Pediatric Dentistry Oucod 2008 Exam 2 Final

Front 1

what is the success rate from date of placement, regardless of age for SSC

Back 1

90%

Front 2

majority of SSC failures are due to what

Back 2

pulp failure, not restaration failure

Front 3

class II amalgam success rates in pedo pts is highest when what is true

Back 3

when life expectancy of tooth is less than 3 years

Front 4

what is the approximate failure rate of class II amalgams when placed in pt younger than 4 years of age

Back 4

50%: smaller preps are required due to large pulp chamber which causes a higher failure rate than in permanent teeth

Front 5

what are the indications for a SSC

Back 5

rampant caries, caries involving 3 or more surfaces, extensive caries on young permanent teeth, recurrent caries, tooth that has undergone pulp therapy (pulpotomy/pulpectomy), developmental defects, fractured teeth, severe bruxism, orthodontic appliance fabrication

Front 6

marginal ridge break down in a primary tooth would be an indication for what tx

Back 6

pulpotomy and crown

Front 7

would a SSC be indicated following an indirect pulp therapy on a permanent first molar where large amounts of enamel is compromised

Back 7

yes

Front 8

what is the strongest of the SSCs

Back 8

unitek

Front 9

what is a unitek crown made of

Back 9

primarily composed of chromium and steel

Front 10

unitek crowns are not pre-trimmed, but are pre-contoured, and pre-crimped T/F

Back 10

false: they are pre-trimmed, but require contouring and crimping

Front 11

what type of SSC is pre-trimmed, pre-contoured, and pre-crimped, but is made of a softer metal, and is designed to snap over prep without any alterations

Back 11

ion crowns

Front 12

in SSC procedure prior to placement of rubber dam what should be checked

Back 12

occlusion, vertical space loss, horizontal space loss, soft tissue change, and mobility

Front 13

is a rubber dam always required when placing a SSC

Back 13

yes

Front 14

what anesthesia is recommended when placing a SSC on a maxillary tooth

Back 14

buccal infiltration and palatal anesthesia

Front 15

what anesthesia is recommended when placing a SSC on a mandibular tooth

Back 15

IAN, long buccal, and lingual

Front 16

retention of a SSC relies on what

Back 16

natural undercuts, the adequacy of the crimp, and the luting material

Front 17

excessive buccal/lingual reduction when placing a SSC can result in what

Back 17

non-retentive crown and an unplanned extraction

Front 18

what burs are required in the SSC preparation armamentaria

Back 18

169L FG, tapered diamond FG, #6/8, #330, and heatless stone

Front 19

what finish line is appropraite for SSC preparation

Back 19

knife edges finish line

Front 20

what accessories are required other than burs in the SSC preparation armamentaria

Back 20

wire wheel, no. 114 contour pliers, no. 800-417 crimping pliers, and howe pliers

Front 21

describe the steps in the SSC crown prep

Back 21

selection of crown, occlusal reduction, occlusal beveling, interproximal reduction, and line angle refinement

Front 22

describe the steps in the SSC crown placement

Back 22

gingival adaptation, trimming, contouring, crimping, and cementation

Front 23

a SSC is selected based upon what

Back 23

the MD width of the primary tooth (space loss, bruxism, and exfoliation are all factors in choosing the crown

Front 24

what should be used to remove the crown from the crown box

Back 24

sterile cotton forceps

Front 25

what is the approximate amount of occlusal reduction that is appropriate for SSC

Back 25

1-1.5 mm

Front 26

what burs are recommended for occlusal reduction in a SSC preparation

Back 26

330 FG or a round wheel diamond

Front 27

in a primary maxillary molar what area should be occlusally reduced with caution and why

Back 27

mesiobuccal aspect due to a high pulp horn

Front 28

what aspects of the SSC prep should have an occlusal bevel

Back 28

all around the occlusal

Front 29

what burs are recommended for occlusal bevel

Back 29

330 FG or tapered diamond

Front 30

when should the cervical undercuts be removed when doing a SSC preparation

Back 30

never!

Front 31

the height of convexity should be reduced to where on a SSC prep

Back 31

just above the gingiva but leaving the gingival undercut

Front 32

what is used for interproximal reduction when doing a SSC prep and why

Back 32

tapered diamond, to avoid ledges which can prevent seating

Front 33

what is the approximate amount of interproximal reduction recommended for SSC prep

Back 33

1 mm without ledging

Front 34

what is the potential problem with excessive occlusal reduction on a SSC prep

Back 34

possible pulp exposure

Front 35

what is the potential problem with excessive buccal reduction on a SSC prep

Back 35

loss of retention

Front 36

the margin (finish line) for a SSC prep should be located where

Back 36

1-1.5 mm below the marginal gingiva

Front 37

trimming of a SSC is usually reserved for what type

Back 37

unitek

Front 38

what is the use for the contour plier

Back 38

after trimming the plier is used to establish appropriate contours on the mesial and distal

Front 39

a SSC should be seated from buccal to lingual T/F

Back 39

false: lingual to buccal

Front 40

what types of cements are appropriate for cementation of SSC

Back 40

ZnPO4, IRM, and GI

Front 41

what should be checked prior to cementation of a SSC

Back 41

blanching, entrapped gingiva, openbites, and rotated crowns

Front 42

what should be done immediately after cementation of a SSC

Back 42

floss the interproximals

Front 43

how much cement should be used during cementation of SSC

Back 43

it should be filled with cement rather than just lined because the crown is not designed to fit like a glove

Front 44

what is the purpose of a band/crown and loop space maintainer

Back 44

preserves the space that was occupied by the prematurely lost primary molar

Front 45

what are the advantages of crown and loop space maintainer over the band and loop space maintainer

Back 45

more stable than B/L, stronger than B/L, and the crown can remain on abutment tooth even after loop is not needed

Front 46

what are the disadvantages of crown and loop space maintainer

Back 46

more expensive and the need for accuracy is greater

Front 47

the decision between a crown loop vs. band loop appliance is determined by what

Back 47

by what tx is required on the abutment tooth. anything beyond a 1 surface restoration on the abutment is an indication for a crown

Front 48

what is required when doing a crown loop space maintainer

Back 48

requires 2 fitted crowns (one used for the crown loop and the other will be temporarily cemented between procedures), requires a compound impression, requires 036 wire, and soldering skills

Front 49

what is the mechanism for local anesthetic

Back 49

sodium ion permeability is decreased and nerve conduction is interrupted. increased threshold for electrical excitation in the nerve, a lowered height of the action potential, reducing the rate of rise of the action potential and a slow propagation of impulse conduction

Front 50

all local anesthetics readily cross the blood-brain barrier, and readily cross the placenta and enter the fetal circulatory system T/F

Back 50

true

Front 51

what local anesthetic agent is used most commonly in our clinics

Back 51

amides

Front 52

where are amides detoxified

Back 52

in the liver

Front 53

what are the two common types of amide local anesthetics

Back 53

carbocaine and lidocaine

Front 54

what vasoconstrictor is often used with carbocaine and in what concentration (and why)

Back 54

neocobefrin at 1:20,000 concentration (used in higher concentration because it is less effective than epinephrine)

Front 55

what vasoconstrictor is used with lidocaine and in what concentration

Back 55

epinephrine at 1:100,000 concentration

Front 56

ester local anesthetics are metabolized by what

Back 56

plasma enzyme cholinesterase

Front 57

procaine is what type of local anesthetic: amide or ester

Back 57

ester

Front 58

local anesthetic compounds without hydrophillic part are suited for what

Back 58

good topicals but not good for injections

Front 59

why is levonordefrin (neocobefrine) good for pedo pts

Back 59

side effects and overdose are the same as epi but to a lesser extent

Front 60

what is the term for an increasing tolerance to a drug that is given repeatedly

Back 60

tachyphylaxis

Front 61

what are the signs of local anesthesia toxicity

Back 61

CNS depression (convulsions), slurred speech, shivering, muscle twitching, tremor in facial muscles and extremities

Front 62

what are the symptoms of local anesthesia toxicity

Back 62

numbness of tongue and circumoral region, warm/flushed skin, pleasent dreamlike state, generalized light-headedness, dizziness, visual disturbances, auditory disturbances (tinnitus), drowsiness, and disorientation

Front 63

in general what is the recommended dosage for LA with or without vasoconstrictor

Back 63

2 mg/lb

Front 64

larger gauge = larger needle T/F

Back 64

false: larger gauge = smaller needle

Front 65

wht is the onset time for lidocaine topical anesthetic

Back 65

3-5 minutes

Front 66

what is the concentration of lidocaine gel/liquid ? metered spray?

Back 66

gel/liquid: 5% . metered spray: 10%

Front 67

what is the concentration of benzocaine liquid/gel

Back 67

14-20%

Front 68

what is the onset time for benzocaine topical

Back 68

30 seconds

Front 69

what topical anesthetic has the longer duration and lower toxicity potential and is considered the best for pedo pts

Back 69

benzocaine

Front 70

what is the number one intraoperative complication of local anesthesia

Back 70

syncope

Front 71

what anatomical differences are important to note in the mandible when giving local anesthesia

Back 71

ramus is shorter verically and narrower anterioposteriorly. mandibular foramen is lower than in adult

Front 72

what is different about an IA block in a pedo pt than in an adult

Back 72

injection site is lower and more posterior

Front 73

what is the injection site for primary molars

Back 73

inject over primary first molar

Front 74

where should you inject to anesthetize MSA in pedo pt

Back 74

over MB root of permanent first molar

Front 75

palatal anesthesia is required anytime the palatal tissues are manipulated (as in rubber dam clamp, extraction, or class II amalgam T/F

Back 75

true

Front 76

what is the number one postoperative complication of local anesthesia in children

Back 76

post-anesthesia trauma

Front 77

how long does pulpal anesthesia last usually vs. soft tissue anesthesia?

Back 77

pulpal: 60 minutes vs. soft tissue: 3-5 hours

Front 78

2% solution = x mg/ml

Back 78

20 mg/ml

Front 79

if calculating a 1:20,000 vasoconstrictor how many mg are found per ml? per carpule?

Back 79

.05 mg/ml .09 mg/carpule

Front 81

what clamps are used for rubber dam for pedo pts usually

Back 81

8,14, and 14a

Front 82

what teeth must be isolated when using a rubber dam for a pedo pt

Back 82

just one tooth on either side of the tooth/teeth that are involved

Front 83

glass ionomers chemically bond to tooth structure and have a similar coefficient of thermal expansion to the tooth T/F

Back 83

true

Front 84

what is the strongest of the esthetic type restorative materials

Back 84

composites

Front 85

composites have chemical bonding to tooth structure without use of bonding system T/F

Back 85

false

Front 86

for primary teeth what shades of composites are typically used

Back 86

A1 or A2

Front 87

what is the removal of the coronal portion of the pulp, leaving the vital radicular portion un-instrumented

Back 87

pulpotomy

Front 88

what is the removal of the entire pulp from the tooth

Back 88

pulpectomy

Front 89

what is the success rate of vital pulpotomy therapy

Back 89

75-85%

Front 90

what are the indications for pulpotomies

Back 90

previously asymptomatic, or symptoms suggestive of reversible pulpitis with no clinical or radiographic signs of pathology

Front 91

access for a pulpotomy on a maxillary primary molar should be what shape

Back 91

should mimic the rhomboid outline of the primary tooth

Front 92

access for a pulpotomy of a mandibular primary molar should be what shape

Back 92

should mimic the rectangular outline of the primary tooth

Front 93

how is hemorrhage control achieved during pulpotomy

Back 93

lightly moistened cotton pellet prior to placement of the medicament

Front 94

removal of the medicated pellet during pulpotomy should reveal what

Back 94

a darkened, non-hemorrhaging pulp stump

Front 95

continued hemorrhage after pulpotomy medicament placement indicates what

Back 95

pulpitis extending beyond the canal orifice, poor amputation procedure with tissue remaining, or perforation

Front 96

what medicament is used during pulpotomy to stop hemorrhage

Back 96

formocresol or ferric sulfate

Front 97

what are the acceptable fills for pulpotomies

Back 97

ZOE, IRM and ZOE, or B&T (eugenol provides obtundant effect)

Front 98

what is the restoration of choice following pulp therapy

Back 98

SSC

Front 99

under what circumstances would a class I amalgam be an acceptable restoration after pulpotomy

Back 99

if tooth is within two years of exfoliating

Front 100

what is the most common reason for crown failure

Back 100

due to misdiagnosis/failure of the pulp tx

Front 101

what are the components sultans formocresol

Back 101

48.5% formaldehyde, 48.5% cresol, and 3% glycerin

Front 102

what are the components of buckley's formocresol

Back 102

19% formaldehyde, 35% cresol, and 17.5% glycerin

Front 103

1:5 dilution of formocresol is just as effective as full strength T/F

Back 103

true

Front 104

why is formocresol considered a better medicament for pulpotomy than ferric sulfate

Back 104

because ferric sulfate's ability to induce hemostasis even in unhealthy pulps may mask the need for further tx

Front 105

molar roots flare apically for what reason

Back 105

to accomadate developing premolars

Front 106

perament roots complete their dev't when? primary roots?

Back 106

permanent roots: 3 years after eruption . primary roots: 1 year after the tooth erupts

Front 107

maxillary central is wider mesial-distally than occluso-gingivally

Back 107

true

Front 108

the primary maxillary first molar resembles what

Back 108

premolar

Front 109

the primary maxillary second molar resembles what

Back 109

permanent first molar

Front 110

the primary mandibular first molar resembles what

Back 110

no other tooth

Front 111

molars sometimes must be sectioned during extraction because?

Back 111

due to flared roots

Front 112

when extracting primary anteriors what motion should be used

Back 112

unscrewing motion due to roots due their circular shape in cross section

Front 113

what is the function of sealants

Back 113

physical barrier to block bacteria and nutrients from fissures and pits thereby preventing decay

Front 114

what are the indications for use of a size 0 film

Back 114

before age 6, before first molars erupt, shallow lingual vestibules

Front 115

what are the indications for use of a size 2 film

Back 115

after age six and after first molars erupt

Front 116

where do interproximal caries form

Back 116

at or just apical to the contact

Front 117

primary teeth contacts differ from permanent teeth contacts how

Back 117

they have broad interproximal contacts opposed to point contacts

Front 118

primary teeth interproximal contact areas tend to open in a more: mesial direction/distal direction compared to the permanent dentition

Back 118

mesial direction. this means you have to direct the cone from a more anterior direction

Front 119

when exposing a bitewing radiograph for a pedo pt the angulation should be how many degrees above or below the horizontal plane

Back 119

10 degrees above

Front 120

what are the indications for the use of the Snap-O-Ray

Back 120

shallow vestibule, behavior management, or altered view

Front 121

what size film is used for occlusal radiographs in children

Back 121

size 2

Front 122

when are panorex radiographs indicated for children

Back 122

6 (for pathology, missing teeth, or anomalies), 12 (growth and dev't), and 18 (wisdom teeth)

Front 123

what are the standing orders for radiographs on a 6 year old prior to the eruption of the first molars

Back 123

2 bitewings, maxillary occlusal film, and a mandibular occlusal film

Front 124

what are the standing orders for radiographs on a child after the age of 6 and after eruption of the first molars

Back 124

2 bitewings, selected PA's, and panorex

Front 125

with what frequency should bitewing radiographs be obtained on a pedo pt

Back 125

at initial exam and yearly thereafter

Front 126

for maxillary occlusal radiographs what is the angulation for tube

Back 126

60 degrees downward through the center of the nose

Front 127

for mandibular occlusal radiographs what is the angulation of the tube

Back 127

30 degrees upward through the center of the chin

Front 128

the patient record is the legal document of the dental practice and the dentist owns the records/radiographs T/F

Back 128

true

Front 129

how much is the dental practice allowed to charge for copies of radiographs and documents?

Back 129

$1.00 for first page and $.50 for each additional page. x-rays shall not exceed $5.00 or the actual cost of the reproduction

Front 130

what is consent to tx by a pt after achieving an understanding of what is involved

Back 130

informed consent

Front 131

what are the requirements of informed consent

Back 131

the nature of the proposed tx, which includes: necessity of tx, benefits of tx, prognosis of tx, time involved, and cost involved, reasonable alternatives to proposed tx, and the risks and potential complications of the proposed tx

Front 132

informed consent can be verbal or written T/F

Back 132

true

Front 133

what is expressed consent

Back 133

consent designed for a specific purpose, out of the ordinary circumstances such as a papoose board or sedation

Front 134

what are the two exceptions to informed consent from a parent for an underage pt

Back 134

emancipation exception and the mature minor exception

Front 135

if an unaccompanied minor child present for an appt for simple or routine tx that has already been discussed and consented to by the parent or gaurdian, is it permissble to proceed with tx

Back 135

yes

Front 136

if the patients parent or legal guardian refuses to accept your tx recommendations after you have communicated the risks of declining tx, then the parent or legal guardian has given what

Back 136

an informed refusal (this should be documented in the record)

Front 137

what constitutes withdrawal (discontinuation of care)

Back 137

illness of the dentist, failure of the pt to cooperate, tx beyond the dentist's ability, or pt misconduct

Front 138

what constitutes abandonment

Back 138

failure to follow up on pt care after the acture stage of illness has subsided or neglect to give a pt warning or necessary instructions. unilateral termination of the dentist/pt relationship by the dentist without notice to the pt

Front 139

what must be done to properly release a pt

Back 139

send a certified return-receipt letter including: reason for release, release date, a referral list, and notice of availability of records, with documentation in the chart

Front 140

what constitutes battery

Back 140

when there is use of force on a person without the person's consent. usually when healthcare provider has failed to obtain any consent to the particular tx or performed a different procedure than the one for which consent was given (actionable as tort or criminal law violation)

Front 141

what constitutes negligence

Back 141

when the conduct of a healthcare provider falls belwo the accepted standard of care, resulting in injury to the pt (actionable only as tort)

Front 142

what is a wrongful act other than a breach of contract for which relief may be obtained in the form of damages or an injunction (one is required to do or refrain from doing a specific act)

Back 142

tort

Front 143

what is the statute of limitation for pt under the age of 18

Back 143

healthcare provider may have a suit filed agianst them at any time up to one year after the pt reaches the age of 18

Front 144

what is the statute of limitations for pt above 18

Back 144

2 years following the awareness of substandard care

Front 146

resistance of the tooth to decay can be increased by: systemic fluoride, topical fluoride, pit and fissure sealants, or all of the above

Back 146

all of the above

Front 147

wha tis the primary focus of a prevention program

Back 147

removal of plaque

Front 148

plaque related problems account for what percent of all dental tx rendered

Back 148

95%

Front 149

how many of all malocclusions are related to premature primary tooth loss due to caries

Back 149

1/3

Front 150

what is the best approach for pt motivation

Back 150

closely supervised teachign with multiple visits and periodic reinforcement

Front 151

what test determines amount of acid formed in a carbohydrate medium

Back 151

modified snyder caries test

Front 152

when should a child's (baby/infant) teeth be brushed or cleaned

Back 152

as soon as they erupt

Front 153

most children brush for about how long

Back 153

1 minutes

Front 154

what percent of a child brushing is done on facial of anteriors and occlusal of mandibular molars using horizontal scrubbing

Back 154

75%

Front 155

children under what age need adult to assume primary responsibility for OH

Back 155

age 9 (need to be able to tie their shoes and write their name in cursive)

Front 156

how many times a day is recommended for brushing in a pedo pt

Back 156

twice a day

Front 157

how often should tooth brush be replaced

Back 157

every 3-4 months

Front 158

how often should a dental prophy be provided for a pedo pt

Back 158

every 6 months

Front 159

what is the only way to clean the interroximal surfaces

Back 159

flossing

Front 160

flossing should begin when in a pedo pt

Back 160

as soon as there are interproximal contacts

Front 161

what is the substrate of choice for bacteria

Back 161

fermentable carbs

Front 162

average americans consume about how much sugar per year

Back 162

100 pounds, sucrose is about 94% of the intake

Front 163

what is the preferred method of brushing for pedo pt without formal instruction

Back 163

horizontal scrub

Front 164

why is brushing before bed especially important

Back 164

because of decreased salivary flwo during sleep

Front 165

which type of floss removed plaque better : waxed or unwaxed

Back 165

unwaxed, but waxed helps for rough restorations

Front 167

what is the most critical step in the successful management of the pediatric pt and parent

Back 167

development of the tx plan

Front 168

most of the time tx is divided up into hemispheres (upper arch vs. lower arch) T/F

Back 168

false: usually 4 quadrants, can add 5th and 6th "quadrants" (max anterior and man anterior)

Front 169

if all quadrants are of equal priority which "quadrant" (actually sextant) is reserved for last and why

Back 169

anteriors, because posteriors are more important for mastication and are retained longer than anteriors and saving esthetic anteriors for last may motivate pareents to complete tx

Front 170

if quadrant priority differs what should be done first

Back 170

the worst should be done first, however if it is the pts first visit it may be good to do simple restorative procedure at the first restorative visit

Front 171

if minimal procedures are required the tx may be divided into two appointment seperating the mouth into halves vertically or horizontally T/F

Back 171

true

Front 172

if there is a small amount of work to do on a pedo pt it is ok to do bilateral mandibular block to knock it all out in one appt T/F

Back 172

false: never do bilateral mandibular blcok in young children

Front 173

when is it ok to do bilateral mandibular block

Back 173

pt 12 or older who has experienced local anesthesia before and is mature enough. also must obtain consent from pt and parent

Front 174

extractions are usually performed with the quadrant they are in T/F

Back 174

true

Front 175

extractions are routinely done on the first visit T/F

Back 175

false: they are only done on the first visit if it is an absolute necessity and it is often helpful to use nitrous

Front 176

if caries are found in the primary dentition on tooth number B what other teeth should be checked

Back 176

the adjacent tooth surfaces of the tooth affected and the contralateral side (for instance if B was found to have DO caries, A should be checked for MO, and # i should be checked for DO

Front 177

caries should be restored when

Back 177

once detected (? do the people who write this crap not understand that saying "restore caries when you detect them" acutally means nothing?)

Front 178

why do caries spread quickly in the primary dentition

Back 178

enamel and dentin are thinner than in permanent teeth

Front 179

what are the indications for stainless steel crowns

Back 179

primary molars with M and D caries, primary molars with 3 or more carious surfaces (unless buccal pit is one of them), or in pts with poor oral hygiene, cervical decalcification, or cervical caries, or hx of significant caries

Front 180

if a tooth will exfoliate within 12-18 months, which should be done: amalgam or SSC

Back 180

amalgam

Front 181

observe if asymptomatic, extract if symptomatic

Front 182

if tooth will exfoliate within 12 months should you do pulpotomy or extract

Back 182

extract

Front 183

what is the preferred time of day to see a pedo pt

Back 183

morning (better rested and practictioner has more patience)

Front 184

put the following in order of tx priorities: emergency, orthodontics, prevention, prosthodontics, restorative, recall

Back 184

emergency, prevention, restorative, orthodontics, prosthodontics, and recall

Front 185

maxillary anterior extractions are often done when in a tx plan

Back 185

last appt

Front 186

restorative should be completed prior to starting ortho T/F

Back 186

true

Front 188

what are the stages of tooth dev't in order

Back 188

Growth (initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, and apposition), Calcification, Eruption, and Attrition

Front 189

in what stage(s) does initial formation of the tooh bud by the cells of the dental lamina occur

Back 189

initiation/proliferation

Front 190

during what stage do the cells of the tooth bud begin to differentiation into odontoblasts, ameloblasts, etc

Back 190

histodifferentiatino

Front 191

during what stage do cells begin to order themselves into the shape of the tooth

Back 191

morphodifferentiation

Front 192

during what stage is mineral laid down into the matrix in order to calcify the tooth

Back 192

apposition

Front 193

teeth present at birth are known as what

Back 193

natal teeth

Front 194

teeth present within 30 days of birth are known as what

Back 194

neonatal teeth

Front 195

what % of natal teeth are prematurely erupting primary central incisors and not extra teeth

Back 195

95%

Front 196

what are the indications for extracting natal teeth

Back 196

extreme mobility posing a risk of aspiration, verified supernumerary, extremely poor tooth dev't, or significant feeding problems remain smoothing the teeth

Front 197

where do supernumary teeth commonly occur

Back 197

in maxillary midline and mandibular premolar area

Front 198

wh is the general incidence of supernumerary teeth

Back 198

1-3.5 % with race and sex variance

Front 199

supernumerary teeth are commonly found in associatino with what

Back 199

cleidocranial dysplasia

Front 200

what is ectodermal dysplasia

Back 200

primary failure of ectodermal tissues resulting in multiple missing teeth, apocrine disorders, and conical shaped teeth

Front 201

hypodontia usually occurs with what teeth

Back 201

lateral incisors, 2nd PMs, and 3rd molars

Front 202

what is the attempt of one tooth bud to become two seperate teeth

Back 202

gemination

Front 203

with gemination, counting the teeth will reveal what

Back 203

an extra tooth, usually only a single canal will be present when teeth are incompletely seperated

Front 204

where does gemination typically occur

Back 204

incisors

Front 205

what are the 2 examples of disorders of histodifferentiation

Back 205

amelogenesis imperfecta and dentinogenesis imperfecta

Front 206

tx of amelogenesis imperfecta is typically what

Back 206

restoring esthetics

Front 207

failure of ameloblasts to form enamel correctly resulting in enamel that is generally thin, pitted, or missing is known as what

Back 207

amelogenesis imperfecta

Front 208

what form of amelogenesis imperfecta results in enamel that is poorly mineralized and subject to easy fracture or abrasion

Back 208

hypomineralized

Front 209

what form of amelogenesis imperfecta results in the enamel being normally calcified but significantly pitted and very prone to staining

Back 209

hypoplastic type

Front 210

what is the failure of odontoblasts to form the DEJ and dentin correctly, resulting in "pulpless teeth" on radiographs, bulbous crowns, and is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta

Back 210

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Front 211

what are the tx objectives for dentinogenesis imperfecta

Back 211

prevent excessive wear and pathologic exposure of pulp

Front 212

what is the most common microdont

Back 212

lateral incisor

Front 213

what primary tooth most commonly has an extra root

Back 213

primary 2nd molars

Front 214

what teeth are most often affected by dens invaginatus

Back 214

maxillary laterals

Front 215

what is found when counting teeth if fusion of teeth is present

Back 215

one tooth short of a full dentition

Front 216

what teeth in the primary dentition are most commonly fused

Back 216

mandibular lateral and mandibular canine

Front 217

what are the caues of hypocalcification

Back 217

injury during growth phase, high fever during growth phase, etc

Front 218

what is the term for an atypical path of eruption

Back 218

ectopic eruption

Front 219

what type of ectopic eruption usually occurs with the eruption of the maxillary first permanent molar, causing the molar to become stuck under the crown of the primary second molar

Back 219

hold type

Front 220

what amount of hold type ectopic eruptions self correct their eruption path without tx? what is this known as?

Back 220

2/3 self correct. this is known as jump type ectopic eruption

Front 221

what is the term for the fusion of the tooth to the bone

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ankylosis

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what are the four etiologic factors for caries

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susceptible tooth, plaque, substrate, and time

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what is the main bacteria responsible for smoth surface and pit and fissure decay

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S. mutans

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what is the main bacteria responsible for caries progression in the dentin

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lactobacillus

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acid demineralization can be initially reversed or lessened in severity by what

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increased salivary flow, buffering capacity of bicarbonate in saliva, or other minerals in saliva

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by age 8 the prevalence of proximal caries equals occlusal caries T/F

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true

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what % of chidren age 2-4 already have tooth decay

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17%

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by age 8 what % of children have tooth decay

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52%

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by age 17 what % of children have dental decay

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78%