Pbcc Pharmacology Final Review

Front 1

1. A hypoglycemic event must be treated immediately with an antidiabetic agent.


A. True.
B. False.

Back 1

B. False.

Front 2

2. Why are antibiotics only prescribed when there is an identified need for antiinfective therapy?


A. of the increased cost without just cause.
B. of the increased chance of acquired microbial resistance.
C. of the dependency of microbes on medications.
D. of the effectiveness against resistant bacteria.

Back 2

B. of the increased chance of acquired microbial resistance.

Front 3

3. Which nursing action is necessary before administering digitalis or a related cardiac glycoside?


A. Check radial pulse for 15 seconds.
B. Check radial pulse for 1 full minute.
C. Check apical pulse for 15 seconds.
D. Check apical pulse for 60 seconds.

Back 3

D. Check apical pulse for 60 seconds.

Front 4

4. Which method of medication administration is used for mucolytic agents?


A. Oral.
B. Intramuscular.
C. Intravenous.
D. Inhalation.

Back 4

D. Inhalation.

Front 5

5. Which of the following nursing actions would be a priority for all patients receiving mucolytics, expectorants or antitussives?

A. Monitor the patient's respiratory status.
B. Provide materials for oral hygiene.
C. Provide suction equipment at the bedside.
D. Provide resuscitation equipment at the bedside.

Back 5

A. Monitor the patient's respiratory status.

Front 6

6. What is the major advantage of using aerosol therapy in treating airway disorders?


A. Patient cooperation is unnecessary.
B. Equipment used is economical.
C. Medication is delivered in precise dosages.
D. Rapid onset of medication action.

Back 6

D. Rapid onset of medication action.

Front 7

7. What systolic blood pressure is an indicator for the administration of diuretics as the first line of antihypertensive therapy?


A. 130-139 mmHG
B. 140-159 mmHG
C. 160-179 mmHG
D. 180-209 mmHG

Back 7

B. 140-159 mmHG

Front 8

8. What is the serum half-life (t1/2) of a drug?


A. Time period it takes for half of a drug dose to be absorbed.
B. Period of time after absorption for half of the drug to be eliminated.
C. Time frame for a drug to be effective.
D. Period of time for half of the drug dose to be completely distributed.

Back 8

B. Period of time after absorption for half of the drug to be eliminated.

Front 9

9. What is the major narcotic antagonist administered to a patient that has received an overdose of morphine sulphate (Morphine)?


A. pentazocine (Talwin).
B. (ibuprofen)Motrin.
C. naloxone (Narcan).
D. Benemid (probenecid).

Back 9

C. naloxone (Narcan)

Front 10

10. Which of the following side effects is a patient likely to experience from cardiac glycosides?

A. bradycardia.
B. tachycardia.
C. elevated blood pressure.
D. impaired liver function.

Back 10

A. bradycardia.

Front 11

11. When antibiotic therapy is to be continued after discharge, the nurse should be primarily concerned with the patient's understanding of:


A. the need for bed rest.
B. the need to complete the medication regimen.
C. The need for follow-up with the physician.

Back 11

B. the need to complete the medication regimen.

Front 12

12. Which of the following laboratory tests would give the best information to determine the effectiveness of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?

A. HIV RNA
B. Elisa
C. CD4 T count
D. PSA-CEA

Back 12

A. HIV RNA

Front 13

13. Your patient is receiving NPH insulin 15 units and Regular insulin 10 units. Using the same syringe, you will administer a total of:


A. 5 units
B. 20 units
C. 25 units
D. 35 units

Back 13

C. 25 units

Front 14

14. Inhaled glucocorticoids are contraindicated for patients with which of the following conditions?


A. Diabetes.
B. Pregnancy.
C. Sytemic fungal infections. D. Renal impairment.

Back 14

C. Sytemic fungal infections.

Front 15

15. What is the expected outcome when beta-adrenergic blockers are administered for hypertension?


A. Increased cardiac output.
B. Decreased cardiac workload.
C. Increased oxygen consumption.
D. Increased cardiac contractility.

Back 15

B. Decreased cardiac workload.

Front 16

16. What is the desired outcome for the chronic administration of Intal (Cromolyn sodium)?


A. Bronchial hyperreactivity.
B. Increased mucous production
C. Decreased bronchial inflammation and reactivity.
D. An increased heart rate.

Back 16

C. Decreased bronchial inflammation and reactivity.

Front 17

17. From which family of drugs is Atrovent (ipratropium) derived?


A. Opiates.
B. Steroids.
C. Xanthines.
D. Anticholinergics.

Back 17

D. Anticholinergics.

Front 18

18. What effect does age have on the creatinine clearance as an indicator of kidney function?


A. substantially increased in the elderly.
B. slightly increased in the elderly.
C. decreased in the elderly.
D. within normal range across the lifespan.

Back 18

C. decreased in the elderly.

Front 19

19. Which classification of laxatives is most commonly abused by the general public?


A. Bulk formers.
B. Surfactants.
C. Contact laxatives.
D. Saline laxatives.

Back 19

C. Contact laxatives.

Front 20

20. Which of the following adverse effects can be triggered by mucolytics?


A. Stimulation of respiratory secretions
B. Vasoconstriction.
C. Bronchial obstruction.
D. Sedation.

Back 20

C. Bronchial obstruction.

Front 21

21. When cimetidine (Tagamet) and antacids are both prescribed for a patient as anti-ulcer therapy, how should they be administered?


A. Both can be given at the same time.
B. At least 1 hour apart.
C. Give cimetidine (Tagament) before meals and antacids with meals.
D. Give cimetidine (Tagamet) at bedtime and antacids just before meals.

Back 21

B. At least 1 hour apart.

Front 22

22. A Heparin overdose may be treated by administering:


A. Aquamephyton (Vitamin K).
B. protamine zinc.
C. protamine sulfate
D. Amicar(aminocaproic acid)

Back 22

C. protamine sulfate

Front 23

23. What is the main reason for patient lack of compliance with antibiotic or antifungal therapy?


A. The cost of 7 days worth of medication.
B. Disappearance of symptoms within 2-3 days.
C. Severe perineal itching.
D. Gastrointestinal discomfort.

Back 23

B. Disappearance of symptoms within 2-3 days.

Front 24

24. Which of the following sequences refers to the 3 P's of of Diabetes Mellitus?

A. Excessive thirst, increased hunger and frequency of urination.
B. Excess weight gain, increased stress and decreased exercise tolerance.
C. Moon face, buffalo hump and edema.
D. Increased heart rate, increased irritability and decreased heat tolerance

Back 24

A. Excessive thirst, increased hunger and frequency of urination.

Front 25

25. Where does the major absorption of orally administered drugs take place?


A. Mouth.
B. Stomach.
C. Small intestines.
D. Large intestines.

Back 25

C. Small intestines.

Front 26

26. Name the process by which a drug is absorbed from the GI tract, metabolized by the liver to an inactive drug form, thus reducing the amount of active drug, is called:


A. Protein binding.
B. Passive absorption.
C. Hepatic first pass.
D. Pinocytosis.

Back 26

C. Hepatic first pass.

Front 27

27. Insulin dependent (IDDM) or juvenile diabetes is also referred to as Type II.


A. True.
B. False.

Back 27

B. False.

Front 28

28. If a vial of insulin contains 10 ml. and each ml. contains 100 units of insulin, how many units of insulin are in the vial to start with?


A. 100 units.
B. 1000 units
C. 10,000 units
D. 1,000,000 units

Back 28

B. 1000 units

Front 29

29. What serious side-effect can occur if a patient on monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI's) does not follow dietary restrictions?

A. Hypertensive crisis.
B. Hypotensive crisis.
C. Increased urinary output.
D. Decreased urinary output.

Back 29

A. Hypertensive crisis.

Front 30

30. Which of the following sequences are correct nursing actions when assessing the patient for edema?


A. Monitor lung sounds, assess pedal pulses and encourage fluid intake.
B. Monitor lung sounds, assess abdominal sounds and check lab results.
C. Monitor lung sounds, assess apical pulse and check lab results.
D. Monitor lung sounds, assess pedal pulses and check lab results.

Back 30

D. Monitor lung sounds, assess pedal pulses and check lab results.

Front 31

31. When do cell cycle specific agents affect the cell?


A. The entire cell cycle.
B. Mitotic division only.
C. One phase of the cell cycle.
D. Resting phase only.

Back 31

C. One phase of the cell cycle.

Front 32

32. What condition is Lithium (lithium carbonate) most effective in treating?


A. Reactive depression.
B. Schizophrenia.
C. Unipolar depression.
D. Bipolar affective disorder.

Back 32

D. Bipolar affective disorder.

Front 33

33. What category of drugs contains those that mimic acetylcholine?

A. Cholinergics.
B. Anticholinergics.
C. Adrenergics.
D. Adrenergic blockers.

Back 33

A. Cholinergics.

Front 34

34. Which of the following responses is the result of vasodilation caused by administering an alpha adrenergic blocker?


A. Increased blood pressure.
B. Decreased blood pressure.
C. decreased pulse rate.
D. rapid respirations.

Back 34

B. Decreased blood pressure.

Front 35

35. What effect do corticosteroids produce when they are administered to patients in respiratory failure?


A. Depress the CNS.
B. Reduce the respiratory rate.
C. Produce bronchodilation.
D. Reduce inflammation and mucous secretions.

Back 35

D. Reduce inflammation and mucous secretions.

Front 36

36. Which of the following group of patients should use over the counter antihistamines with caution?


A. Victims of Parkinson's disease.
B. Diabetics.
C. Allergic rhinitis sufferers.
D. Men with prostatic hypertrophy.

Back 36

D. Men with prostatic hypertrophy.

Front 37

37. Which of the following drug families has a high incidence of cross allergy with penicillins?


A. Tetracyclines.
B. Cephalosporins.
C. Erythromycins.
D. Sulfonamides.

Back 37

B. Cephalosporins.

Front 38

38. Why are oral hypoglycemic agents (antidiabetic agents) more effective for Type II diabetes?


A. Type II diabetics are lacking in endogenous insulin production.
B. Endogenous insulin production is decreased in Type II diabetics.
C. Type II diabetics have increased exogenous insulin production.
D. Decreased exogenous insulin production is the cause of Type II diabetes.

Back 38

B. Endogenous insulin production is decreased in Type II diabetics.

Front 39

39. Which of the following organisms is frequently responsible for superinfections during antibiotic therapy?


A. Streptococcus.
B. Candida
C. E. Coli.
D. Klebsiella.

Back 39

B. Candida

Front 40

40. What is the primary action of miotic agents like pilocarpine?

A. Contraction of the sphincter muscles of the iris.
B. Relaxation of the sphincter muscles of the iris.
C. To decrease intraocular pressure by acting as an ocular diuretic.
D. To act on the optic nerve to improve neural transmission of visual stimuli.

Back 40

A. Contraction of the sphincter muscles of the iris.

Front 41

41. Which neurotransmitter is lacking in patients suffering from Parkinsonism?


A. Acetylcholine.
B. Norepinephrine.
C. Dopamine.
D. Epinephrine.

Back 41

C. Dopamine.

Front 42

42. Your patient is placed on Fosamax (alendronate). This drug is given orally:


A. with meals three times a day (tid).
B. once daily (qd), early morning with full glass of water.
C. once daily (qd) with minimal fluids.
D. once daily at bedtime (qhs).

Back 42

B. once daily (qd), early morning with full glass of water.

Front 43

43. What is an expected outcome of diuretic therapy?


A. Weight gain of 5 pounds per week.
B. Increased dependent edema.
C. Increased urine output.
D. Fluid volume excess.

Back 43

C. Increased urine output.

Front 44

44. What is the cause of DI (diabetes insipidus)?


A. Damage to the kidneys.
B. Injury to the adrenal glands.
C. Malfunction of the pituitary gland.
D. Disorders of the pancreas.

Back 44

C. Malfunction of the pituitary gland.

Front 45

45. What is the main system that regulates fluid volume and osmolality?


A. Circulatory
B. Hepatic
C. Respiratory
D. Kidneys

Back 45

D. Kidneys

Front 46

46. Which of the following conditions requires the administration of short-acting Regular insulin?

A. A hyperglycemic reaction.
B. A hypoglycemic reaction.
C. To decrease carbohydrate and protein metabolism.
D. To increase blood glucose levels.

Back 46

B. A hyperglycemic reaction.

Front 47

47. Which of the following clients has the greatest risk of developing heart failure?


A. A 48-year-old black female who smokes.
B. A 69-year-old black male with hypertension.
C. A 75-year-old white male who smokes.
D. A 50-year-old white female with asthma.

Back 47

B. A 69-year-old black male with hypertension.

Front 48

48. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor for in a client who is taking furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin) together?


A. Hypercalcemia and hyperkalemia.
B. Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.
C. Hypermagnesia and hyponatremia.
D. Hyponatremia and increased plasma osmolality.

Back 48

B. Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.

Front 49

49. Which of the following symptoms would a client have who is suffering adverse side effects from digoxin (Lanoxin)?

A. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.
B. Tachycardia and hypotension.
C. Blurred vision and tachycardia.
D. Hypertension and irregular heartbeat.

Back 49

A. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.

Front 50

50. Which of the following findings would be important to assess for in a 56-year-old diabetic client who is taking a beta blocker for treatment of a dysrhythmia?


A. Hallucinations.
B. Pulse rate of 62 prior to administration of drug.
C. Client complains of being lightheaded and slightly nauseated.
D. Change in BP from 130/80 to 118/78 following medication administration.

Back 50

C. Client complains of being lightheaded and slightly nauseated.

Front 51

51. What would be the priority goal when taking care of a client who is on anticoagulant therapy?


A. Monitor for respiratory distress.
B. Prevent injury due to bleeding.
C. Assess cardiac rhythm.
D. Ensure a normal bowel pattern.

Back 51

B. Prevent injury due to bleeding.

Front 52

52. Which of the following lab values would indicate that a client being treated for a DVT should have the warfarin (Coumadin) dosage reduced?


A. INR 0.5
B. INR of 2
C. INR of 3
D. INR 5

Back 52

D. INR 5

Front 53

53. Which of the following medications could be utilized to prevent potential thrombus formation in a client with a diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease?


A. Low molecular weight heparin.
B. Pentoxifylline (Trental).
C. Desmopressin (DDAVP).
D. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).

Back 53

B. Pentoxifylline (Trental).

Front 54

54. What should the nurse tell a client who is taking medications for glaucoma and asks what OTC medication she can take for her allergic rhinitis?


A. Take an antihistamine but avoid decongestants.
B. You can take most decongestants but will need to avoid antihistamines.
C. You will need to avoid using both decongestants and antihistamines.
D. Use nasal sprays instead of oral preparations.

Back 54

C. You will need to avoid using both decongestants and antihistamines.

Front 55

55. Which statement indicates that the client has understood instructions about removing cerumen from his ears?


A. I will instill 2% acetic acid in my ear.
B. I will use a sterile tip applicator.
C. I will use warm water and a bulb syringe to loosen the wax.
D. I will take a hot shower to facilitate drainage.

Back 55

C. I will use warm water and a bulb syringe to loosen the wax.

Front 56

56. Which statement indicates the client has understood the nurse's teaching about the treatment of glaucoma?

A. I must use my eye drops as prescribed for the rest of my life.
B. When my eyes feel better, I can stop using the eye drops.
C. I will use my eye drops when my eyes feel uncomfortable.
D. I will need to continually increase the dose of my eye drops.

Back 56

A. I must use my eye drops as prescribed for the rest of my life.

Front 57

57. Which nursing action is the most important when administering lindane (Kwell)?


A. Apply the medication topically to the affected area.
B. Leave the medication on the body for 24 hours.
C. Leave the medication on the body for 8 - 12 hours.
D. Apply the medication twice so that it will be effective.

Back 57

C. Leave the medication on the body for 8 - 12 hours.

Front 58

58. What condition is a risk for a client recieiving a non-selective beta adrenergic blocking drug?


A. Hypertension.
B. Acute myocardial infarction.
C. Bronchoconstriction.
D. Atrial fibrillation.

Back 58

Bronchoconstriction.

Front 59

59. What is an important assessment for the nurse to make before administering any anticholinergic drug?

A. Difficulty urinating.
B. Mental illness.
C. Light sensitivity.
D. History of alcoholism.

Back 59

. Difficulty urinating

Front 60

60. Which statement by a client would indicate a side effect of an adrenergic drug?


A. I'm sleepy, nurse. Can you come back later for my exercises?
B. I feel so nervous I can't sleep.
C. I'm so thirsty I can't sleep.
D. Look at my pupils, they are so small I can't see as well.

Back 60

B. I feel so nervous I can't sleep.

Front 61

61. Which of the following agents is classified as an anti-platelet aggregate?

A. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
B. Coumadin (waarfarin sodium)
C. Activase (alteplase recombinant)
D. Amicar (aminocaproic acid)

Back 61

A. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

Front 62

62. Which of the following classifications of drugs is responsible for the prevention of blood clot formation?


A. Antithrombolytic agents
B. Thromboembolic agents
C. Anticoagulating agents
D. Hemostatic agents

Back 62

C. Anticoagulating agents

Front 63

63. Which of the following laboratory tests is used to monitor the effectiveness of the parenteral anticoagulant Heparin (heparin sodium)?


A. International normalized ratio (INR)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin (APTT)
C. Bleeding time (BT)
D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Back 63

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin (APTT)

Front 64

64. Alcohol use with Isoniazid (INH), an antitubercular drug,is contraindicated because:


A. it can cause severe CNS depression.
B. it can induce hepatitis.
C. it aids in developing resistance.
D. it aids in rapid drug metabolism.

Back 64

B. it can induce hepatitis.

Front 65

65. Five to 10% of patients who are allergic to penicillin also display a cross-sensitivity to:


A. Tetracyclines.
B. Macrolides.
C. Aminoglycosides.
D. Cephalosporins.

Back 65

D. Cephalosporins.

Front 66

66. The following statement by your patient with HIV leads you to believe that he has understood your teaching regarding zidovudine (AZT), a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.


A. "This medication inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease."
B. "This medication may result in resistant viral strains when repeated treatments are used."
C. "This medication slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it."
D. "This medication prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections."

Back 66

C. "This medication slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it."

Front 67

67. What teaching point needs to be emphasized to the AIDS client who has been started on a treatment regimen?


A. Report every side effect you experience to your physician
B. Taking medications regularly without missing doses is vital to successful treatment.
C. Medications need to be taken on an empty stomach to promote their absorption.
D. Careful adherence to the treatment schedule will result in curing the disease.

Back 67

B. Taking medications regularly without missing doses is vital to successful treatment.

Front 68

68. The CDC categorized biological threats based on their potential:


1. loss of life.
2. cost of treatment.
3. adverse effects.
4. impact on public health.

Back 68

4. impact on public health.

Front 69

69. Which of the following class of drugs binds to the parietal cells in the stomach to reduce gastric acid amounts?


1. Antacids
2. Proton pump inhibitors
3. H2 receptor antagonists
4. Serotonin receptor antagonists

Back 69

3. H2 receptor antagonists

Front 70

70. Which of the following factors should be taken into consideration when administering Gemfibrozil (Lopid), a fibric acid agent, to a client in the clinical setting?

A. This medication should not be given in conjunction with other medications.
B. This medication should only be given in conjunction with a statin in order to be effective.
C. This medication requires serum monitoring levels to be drawn on a weekly basis so that the dose can be titrated.
D. The mediation has limited effects on triglyceride levels and therefore additional therapy may be warranted.

Back 70

A. This medication should not be given in conjunction with other medications.

Front 71

71. The major reason for increased chance of harm to patients from anticancer drugs is:


A. Their ability to kill target cells.
B. Their increased selectivity.
C. Their damage to the hair follicles.
D. Their lack of selectivity.

Back 71

D. Their lack of selectivity

Front 72

72. The principal indication for Nolvadex (tamoxifen), an estrogen blocker, is:


A. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
B. Breast Cancer.
C. Colon cancer.
D. Prostate cancer.

Back 72

B. Breast Cancer.

Front 73

73. Antihistamines are considered to be:


A. H1 receptor agonists
B. H1 receptor antagonists
C. H1 receptor anticholinergic
D. Steroidal antiinflammatory

Back 73

B. H1 receptor antagonists

Front 74

74. Glucocorticoids are effective in treating:


A. only chronic infections
B. electrolyte imbalances and osteoporosis
C. diabetic infections and inflammations
D. acute or severe inflammations

Back 74

D. acute or severe inflammations

Front 75

75. A "Statin" or HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitor like atorvastatin (Lipitor) is the first drug of choice to reduce lipid levels because it also:


A. positively affect lifestyle changes
B. reduce progression of coronary artery disease
C. have no side effects
D. belong to category X drugs

Back 75

B. reduce progression of coronary artery disease

Front 76

76. A common side effect(s) of nitrate antianginal agents is (are):


A. muscle tremors.
B. ototoxicity.
C. hematological disorders.
D. postural hypotension.

Back 76

D. postural hypotension.

Front 77

77. Cardiac glycosides are effective in the treatment of heart failure because they are:


A. chronotropic
B. dromotropic
C. refractory
D. ionotropic

Back 77

D. ionotropic

Front 78

78. Heart failure is a malfunction of cardiac:


A. rate
B. contractility
C. automaticity
D. rhythm

Back 78

B. contractility

Front 79

79. The cause of blindness in Glaucoma is generally related to:


A. misdiagnosis
B. increased intraocular pressure (IOP)
C. lack of sterility during med administration
D. wrong choice of medications

Back 79

B. increased intraocular pressure (IOP)

Front 80

80. The usual protocol for acute anginal attacks is:

A. one nitroglycerin tablet sublinually up to three tablets, one every five minutes; call 911 after 3rd tablet if pain does not subside.
B. three nitroglycerin tablets sublingually, followed by three additional tablets; call 911 if pain not relieved.
C. one nitroglycerine tablet after calling 911.
D. client reports episodes of anginal pain to physian before taking nitroglycerine.

Back 80

A. one nitroglycerin tablet sublinually up to three tablets, one every five minutes; call 911 after 3rd tablet if pain does not subside.

Front 81

81. Folacin (folic acid) is necessary in pregnancy because:


A. It is a fat soluble vitamin and cannot cross the placental barrier.
B. it decreases the risk of fetal abortion or defects.
C. it raises the iron level necessary to prevent anemia in mother and child.
D. it prevents early labor especially in the first pregnancy.

Back 81

B. it decreases the risk of fetal abortion or defects.

Front 82

82. Hyperthyroidism (Graves' Disease) can be treated by surgical removal or the administration of which of the following drugs?


A. Synthroid (levothyroxine).
B. PTU (propylthiouracil).
C. Liotrix (levothyroxine and liothyronine mixed).
D. PTH (parathyroid hormone).

Back 82

B. PTU (propylthiouracil).

Front 83

83. Insulin production is stimulated in the pancreas by:


A. low levels of Glucagon in the blood
B. Hypoglycemia
C. presence of duodenal enzymes
D. Hyperglycemia

Back 83

D. Hyperglycemia

Front 84

84. Oversecretion of thyroxine results in:


A. hypothyroidism or cretinism.
B. hypoadrenalism or Addison's disease.
C. hyperadrenalism or Cushing's disease
D. hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease.

Back 84

D. hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease.

Front 85

85. Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis) are:

A. tachycardia, nervousness, weight loss and bulging eyes.
B. bradycardia, lethargy, weight gain.
C. thirst, increased urinary output, headache.
D. muscle twitching, cramps, tremors.

Back 85

A. tachycardia, nervousness, weight loss and bulging eyes.

Front 86

86. Type 2 diabetics are frequently treated with oral hypoglycemics because:


A. older clients respond well to oral medications
B. cholesterol levels are lower in the older client
C. older clients cannot follow a dietary regimen
D. the pancreas still produces some endogenous insulin

Back 86

. the pancreas still produces some endogenous insulin

Front 87

87. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when taking care of a client who has been diagnosed with diabetes insipidus?


A. Fluid volume excess.
B. Altered urinary elimination.
C. Family coping
D. Ineffective coping.

Back 87

B. Altered urinary elimination.

Front 88

88. Which of the following is an expected consequence of being treated with radioactive iodine (Iodine-131) therapy?

A. The client may need thyroid replacement therapy.
B. Accomplishment of the euthyroid state is only temporary.
C. Physical distancing is not required as there are few effects from the radioactive nature of the therapy.
D. Pregnant clients respond favorably to this type of treatment.

Back 88

A. The client may need thyroid replacement therapy.

Front 89

89. Before administering a sympathomimetic ophthalmic medication, the nurse would need to assess the client for which pre-existing condition?


A. low blood pressure
B. constricted pupil
C. decreased heart rate
D. high blood pressure

Back 89

D. high blood pressure

Front 90

90. Dilation of the pupil results in a condition known as:


A. miosis
B. mydriasis
C. cycloplegia
D. presbycusis

Back 90

B. mydriasis

Front 91

91. The basic course of treatment for ear infection is:


A. corticosteroids
B. daily irrigations
C. ear wax removers
D. antibiotics

Back 91

D. antibiotics

Front 92

92. The major complication of sunburn is:


A. the development of freckles
B. damage to nerve endings
C. skin cancer
D. pain and discomfort

Back 92

C. skin cancer

Front 93

93. A common ingredient in over-the-counter (OTCs), antitussive medications for children is:


A. Dilaudid (hydromorphone).
B. Mucomyst (acetylcisteine).
C. Codeine (codeine sulfate).
D. DM (dextromethorphan).

Back 93

D. DM (dextromethorphan).

Front 94

94. Bronchodilators are classified as sympathomimetics or adrenergics. Their action is to:


A. depress the sympathetic nervous system.
B. increase diuresis.
C. improve respiratory drive.
D. relax smooth muscle.

Back 94

D. relax smooth muscle.

Front 95

95. Individuals with hypertension should not use oral or nasal decongestants because:

A. vasoconstriction may be hazardous.
B. hypotension may cause dizziness.
C. sodium retention may occur.
D. sedation may be profound.

Back 95

A. vasoconstriction may be hazardous.

Front 96

96. Medications delivered via metered dose inhalers or nebulizers are most effective because they:


A. use propellants to deliver a measured dose
B. are dry powder preparations
C. deliver medication directly to the site of the problem
D. are intentionally inhaled

Back 96

C. deliver medication directly to the site of the problem

Front 97

97. The expected outcome for patients on mucolytics such as Mucomyst (acetylcysteine) is:


A. increased sputum viscosity.
B. increased force of cough.
C. decreased sputum viscosity.
D. increased cough reflex.

Back 97

C. decreased sputum viscosity.
D. increased cough reflex.

Front 98

98. Acne preparations should not be used by pregnant women because absorption through the skin could cause:


1. a pruritic rash.
2. teratogenic effects.
3. epileptic-like seizures.
4. balance disturbances.

Back 98

2. teratogenic effects.

Front 99

99. Vitamin C is essential for repair of body tissues. It is considered to be:


A. an oxidizing vitamin
B. water soluble
C. a pro-vitamin
D. fat soluble

Back 99

B. water soluble

Front 100

100. Vitamin K (Synkavite) is an antidote for which anticoagulant?

A. Oral anticoaguants, Coumadin (warfarin).
B. Parenteral anticoagulants, Heparin or Lovenox.
C. Aminoglycoside antibiotics, gentamycin or garamycin.
D. Antivirals like zovirax or retrovir.

Back 100

A. Oral anticoaguants, Coumadin (warfarin).

Front 101

101. A hypoglycemic event must be treated immediately with an antidiabetic agent.


A. True.
B. False.

Back 101

B. False.