Pediatrcs - Basic Pediatrics (Kaplan Chapters 1-12)

Front 1

APGAR stands for?

When is the score given?

Back 1

Appearance
Pulse
Grimace (reflex)

Activity (tone)

Respiration (effort)

Given at 1 & 5 minutes

Front 2

Describe what the APGAR 1 minute score evaluates

Back 2

APGAR 1 minute evaluates the intra-uterine environment

Front 3

Describe what the APGAR 5 minute score evaluates

Back 3

APGAR 5 minute evaluates the transition between the intrauterine environment and the regular enviroment

Front 4

After the 1- and 5-minute APGAR scores, subsequent APGAR scores will reflect which efforts?

Is the APGAR score predictive of outcome?

Back 4

Resuscitation efforts.

APGAR is not predictive of outcome

Front 5

APGAR quiz:

Blue, pale baby

HR <100
No response
Some flexion
Slow, irregular respiration

Back 5

APGAR score:

0+1+0+1+1 = 3

Front 6

Low APGAR scores are associated with?

Back 6

Neurologic damage or necrotizing enterocolitis

Front 7

"Cone head" babies/Caput succedaneum describes which presentation?

Pathological/benign? May cause what?

Back 7

Babies with scalp swelling

This is benign, the swelling subsides over a few days.

May cause Jaundice

Front 8

Cephalhematoma --> does it cross the suture line?

Back 8

No

Front 9

Subcutaneous Fat Necrosis is associated with which 4 factors?

Where do the lesions commonly present?

Back 9

1. Difficult labor/delivery

2. Perinatal asphyxia (reflected in poor APGAR score)

3. Prolonged hypothermia

4. Hypocalcemia months later

Common on cheeks and buttocks

Front 10

Erb-Duchenne Palsy is palsy of which plexus?

Anatomically, where is the lesion?

Back 10

Brachial Plexus

C3-C4

In case of C5 --> Ipsilateral Hemidiaphragmatic Paralysis causing respiratory distress in the baby

Front 11

Waiter's tip of the hand is associated with which kind of palsy?

Back 11

Brachial Plexus Palsy, Erb-Duchenne Palsy

Front 12

Horner is a guy, who's forehead is dry
Who has a small eye, and can't see the sky

This poem refers to which medical terms?

Back 12

Anhydrosis, Miosis and Ptosis

Front 13

The entire half of the baby's face is paralyzed. This would indicate a peripheral or central palsy?

Back 13

Peripheral

In the case of central, it would only affect the upper or lower part of the face

Front 14

Which bone is most commonly fractured during delivery?

Back 14

Clavicle

Front 15

Subconjunctival Hemorrhage. When does it occur, and what is the prognosis?

Back 15

Occurs due to pressure during delivery through vaginal canal. Goes away over time

Front 16

Cutis Marmorata in neonates is common when the child is exposed to?

In which condition would Cutis Marmorata not dissipate?

Back 16

Cold temperatures

Down Syndrome

Front 17

"Port Wine Stains" are assocated with which medical condition and which cranial nerve?

Uni- or Bilateral?

Back 17

Sturge-Weber syndrome, CN V Trigeminal

Unliateral

Front 18

A Proliferating Hemangioma in a child may present on any part of the body, and will eventually go away on its own.

What respiratory issue may it present with in a child? What type of Hemangioma would give this presentation
Finally, which position will exacerbate the symptomes?

Back 18

Stridor of increasing severity, due to a subglottic hemangioma. Symptomes will be exacerbated in prone position.

Front 19

Encephalotrigeminal Angiomatosis has another name. Which?

It's characterized by wikipedia as which kind of disorder?

Back 19

Sturge-Weber Syndrome

Congenital Neurological and Skin disorder

Front 20

Mongolian Spots are most commonly is which area of the body?

DDx for this disorder is what?

Back 20

Lumbo-Sacral Area

DDx is child abuse

Front 21

Erythema toxicum is a common, migratory rash in neonates. When does it appear?

Scraping the lesion will show which type of cell?

Back 21

Does not appear right after birth!! Goes away within two weeks.

Eosinophils

Front 22

Neonate with severe rash right after birth.

Scraping the lesions shows neutrophils.
The rash does not appear to be migratory, and Nikolsky's sign is seen.

Which pathological presentation is described?

Back 22

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin

Front 23

A baby with Staphylococcal Scalded Skin needs what sort of treatment?

Back 23

Antibiotics and Fluids. Quickly

Front 24

Define Aniridia

Back 24

Lack of Iris

Front 25

Aniridia is associated with which kind of tumor?
Why the association?

Back 25

Wilms' Tumor

Due to deletions in the p13 band on chromosome 11

Front 26

Leukocoria is associated with what?

Back 26

Retinoblastoma

Front 27

Galactosemia and TORCH infections can give which ophthalmological finding in a newborn?

Back 27

Congenital Cataract

Front 28

In the case of Microtia (gross malformation of the ear), which screening test would be appropriate?
Why?

Back 28

CT scan.

To find out if the baby has developed a hearing canal.

Front 29

Newborn Screening will include these 5 common conditions

Back 29

1. Phenylketonuria

2. Galactosemia

3. Hypothyroidism

4. Cystic Fibrsis

5. Sickle Cell Anemia

Front 30

Baby:
Fair haired, Fair Skinned, Blue eyes.
Musty odor. Eczema.
Mental Retardation

Back 30

Phenylketonuria

Screen for it after 48 hrs after birth

Front 31

3 main groups of etiologies of Symmetric IUGR?

Back 31

1. Syndromes
2. Chromosomal anomlies
3. TORCH infections

Front 32

LEARN --->
APGAR
TORCH
TANNER STAGING
DENVER II DEVELOPMENTAL ASSESSMENT

Back 32

Know this!

Front 33

Blueberry Muffin

Back 33

Congenital Rubella

Front 34

Two Complications of Potter Sequence?

Back 34

1. Respiratory insufficiency (due to pulmonary hypoplasia)

2. Renal Failure

Front 35

Define Malformation

Back 35

Results from an intrinsically abnormal developmental process (e.g. polydactyly)

Front 36

Define Disruption

Back 36

Results from the extrinsic breakdown of, or interference with, and originally normal developmental process (e.g. amniotic band disruption sequence)

Front 37

Define Deformation

Back 37

Alteration of the final form of a structure by mechanical forces (e.g. Potter deformation sequence)

Front 38

Define Dysplasia

Back 38

Abnormal development that results in abnormal organization of cells into tissues (e.g. bone dysplasia)

Front 39

Multiple Anomalies:
Define "Association"

Does one need to have all the factors of an association to fall into the category? -->

Back 39

Non-random occurrence of multiple independent anomalies that appear together more than would be predicted by chance but are not believed to have a single etiology (e.g. VACTERL)

--> No

Front 40

What does VACTERL stand for?

Back 40

Vertebral dysgenesis
Anal atresia (imperforate anus)

Cardiac anomalies
TracheoEsophageal fistula (esophageal atresia)
Renal anomalies
Limb anomalies (e.g. abscent radius)

Front 41

Multiple Anomalies:
Define "Sequence"

Back 41

Related anomalies that come from a single initial major anomaly or precipitating factor that changes the development of other surrounding or related tissues or structures (e.g. Potter Sequence)

Front 42

Multiple Anomalies:
Define "Syndrome"

Back 42

A pattern of anomalies that occur together and are caused by a single known or unknown cause (e.g. Down Syndrome)

Front 43

Child description:
1. Growth deficiency

2. Mental retardation

3. Personality (happy, welcoming)

4. Elfin facies

Which Syndrome?

Back 43

Williams Syndrome

Front 44

What are the Major medical problems encountered in Williams Syndrome?

Back 44

1. Hypercalcemia

2. Supravalvular aortic stenosis

3. Renal artery stenosis --> HTN

Front 45

Noonan Syndrome is similar to Turner Syndrome, except it's also featured in boys.

Instead of Coarctation of the Aorta, featured in Turner Syndrome, this is more common in Noonan --->

Back 45

Pulmonic Valvular Stenosis

Front 46

Do children with Turner and Noonan Syndrome display Mental Retardation?

Back 46

Turner --> No

Noonan --> Yes

Front 47

CHARGE association stands for?

Back 47

Coloboma
Heart defects

Atresia choanae

Retardation of growth/development
Genital hypoplasia
Ear defects/hearing loss

Front 48

Define Prune Belly Syndrome


What are the features of this disease?

Back 48

Absence of the anterior abdominal muscles

1. Genitourinary defects

2. Cryptorchidism

Front 49

Rule of weight in newborns:
By 6 months, the weight of the child should have become?

Back 49

Double of BW

Front 50

The appetite of the baby will slow down at which point of age?

Back 50

18 months

Front 51

The growth rate starts to slow down after how many months after birth?

Back 51

6-12 months

Front 52

Important Growth Concepts:
Myelination is complete at which age?

Back 52

7 years

Front 53

If the baby is fed with goat's milk, he/she will require supplementation of which compound?

Back 53

Folate

Front 54

How to diagnose Consitutional Growth Delay in a child?

Back 54

Check Bone Age

Front 55

Vitamin Deficiencies:
Thiamine (B1) ---> Beriberi

Provide 3 symptomes

Back 55

1. Neuritis

2. Heart Failure
3. Encephalopathy

Front 56

Vitamin Deficiencies:

Niacin ---> Pellagra (Ds Disease)

Provide 4 symptomes/complications (D)

Back 56

1. Diarrhea

2. Dermatitis (worse with sun)

3. Dementia

4. Death

Front 57

Vitamin Deficiencies:
Vitamin C ---> Scurvy

Provide 3 symptomes/complications

Back 57

1. Pseudoparalysis

2. Scorbutic rosary
3. Mucous membrane hemorrhage

Front 58

Vitamin Deficiencies:
Vitamin D causes two diseases.

Which?

Back 58

1. Rickets
2. Tetany

Front 59

What is the most frequent cause of stridor in infants and young children?

Back 59

Laryngomalaca

Front 60

The most commonly ingested foreign body is?

Back 60

A Coin

Front 61

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome can be excluded by doing which test?

Back 61

CBC looking for platelet count.
Normal platelets = No Wiskott-Aldrich

Front 62

Howell-Jolly bodies indicates which condition?

Back 62

Asplenia

Front 63

Suspicion of Chronic Bacterial or Fungal infections can be excluded by doing which blood test?

Back 63

ESR

Normal ESR = No infection (bacterial or fungal)

Front 64

Best test to check for a complement deficiency?

Back 64

CH 50

Front 65

Bruton Agammaglobulinemia, a B-cell defect, is a congenital disease affecting which chromosome?

Specific finding on PE?

Back 65

It's X-linked. Therefore, it's present only in boys.

PE --> Lymphoid Hypoplasia

Front 66

Definitive test for diagnosing Bruton Agammaglobulinemia?

Back 66

Flow Cytometry ---> Absence of circulating B-cells

Front 67

Define DiGeorge Syndrome

Back 67

"Microdeletions of chromosome region 22q11" - Toronto Notes

"Dysmorphogenesis of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches" - Kaplan

Front 68

What is the most common initial manifestation of DiGeorge Syndrome?

Back 68

Hypocalcemic Seizures

Front 69

What is the 2nd most common congenital chromosomal abnormality (next to Down Syndrome) ?

Back 69

DiGeorge Syndrome

Front 70

Patients with DiGeorge Syndrome often present with opportunistic infections. Which type of microorganism causes the infections?

Back 70

Viruses

Front 71

Define SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency)

Back 71

"Absence of all adaptive immune function +/- natrual killer function" - Toronto Notes

Front 72

What is the most common primary renal neoplasm of childhood?

Back 72

Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)

Front 73

Name 4 DDxs of Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)

Back 73

1. Hydronephrosis

2. PCKD
3. Renal Cell Carcinoma
4. Neuroblastoma

Front 74

Which tumor, common in childhood, may present with HTN, gross hematuria, abdominal pain and vomiting?

Back 74

Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)

Front 75

Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma) may have ___________ metastasis at time of diagnosis. (may also have symptomes suggesting location of metastasis)

Back 75

Pulmonary metastasis

Front 76

Wilms' Tumor presentation of "Asymptomatic, unilateral abdominal mass" is how common in patients?

Back 76

80% of patients

Front 77

WAGR syndrome is an abbreviation of which four conditions?

Which chromosomal anomaly does it represent?

Back 77

Wilms' tumor

Aniridia
Genital anomalies
mental Retardation

11p13 deletion

Front 78

Define the basic pathology in Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

Back 78

It's characterized by enlargement of body organs -especially the tongue.

Also
---> Hemihypertrophy

---> Hepatoblastoma

---> Omphalocele/Umbilical Hernia

Front 79

Which congenital disease carries increased risk of developing hepatoblastoma, adrenocortical tumors, neuroblastomas and rhabdomyosarcomas?

Back 79

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

Front 80

Denys-Drash syndrome is characterized by?

Back 80

Gonadal dysgenesis and nephropathy leading to renal failure

Front 81

Neuroblastoma

Back 81

Most common malignant tumor seen in neonatal period.

Any sympathetic plexuses may develop it.

Progression resistant to therapy.

Front 82

Neuroblastoma staging system??

Back 82

Find out!

Front 83

Renal tumors

Back 83

Polyhydramnios + abdominal mass regular finding during preg.

After birth: hematuria, hypercalcemia, hypertension

Front 84

Wilms tumor vs congenital mesoblastoma nephroma

Back 84

CMN is benign, Wilms malignant

Front 85

Large kidney DDx

Back 85

Renal cystic disease (most common), hydronephrosis, neuroblastoma, then finally tumor.

Front 86

Hepatic hemangioma

Back 86

Benign, orregular size,

Front 87

Mesenchymal hamartoma

Back 87

Most common in neonatal age, benign condition

Front 88

CNS tumor with best prognosis?

Back 88

Cherry tumor

Front 89

Typical maligancy in children

Back 89

CNS TUMORS are most common solid tumors in children.

Front 90

Heart tumors

Back 90

Rhabdomyoma is a hamartoma, high association with TS

Front 91

Hemangioma

Back 91

Most common tumor of infancy.

10% of population has hemangioma.

Tumors vs vascular malformation

Front 92

Infantile hemangioma

Back 92

Most common type of tymor in children, period. (10%) JD

Front 93

Medication used in hemangioma?

Back 93

Propanolol

Front 94

Trauma, infected wounds
Lid Abscess

Respiratory infection
Bacteremia
Sinusitis

All etiologies of which disease?

Back 94

Periorbital Cellulitits

Front 95

Most common organisms causing Periorbital Cellulitits?

Back 95

1. S. pneumoniae

2. H. influenza type b

3. S. aureus

Front 96

PE -->
The eye is clearly infected, but the eyeball movements are intact. Normal vision, no proptosis

Which infection of the eye will this point to?

Back 96

Periorbital Cellulitis

Front 97

Definite Dx for Periorbital Cellulitis?

Tx of Periorbital Cellulitis?

Back 97

No definite, diagnosis is clinical (blood culture unlikely to be positive)

Oral or IV Antibiotics

---> Cover for S. aureus and resistant gram-posititve

Front 98

PE -->
Proptosis
Ophthalmoplegia --> Eyeball does not move

Chemosis, swelling, decreased visual acuity, toxic-appearing, fever, pain

Likely diagnosis?

Back 98

Orbital Cellulitis

Front 99

Etiology of Orbital Cellulitis?

Back 99

1. From contiguous wound

2. Bacteremia

3. Paranasal sinusitis

Front 100

Other names for pre-septal cellulitits and septal cellulitis concerning eye infections?

Back 100

Pre-septal cellulitits --> Periorbital Cellulitits

Septal cellulitits --> Orbital Cellulitits

Front 101

Organisms responsible for Orbital Cellulitits?

Back 101

1. S. aureus

2. Nontypable H. influenza

Front 102

Best test for suspicion of Orbital Cellulitits?

Back 102

CT scan

Front 103

Tx for Orbital Cellulitis?

Back 103

Drainage of the infected area (it's trapping the eye making it impossible to move)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics (cover S. aureus)

Front 104

Define Chemosis

Back 104

The cunjunctiva becomes swollen and gelatinous in appearance.
----> Nonspecific sign of eye irritation

Front 105

"Swimmers Ear" is another name for which disease?

Back 105

Otitis Externa

Front 106

Which organisms can cause Otitis Externa?

Which other two causes can cause the disease?

Back 106

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (most common)

2. S. aureus (2nd most common)

Repeated wetting (Swimmer's Ear) and Repeated Trauma

Front 107

Symptomes and signs on PE in Otitis Externa?

Back 107

Symptomes: Significant pain, especially on manipulation of the outer ear. Conductive hearling loss

Exam: Inflamed, swollen, macerated ear canal

Eardrum itself will be normal

Front 108

Define Macerated Skin

Back 108

Softening and breaking down of skin resulting from prolonged exposure to moisture

Front 109

Tx of Otitis Externa?

Back 109

Topical antibiotic drops + Costicosteroid drops

Front 110

Organisms causing Otitis Media?

Back 110

1. S. pneumoniae

2. Nontypable H. influenza

3. M. catarrhalis

Front 111

Risk factors for Otitis Media?

Back 111

1. Infants/children (due to f. eks. shorter ear canal)

2. Formula-feeding versus breast-feeding

3. Craniofacial anomalies, Eusatchian tube dysfunction

4. Males, daycare, in contact with more germs
5. Secondhand smoke

Front 112

Symptomes of Otitis Media?

Back 112

1. Ear Pain (otalgia)

2. Fever

3. Purulent otorrhea (rupture)

4. Irritability

5. Diarrhea

6. ----> or could have no symptomes at all

Front 113

Dx of Otitis Media?

Back 113

1. Always pneumatic otoscopy

2. Full, bulging, red Tympanic Membrane

3. Sometimes retracted

4. Loss of landmarks

5. Bubbles

Front 114

Why does Otitis Media with Effusion occur?



What are the symptomes?

Back 114

Due to repeated infections of Otitis Media with insufficient time for effusion to resolve

Sympt --> Fullness slight or absent or TM retracted.
Very little or no erythema

Front 115

Tx of Otitis Media?

Back 115

Antibiotics, first line drug is Amoxicillin

Front 116

Define Myringotomy, and when would you perform one?

Back 116

"Tiny incision is created in the eardrum to relieve pressure caused by excessive buildup of fluid, or to drain pus from the middle ear" - Wikipedia

1. Unsatisfactory response to appropriate second-line drug

2. Any complications

3. Immune compromise

4. Neonates or very young infants with systemic signs

Front 117

Any child with delayed speach should be tested for what?

Back 117

Hearing problems

Quite obvious.

Front 118

Complications of Otitis Media?

Back 118

Hearing loss --> Most common


Also:
Acute mastoiditits

Perforation

Cholesteatoma

Meningitis (most common intracranial complication)

Labyrinthitis

Front 119

Define Cholesteatoma

Back 119

"Cholesteatoma is a destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process." - Wikipedia

Front 120

Define Choanal Atresia

Back 120

"Membranous or bony septum between nose and pharynx" - Kaplan

"Congenital disorder where the back of the nasal passage (choana) is blocked, usually by abnormal bony or soft tissue (membranous) due to failed recanalization of the nasal fossae during fetal development" - Wikipedia

Front 121

Choanal Atresia is associated with which congenital syndrome?
50% non-random association

Back 121

CHARGE Syndrome

Front 122

Dx of Choanal Atresia?

Back 122

1. Cannot pass catheter 3-4 cm

2. Fiberoptic rhinoscopy

3. Delineate exact anatomy --> CT scan

Front 123

Tx of Choanal Atresia?

Back 123

Oral airway or intubation, nasogastric feeds

1. Transnasal repair with stent(s)

Front 124

Nasal Foreign Body
Clinical signs?
Obvious Dx and Tx

Back 124

Unilateral malodorous, purulent and/or bloody discharge

Dx: May be seen with speculum or otoscope

Tx: Remove

Front 125

Define Epistaxis, and name the most common source of the bleeds

Back 125

Nosebleed.

Most commonly from anterior septum; Kiesselbach plexus

Front 126

Common etiology of Epistaxis in children?

Back 126

1. Digital trauma - nose picking

2. Dry air (winter)

3. Inflammation - URI, allergy

4. Nasal steroid sprays

5. Others - foreign body

6. Rarely bleeding disorder, vascular anomaly

Front 127

Sinusitis is most commonly associated with which other form of pathology?

Can also be?

Back 127

Upper Respiratory tracy Infection (URI)

Can also be self-limited

Front 128

"When we talk about sinusitis in children, always think about ______"

Back 128

Bacterial Superinfection

Front 129

A child is born with which two sinuses? Which one is pneumatized?

When do you get the next two sinuses?

Back 129

Ethmoid and Maxillary. Ethmoid is pneumatized.

Sphenoid --> 5 years

Frontal --> begins at 7-8 years , not complete until >12

Front 130

Organisms responsible for Sinusitits?

Which organism is responsible for chronic Sinusitis?

Back 130

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae

2. Nontypable Haemophilus influenza

3. Moraxella catarrhalis

4. S. aureus for chronic

Front 131

Dx of Sinusitis is entirely historic/clinical.

Two main points make up the important history in Sinusitis. Which?

Back 131

1. Duration. Persistent URI symptomes with no improvement for at least 10 days

2. Severity. Severe respiratory symptoms with purulent discharge and a temperature of at least 39* for at least 3 consecutive days

Front 132

Tx of Sinusitis?

How long does the Tx last?

Back 132

Antibiotics

For 3 weeks (longer than for Otitis Media)

Front 133

Acute Pharyngitis
What are the two most important causes?

Back 133

1. Viruses

2. Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus (pyogenes) (GABHS)
---> Strep throat

Front 134

The peak age for Strep Throat is about?

Strep Throat is another name for?

Back 134

5-10 years of age
(<5 --> think of viruses)

Acute Pharyngitis, caused by GABHS

Front 135

If the child has underlying URI symptomes during an onset of Acute Pharyngitis, the etiology of the infection is probably?

Back 135

Viral

Front 136

Age of child 5-10 yrs.
Sudden onset, sore throat and fever.
Complain of headache, may also have vomiting and abdominal pain.
Symptomes may mimic appendicitis, due to enlarged abdominal lymph nodes.

What is the likely Dx?

Back 136

Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)

Front 137

PE -->
1. Red pharynx

2. Tonsillar enlargement with yellow, blood-tinged exudate

3. Palatal and posterior pharyngeal petechiae

4. Strawberry tounge

5. Red, swollen uvula

6. Increased and tender anterior cervical nodes

Likely Dx?

Back 137

Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)

Front 138

When suspecting Streptococcal Pharyngitis, which areas do you have to swab in order to get the Dx?

Is swabing necessary for the diagnosis?

Back 138

Both tonsils and the posterior pharynx (make them gag)

Yes.

Front 139

Palatal petechia and the a characteristic rash also seen in Scarlet Fever (Scarletina) may point to which kind of pathology?

Back 139

Streptococcus Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)

Front 140

Viral Pharyngitis
Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused by which type of virus?

Back 140

Adenovirus

Front 141

Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease presents with an inflamed oropharynx in addition to vesicles throughout the mouth, hands, feet and buttocks. They are very painful, and may ulcerate.

This disease is caused by which pathogen?

Back 141

Coxackie Virus

Front 142

Coxsackie Virus can - in the context of Ear, Nose and Throat - cause which two diseases?

Back 142

1. Herpangina

2. Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease

Front 143

Two tests used to diagnose for Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

Back 143

1. First --> Rapid Strep Test (answer in 5 minutes)

2. Throat culture --> Gold Standard

Do both, it's worth waiting a couple of days for the Throat Culture before starting Tx

Front 144

Which disease can be prevented by treating Streptococcal Pharyngitis within 9 days of onset?

Back 144

Acute Rheumatic Fever

Front 145

Tx of Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

Back 145

Penicillin.
The organisms remain susceptible. For now.

Front 146

4 main complications of Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

Back 146

1. Retropharyngeal abscess

2. Peritonsillar Abscess

3. Rheumatic fever

4. Glomerulonephritis

Front 147

Retropharyngeal Abscess, a complication of Streptococcal Pharyngitis can be caused by which two organisms?

What life-threatening condition can it cause?

Back 147

Obviously, Streptococcus pyogenes, but also S. aureus

The condition may cause airway obstruction

Front 148

Clinical symptomes of Retropharyngeal Abscess

Stepwise course of action when suspecting a Retropharyngeal abscess will be?

Back 148

Difficulty swallowing, fever, sore throat.

1. Lateral neck film for detection

2. CT

3. Drain + Ab

Front 149

A patient presents with drooling, sore throat, fever, a "hot potato voice", deviation of uvula (away).

Dx?
Tx?

Back 149

Peritonsillar abscess, complication of Streptococcal Pharyngitis

Drain + Ab

Front 150

Cervical Lymphadenitis

Name six infections that can cause this condition

Back 150

1. Viral/bacterial pharyngitis

2. Cat scratch

3. TB/atypical mycobacteria

4. Mumps

5. Thyroglossal duct cysts

6. Branchial cleft cysts

Front 151

Define Hygroma

Back 151

"A subdural hygroma is a subdural body of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), without blood"
- Wikipedia

Most commonly seen in elders after minor trauma, but can be seen in children after an infection.

Cystic Hygroma in children is most commonly an enlarged lymphnode, presenting due to problems with lymph drainage.

Front 152

Indications for performing Tonsillectomy?

Back 152

1. >7 DOCUMENTED strep infection in past year OR -->

2. 5/yr in each of 2 previous years OR -->

3. 3/yr in each of 3 previous years OR -->

4. Unilateral enlarged tonsil -- Neoplasm (very rare)

Front 153

Three indications for performing Adenoidectomy?

Back 153

1. Chronic nasal/sinus infection failing medical Tx

2. Recurrent/chronic OM with tympanostomy tubes with persistent otorrhea

3. Nasal obstruction with chronic mouth-breathing and loud snoring

Front 154

Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is indicated when?

Back 154

Upper airway obstruction from hypertrophy --> Sleep-disordered breathing and complications

Front 155

APGAR quiz:

Pink baby
HR <100/min
Grimace
Active

Slow, irregular respiration

Score?

Back 155

APGAR score:
2+1+1+2+1 = 7

Front 156

Poor APGAR score is?

Fair APGAR score is?

Good is?

Back 156

Poor 0-4

Fair 5-7

Good 8-10

Front 157

TORCH infections include?

Back 157

Toxoplasmosis
Other (Syphilis, Varicella, HIV and parvovirus B19)

Rubella
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Herpes