hyperviscosity syndrome appears when Hct is at what level?

Back 97

above 65%

Front 98

tx. of peds polycythemia?

Back 98

partial exchange perfusion, replacing RBC with NS

Front 99

grades of IVH?

Back 99

I-confined to germinal matrix
II- ventricular hemorrhage
III-ventriculomegaly
IV-brain parenchyma involvement

Front 100

test to identifiy swallowed maternal blood?

Back 100

apt test

Front 101

infant with thick lips, large tongue, and periorbital edema most likely has?

Back 101

hypothyroidism

Front 102

tx. of toxo?

Back 102

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine with folic acid

Front 103

purple skin lesion along with eye, ear, growth infection in newborn?

Back 103

rubella infection

Front 104

bone deformities and other non-specific symptoms in newborn indicates which infection?

Back 104

syphilis

Front 105

staccato cough in infant indicates?

Back 105

chylamidial pneumonia

Front 106

tx. for infant sepsis?

Back 106

ampicillin and gentamycin. Use cefotaxime when meningeal involvement is suspected

Front 107

double bubble sign on x-ray in newborn indicates?

Back 107

duodenal atresia

Front 108

tracheoesophageal fistula can be part of what syndrome?

Back 108

VACTREL syndrome(vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheal, renal, esophageal, limb anomalies)

Front 109

tx. of omphalocele?

Back 109

broad spec abx, and surgery. DO NOT reduce.