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75 Cards in this Set

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a series of DNA nucleotides that codes for the production of a polypeptide or RNA
gene
T or F: Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have more than 1 copy of some genes
F Prokaryotes only have 1
Actively transcribed regions of DNA are _____
euchromatin
Tightly packed regions of DNA
heterochromatin
Repetitive sequences are found mainly in _______
heterochromatin
Purines are two ring structures _ and _
A and G
T or F: A phosphodiester bond occurs between the 3rd C of one deoxyribose and the 5th C of the other
T
Replication starts at the ____ of the chromosome
Middle
Prokaryotic replication takes place at ______ origin(s)
1
T or F: DNA pol requires an RNA primer to get started
T
DNA is read in this direction and writes in this direction
3 to 5; 5 to 3
5 steps of replication:
1. Helicase unzips dbl helix
2. RNA pol builds primer
3. DNA pol assembles leading and lagging strands
4. primers are removed
5. Okazakis are joined
T or F: DNA pol has exonuclease activity
T: It is used to repair when it discovers mistakes
Replication in a human cell takes about _ hours
8
______ are repeated six nucleotide units that protect from erosion through repeated rounds of replication
Telomeres
_RNA delivers the DNA code for aa to the cytosol where the proteins are made
mRNA
rRNA is synthesized in the _____
nucleolus
T or F: A promoter is not required in transcription
F: It is required.
a sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription
promoter
______ scans the DNA molecule for the promoter
RNA pol
_RNA delivers the DNA code for aa to the cytosol where the proteins are made
mRNA
_RNA delivers the DNA code for aa to the cytosol where the proteins are made
mRNA
rRNA is synthesized in the _____
nucleolus
rRNA is synthesized in the _____
nucleolus
T or F: A promoter is not required in transcription
F: It is required.
T or F: A promoter is not required in transcription
F: It is required.
a sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription
promoter
______ scans the DNA molecule for the promoter
RNA pol
a sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription
promoter
______ scans the DNA molecule for the promoter
RNA pol
T or F: Only the template strand is transcribed
T
The coding strand resembles the DNA or RNA sequence?
RNA
T or F: Coding strand is the same as sense strand.
T
T or F: Most regulation occurs at the translation level
F. Transcription
Genetic unit containing the operator promoter and genes for a single prokaryotic mRNA
operon
T or F: Post-transcriptional processing only occurs in eukaryotes
F. It occurs in prokaryotes too
What is the function of the 5' cap?
an attachment site in protein synthesis and as protection against degradation by exonucleases
T or F: The primary transcript of mRNA is shorter than the mRNA that will be translated into a protein
F. It is much longer
What do snRNPs do?
recognize nucleotide sequences at the ends of introns and associate with proteins to make spliceosome
T or F:Introns remain in the nucleus and the exons leave and are translated
T
The process of binding a known sequence to an unknown sequence in order to identify nucleotide sequences
hybridization
Methylation is associated with ____ genes
inactivated
How do you make a DNA library
Take your DNA fragment insert it into a vector then insert it into a bacterium and reproduce the bacteria like crazy
A northern blot identifies ___ fragments
RNA
_____ identifies DNA specific sequences of DNA using hybridization
Southern blot
complementary strands of DNA are held together by
H bonds
transcription from DNA in the nucleus is followed by post transcriptional processing in the _____
nucleus
T or F: Positively charged DNA fragments move toward he cathode
F: Negatively charged DNA moves to cathode
Homologues attached move to metaphase plate. Tetrads align What stage is this in Meiosis?
Metaphase 1
Homologues line up along each other. Crossing over can occur
Prophase 1
How many chromosomes does a 2ndary oocyte have?
23
How many chromosomes does a primary oocyte contain?
46
In this phase, the nuclear membrane reforms and chromosomes decondense
Telophase
In this phase, sister chromatids move to opposite ends if cell and cytokinesis occurs
Anaphase
Chromosomes align along equator
Metaphase
Chromatin condenses, centrioles move to opposite ends and the nucleus disappears. Spindle apparatus also forms
Prophase
What part of the life cycle does the cell prepare to divide and organelles are duplicated?
G2
This stage is a nongrowing state
G0
During this, the cell splits and begins to grow, heterochromatin unwinds and RNA and protein are synthesized
G1
Chromatin that can be uncoiled
Euchromatin
How many histones make a nucleosome?
8
A base pair mutation with no stop codon
Missense
An insertion/deletion mutation that results in a non multiple of 3
frameshift
A base pair mutation with a stop codon
nonsense mutation
When the orientation of a section of DNA is reversed on a chromosome
inversion
When a segment of 1 chromosome is inserted into another
translocation
What is the function of the SRP?
It carries the ribosome complex to a receptor on the ER
Translation can take place on a _____ in the _____ or attach to the _______.
free floating ribosome in the cytosol or attach to rough ER
T/F Translation doesnt require GTP
F It requires 1.
Which is not a stop codon?
AAU UAA UAG UGA
AAU
T/F In elongation, a tRNA with an aa attaches to the A site at the expense of 4 GTPs
F. Two GTPs
What is the signal for the lg subunit to join and form initiation complex?
tRNA sequesters Met and settles in at P site.
Ribosomes require the organelle _____ to manufacture them.
nucleolus
T/F Prokaryote ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic
T. Prok have 30S and 50S while euk have 40S and 60S.
mRNA carries the genetic code from the _____ to _______
nucleus to cytosol