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175 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
increased LAP
pulmonary HTN
systolic function and contractility relatively normal
Mitral stenosis
decreased LV afterload
increased LV preload
dilatation of LV leading to eccentric hypertrophy
chronic mitral regurge
sudden rupture of chordae tendinae after MI
massive increase in LAP
acute mitral regurge
LV concentric hypertrophy
Dilatation eventually develops when hypertrophy no longer sustains CO
leads to increased EDP
Aortic stenosis
increased LV EDV (increased preload)
LV eccentric hypertrophy
chronic aortic regurge
massive increase in LVEDV due to infectious endocarditis
acute aortic regurge
initial compensatory mechanism is LA and pulmonary hypertrophy
mitral stenosis
initial compensatory mechanisms are:
decreased LV afterload
increased preload
eccentric hypertrophy
chronic mitral regurge
initial compensatory mechanism is LV concentric hypertrophy
aortic stenosis
initial compensatory mechanism is increased LV EDV
chronic aortic regurge
physiology leading to dyspnea on exertion for mitral stenosis
tachycardia and increased CO decrease diastolic filling time leading to increased LAP --> pulmonary congestion
physiology leading to dyspnea on exertion in chronic mitral regurge
increased LV afterload decreases SV with increases LAV which increases LAP leading to pulmonary congestion
classic triad of symptoms seen in aortic stenosis
angina
dyspnea on exertion
syncope with physical exertion
physiology leading to angina and COE in aortic stenosis
angina - increased O2 consumption from concentric hypertrophy
DOE - increased LVEDP from overstretched ventricle after dilatation sets in leads to increased LAP and pulmonary congestion
physiology leading to angina and DOE in chronic aortic regurge
angina - decreased coronary perfusion due to blood being diverted away from ostia
DOE - pulmonary congestion from increased SVR (increased adrenergic tone)
differentiate pressure-volume curves in acute mitral/aortic regurge vs. chronic mitral/aortic regurge
chronic - increased LV volume to dilatation from increased regurgitant flow
acute - minimal increase in LV volume because no time to dilate
which sort of hypertrophy increases myocardial oxygen consumption more
concentric - therefore pressure overloading situations are more likely to develop angina (aortic stenosis)
differentiate things that increase the intensity of murmurs heard in HCM vs. MVP
both murmurs are increased when LV volume is decreased (increase contractility and decrease preload)
however when there is a decrease in afterload the HCM murmur is increased (increased blood flow across the stenotic area) but decreased in MVP because less regurgitant flow backwards
enlarged LA that is compressing the esophagus and enlarged RV seen on x-ray
mitral stenosis
enlarged LA and LV seen on x-ray
mitral regurge
how can you tell that a LA is enlarged on x-ray
there is an added bump on the right side of the x-ray (left side of the body) - usually there are only 3 bumps now there are 4
boot-shaped heart due to hypertrophied LV seen on x-ray
aortic stenosis
massive enlarged heart >1/2 the width of the thoracic cavity seen on x-ray
aortic regurge
differentiate the cause for ischemia in patients with aortic stenosis vs. regurge
stenosis - concentric hypertrophy increases myocardial oxygen consumption and occludes intramural coronary arteries
regurge - blood is diverted away from coronary ostia back into the LV
drug of choice for chronic mitral regurge
Hydrazoline to lower afterload so pulmonary edema doesn't occur
this valvular disease can be confused with anxiety
MVP due to increased adrenergic tone
valvular disease due to active inflammatory process similar to coronary athersclerosis
aortic stenosis
increased in this acute phase protein seen in this valvular disease
aortic stenosis
most common causes of chronic aortic regurge
essential hypertension
bicuspic aortic valve
exercise might have a paradoxical effect in this valvular heart disease
chronic aortic regurge:
increase in HR - decrease time in diastole
vasodilate - decrease SVR
drug of choice for chronic aortic regurge
hydrazoline
what is indicated if an austin-flint murmur is heard in chronic aortic regurge
indicates severe regurge
double product
HR x systolic BP
major determinant of coronary perfusion pressure
aortic pressure
equation for coronary flow
Q = (aortic diastolic pressure - RAP)/coronary resistance
important determinants of coronary perfusion
aortic pressure
time spent in diastole
RAP
coronary resistance
most important determinant of coronary artery resistance
autoregulation
myogenic autoregulation mechanism
stretching of the vessel leads to opening membrane calcium channel which cause vascular smooth muscle constriction
chemical autoregulation mechanism from increased metabolism
increased ATP breakdown leads to increased adenosine, binds to A2 receptors which close L-type Ca channels and decreased ATP opens Katp channels leading to K efflux - all leads to vasodilation
characteristics of NO
produced from L-arginine
increases cGMP
opening membrane K channel to depolarize and relax smooth muscle
what would beta blockers do to coronary flow
inhibit B2 mediated vasodilation and lead to mild vasoconstriction due to unopposed a-1 mediated activity
differentiate myocardial stunning vs. reperfusion injury
stunning - acute, but brief episode of severe ischemia leading to reversible contractile dysfunction due to increased intracellular calcium
reperfusion injury - irreversible necrosis after restoration of blood flow following acute ischemic event due to increased intracellular calcium overload (much more than stunning)
irreversible systolic dysfunction and contraction band necrosis seen with this
reperfusion injury
increase intracellular calcium overload seen in reperfusion injury leads to what
uncouple oxidate phosphorylation - decreases ATP synthesis
activates proteolytic enzymes
conversion of xanthine dehydrogenase to xanthine oxidase
metabolism switching due to myocardial ischemia
specific receptors involved
from fatty acid metabolism to glucose
upregulate PPAR-gamma (glucose)
down-regulate PPAR-alpha (fatty acid)
physiologic basis for hydropic swelling seen in myocardial ischemia
decreased ATP leads to increased [Na]
increased [H] (from increased lactic acid from anaerobic glycolysis) also leads to increased [Na]
increased [Na] increases 3Na/Ca exchange reversal leading to increased [Ca]
what problem is seen first in myocardial ischemia
diastolic dysfunction - which leads to pulmonary congestion
drug of choice for diastolic dysfunction in myocardial ischemia
Ca channel blocker
different difference seen on EKG between subendocardial and transmural ischemia
subendocardial - No ST elevation
transmural - ST elevation seen on EKG
significant Q waves seen in leads I, V2, V3, and V4
Anterior MI
occlusion of LAD
significant Q waves seen in leads, II, III, and AVF
Inferior MI
occlusion of RCA
significant Q waves seen in leads V5, V6, AVL
Lateral MI
occlusion of Left Circumflex
uncomplicated, thick fibrous-capped atherosclerotic plaqe produced fix obstruction
chronic stable angina
complicated, thick-fibrous-capped atherosclerotic plaque ruptured and form a thrombus along with vasoconstriction
unstable angina
spasm of large epicardial coronary artery
variant angina
low cardiac output and increased PAWP >22 mmHg follow an MI
LCA occlusion leads to LV infarction and cardiogenic shock ensued due to >40% of ventricle being damaged
increased JVP and decreased PAWP following an MI
RCA occlusion leading to RV infarction and cardiogenic shock ensued due to >40% of ventricle being damaged
New holosystolic murmur with increased oxygenation seen in the RV following an MI
septal infarction with septal rupture due to LAD occlusion and anterior MI
acute mitral regurge following an MI
posterior papillary muscle rupture from posterior descending branch of RCA occluded
equalization of diastolic pressures across all four chambers with systemic hypotension and elevated JVP following an MI
ventricular free wall rupture with tamponade from anteriolateral MI from occlusion of Left circumflex artery
how endothelin-1 leads to vasoconstriction
activates ET-A receptors in vascular smooth muscle - increases phosphlipase C - increased IP3 which increases calcium to production constriction
different what B-agonists and digoxin seen in myocardial stunning vs. reperfusion injury
stunning - B-agonists and digoxin overcome dysfunction
reperfusion injury - B-agonists and digoxin do nothing, irreversible dysfunction
where is ischemia first noted in the myocardium
subendocardial myocardium because area futhest from epicardial arteries
what does binding of oxidized-LDL lead to
activates NF-kB cascade
decreases NO production
increases endothelin-1 production
NF-kB cascade
increases TNF-a
increases xanthine oxidase
increases cell adhesion molecules- which bind T cells and monocytes
what does binding of T cells and monocytes via upregulation of cell adhesion molecules lead to
T cells cause smooth muscle proliferation
Monocytes cross endothelium into subintimal space and ingest oxidized-LDL to become foam cells
Th1 predominates during atherosclerosis
thin fibrous-capped plaque - unstable angina and MI
Th2 predominates during atherosclerosis
thick fibrous-capped plaque - chronic stable angina
infection associated with atherosclerosis
chlamydia pneumoniae
activated T cells and macrophages produce what
IL-6 which increases CRP production
good marker for presence of coronary artery disease
what is released by platelets activating vasoconstriction
thromboxane A2
differentiate STEMI and NSTEMI
STEMI - thrombus completely obstructs artery for 30 minutes
NSTEMI - thrombus partially obstructs or fully obstructs for less than 30 minutes
good chemical mediator of angina
adenosine - accumulates during ischemia
ST segment depression
chronic stable angina
unstable angina
ST segment elevation
variant angina
STEMI
distinguish ST elevation in the timeline of an MI
2 hours - ST elevated
1-2 days - decreased ST elevation
1 week - No ST elevation
how long does it take for significant Q waves to show up on EKG following an MI
Few hours
Leads V1, V2, and V3 have large R waves
Posterior MI
occlusion of post. descending branch of RCA
differentiate treatment of LV and RV cardiogenic shock
LV - diuretic
RV - isotonic fluid
type of hypertension that has an identifiable cause for hypertension
secondary
this leads to secondary hyperaldosteronism due to an increase in the RAAS system
overactivity of RAAS from stenotic renal artery
two ways to get renovascular hypertension
atherosclerotic disease - older individual
fibromuscular dysplasia - young women
characteristics of renovascular hypertension
1. early in the disease abnormally high plasma aldosterone, Na retention and hypokalemia
2. later the non-stenotic kidney hypertrophies and urinary Na excretion increases but the hypokalemia persists
3. bruits
4. unprovoked hypokalemia
hypertension develops prior to age 30 or after age 50
what should you think of in a patient who's serum creatinine concentration increases >50% within 1 month of starting treatment of ARB or ACE Inhibitors
bilateral renal artery stenosis
How to diagnose renovascular hypertension
Low plasma renin activity excludes diagnosis
administration of captopril causes plasma activity to increase >150% instead or remaining normal or slightly increased
most common cause of secondary hypertension in the US
chronic kidney disease
two reasons why chronic kidney disease causes hypertension
increased plasma volume
systemic vasoconstriction
when should you suspect chronic kidney disease in a patient with hypertension
decreased renal function
following recurrent UTIs
anatomically small kidneys
first-line agents used to treat hypertension in chronic kidney disease
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
Diuretics can be used but must be in high concentrations and some are ineffective when creatinine rises above certain levels
what must be monitored for in patients taking ACE inhibitors or ARBs to treat hypertension in chronic kidney disease
hyperkalemia
because aldosterone is knocked out to excrete K
Conn syndrome
two most common causes
primary hyperaldosteronism
solitary adrenal adenoma
bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Lab findings in primary hyperaldosteronism
unprovoked hypokalemia (in absence of diuretics)
metabolic alkalosis
low plasma renin
increased serum aldosterone
is the volume retention severe in patients with Conn syndrome
No, because hypervolemia stimulates the release of ANP and BNP to return Na excretion back to normal
differentiate primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism
primary will have an increased ratio of serum aldosterone concentration to plasma renin activity because the increased aldosterone suppresses the renin activity
secondary will have increased renin activity and aldosterone due to the ischemic kidney increasing renin release
patient presents with hypertension, but pressure-lowering drugs are ineffective. His serum aldosterone to plasma renin activity is greater than 20:1.
primary hyperaldosteronism
this disease has ACTH provoking aldosterone release
glucocorticoid-remedial aldosteronism
what two things usually control release of aldosterone
serum [K]
ATN II
treatment used in glucocorticoid-remedial aldosteronism
glucocorticoid administration - reduces ACTH secretion to decrease aldosterone secretion in the zona fasciculata
what enzyme deactivates cortisol --> cortisone
11B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
this hormone has the same affinity for aldosterone receptors as aldosterone
cortisol
what three things can cause syndrome of apparent mineralcorticoid excess (SAME)
mutation in 11B-HSD2
black licorice
chewing tobacco
findings in SAME
change in 11B-HSD2 activity
hypokelemia
metabolic alkalosis
decreased plasma renin, ATN II, and Aldosterone
what is used to correct SAME
ARBs
sprinolactone
what are the lab findings in a patient with SAME
normal serum cortisol levels
increased ratio of cortisol-to-cortisone metabolites in urine is HALLMARK
Cushing syndrome
glucocorticoid excess
truncal obesity, thin extremities, moon face, cervical buffalo hump
common cause of cushing syndrome
chronic glucocorticoid administration
What does excess glucocorticoid present with clinically
1. cortisol stimulates angiotensinogen synthesis leading to increased RAAS activity
2. down regulates NOS
3. make vasopressors more affective
both of these increase vasoconstriction
4. cortisol also directly stimulates aldosterone receptor
if you seen a patient with hypertension and diabetes mellitus that developed simultaneously you should suspect what
Cushing syndrome
autosomal dominant disorder that has hyperactivity of ENaC in cortical collecting tubules
Liddle syndrome (psuedohyperaldosteronism)
salt-sensitive hypertension with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
Liddle syndrome
two agents that block the overactive ENaC
amiloride
triamterene
why does overactive ENaC lead to hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
because increased Na reabsorption without reabsorbing Cl leaves an electrical gradient in which K and H are dumped into the lumen to correct this gradient
differentiate epinephrine or norepinephrine mediated pheochromocytoma
epinephrine - (B1-mediated), systolic hypertension, sweating, flushing, tachycardia, anxiety, located within adrenal glands
norepinephrine - (a1-mediated), diastolic hypertension, pallor, orthostatic hypotension, usually extra-adrenal location
what should always be checked in patients diagnosed with pheochromocytoma
change in [Ca] due to thyroid or parathyroid tumors
what other endocrine tumors are associated with pheochromocytoma
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
parathyroid adenoma
what is a better diagnostic tool to look diagnosing pheochromocytoma than metanephrine and normetanephrine
Chromogranin A
associated with increased angiotensinogen synthesis and peripheral insulin resistance causing hyperinsulinemia
estrogen in oral contraceptive-induced hypertension
can cause both systolic and pulmonary HTN in non-obese patients
obstructive sleep apnea
associated with family history of cerebral hemorrhages, low renin, ATN II, and aldosterone
glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism
what two factors control release of renin by the JG cell
increased cAMP
decreased [Ca]
What does the Macula Densa detect in the TAL
what two ways does it regular renin release
Chloride
decreased [Cl] detection by MD leads to release of PGE2 and NO to increase renin release
increased [Cl] detection by MD leads to increased ATP, increased adenosine which decreases renin release
differentiate A1 and A2 receptors for adenosine
A1 found in the nephron which when bound leads to vasoconstriction of afferent arteriole
A2 is found in the heart which when bound leads to vasodilation in the coronary arteries
what does an increase in DAG lead to
stimulates Na/H exchange leading to alkalosis which leads to VSM hypertrophy and vasoconstriction
why is prorenin harmful
binds to receptors in myocardium leading to cardiac remodeling, hypertrophy, and fibrosis
what patients produce increased amounts of prorenin
diabetics
aliskiren
blocks enzymatic activity of renin (angiotensinogen --> ATN I)
drug of choice in patients with high plasma renin activity and decreased ECF
ACE inhibitors
drug of choice in patients with low plasma renin activity and increased plasma volume
diuretics
three drugs that improve large artery compliance in systolic HTN of the elderly
nitrates
ACE inhibitors - increase bradykinin and decrease ATN II
thiazide diuretics - decrease Na reabsorption
releases cytokines for insuline resistance in skeletal muscle
visceral fat
why do ACE inhibitors work in african american patients with HTN and low plasma renin
because they have decreased levels of bradykinin and ACE inhibitor will increase their bradykinin level - vasodilato, diuretic, and natriuretic
this drug has uricosuric properties that can be useful in patients with hyperuricemia
Losartan - ATN II receptor blocker
what does chronic hypokalemia lead to
1. vasoconstriction - closing of K channels leads to depolarization and an increase in [Ca] intracellularly
2. decrease urinary Na excretion due to increase Na/H exchange
3. increases renin secretion
decreased plasma Ca leads to what
increased PTH - inhibits Na/K ATPase
increased 1,25-(OH)2 vitamin D - increases Ca uptake by VSM cells
mutation in Adducin gene
increases activity of Na/K ATPase leading to decreased urinary Na excretion making some Japanese more salt-sensitive
main cause of supraventricular tachycardia
AV nodal reentry arrhythmias
this class of drugs shortens the QT interval by shortening phase 2
calcium channel blockers
why can't fast Na channels contribute to slow response action potentials
because the resting membrane potential in slow-response is not low enough to activate fast sodium channels (slow is found at -60mV)
how does sympathetic activity increase SA node firing rate
increases both Na and Ca inward current - shortens phase 4
how does parasympathetic activity decrease SA node firing rate
decreases inward Na and increases outward delayed rectifier K current - increases phase 4
when can a smaller than normal depolarizing stimulus initiate and propogate a new action potential
supranormal period is after phase 3 and the beginning of phase 4
prolongation of the QT interval can lead to what
early afterdepolarizations (EAD)
what can precipitate a delayed afterdepolarization (DAD)
increase in cytoplasmic [Ca]
digoxin toxicity
catecholamine excess
HF
class of drugs that prolong the action potential and can cause EADs (torsades de pointes)
Class IA antiarrhythmics
most likely cause of ventricular tachycardia in patients with long QT syndrome
EADs
most common mechanism responsible for tachyarrhythmias
Re-entry
three necessary requirements for re-entry tachyarrhythmias to develop
unidirectional block
slow conduction in one part of the cirtcuit
differences in refractoriness between the two different circuits
what initiates a re-entrant arrhythmia
premature impulse
two drugs that can terminate re-entrant supraventricular tachycardia
adenosine
verapamil
does adenosine help treat functional re-entrant tachycardias
No
what leads to the development of a functional re-entrant tachycardia
myocardial ischemia
what is lyme disease associated with
decreased AV conduction
what MI can lead to impaired AV conduction
anterior MI due to thrombus in LAD
most well tolerated valvular disease
chronic mitral regurge
symptoms present indicate the the regurge is bad
better indicator for chronic aortic stenosis than systolic blood pressure
LV ESP is more accurate
when does syncope during physical exertion develop in aortic stenosis
when LV systolic dysfunction declines and CO falls below a level necessary to maintain perfusion
systemic vasodilation also contributes to syncope due to build-up of local metabolites in poorly perfused tissues
differentiate when S4 and S3 are present
S4 - indicates ventricular hypertrophy
S3 - indicates ventricular dilatation
why is the diastolic blood pressure less than normal in chronic aortic regurge
portion of CO returns to the LV from the aorta
build-up of local metabolites in poorly perfused tissues decrease SVR
differentiate the presence of a S3 heard in a person with chronic aortic vs. mitral regurge
aortic - S3 indicates presence of LV dysfunction
mitral - S3 does not indicate severity or regurge
why is the pulse pressure in acute aortic regurge normal - not wide seen in chornic aortic regurge
because the stroke volume does not increase like chornic therefore systolic pressure is increased
and diastolic pressure cannot drop below the very elevated LV EDP due to the massive regurge blood coming back into the LV
when is oxygen demand highest and lowest in the heart
highest - during isovolemic contraction
lowest - late diastolic filling
a process that matches coronary resistance and blood flow to metabolic activity of the myocardium
autoregulation
what are the anti-atherogenic properties of NO
inhibit lipid peroxidation
inhibit platelet activation and aggregation
inhibit monocyte adhesion
inhibit VSM proliferation
what happens during ischemic episodes when increased intracellular [Na] occur
1. increased [Na] leads to myocardiocytes beginning to spontaneously depolarize
2. Also this upregulates Na/Ca exchange bringing in more Ca leading to decreased myocardial ATP synthesis and ultimately diastolic dysfunction by decreasing Ca uptake from SR
differentiate NSTEMI and unstable angina - both are due to partial obstruction of coronary artery or fully occluded coronary artery for less than 30 minutes
NSTEMI - myocardial infarction limited to subendocardial myocardium
unstable angina - subendocardial ischemia from ruptured plaque that lead to thrombis formation and vasoconstriction
5 ways to get a coronary artery spasm
1. polymphism in genes that produce endothelial NOS
2. polymorphisms in genes that decrease a2 or B2 receptors function
3. parasympathetic hypoactivity
4. overactivity of GTP rho-kinase - leads to increased sensitivity of VSM to calcium
5. cocain and amphetamine use
mechanism for myocardial ischemia in patients with anemia, hyperthryoidism or severe aortic stenosis
increased myocardial oxygen demand in combination with moderate epicardial coronary artery stenosis
differentiate effective and relative refractory period
effect - larger than normal stimulus may cause additional depolarizations, but unable to generate a new axn potential
relative - larger than normal stimulus is capable of generation a new propogated axn potential
wolf-parkinson-white syndrome
anatomical re-entrant circuits around the AV node
ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation in the setting of myocardial ischemia is most likely do to what
functional re-entry circuits
what are the effects of increased aldosterone
increased CO - aldosterone increases the number of Ca channels in ventricular myocardiocytes
elevated systemic vascular resistance - aldosterone stimulates Na uptake by VSM leading to increased [Ca] and hypertrophy via alkalosis
mild increase in ECF volume - the increased Na reabsorption is limited due to release of ANP and BNP
chronic hypokalemia
chronic metabolis alkalosis
patient presents with hypertension, low renin, high ATN II, and normal aldosterone levels
Cushing syndrome
effects of excessive cortisol
1. stimulates angiotensinogen synthesis by liver --> increases ATN II levels
2. increase VSM tone by making vasopressors more affective
3. activates aldosterone receptor
4. decreases plasma renin due to increased Na reabsorption
5. aldosterone levels remain normal
differentiate increase in VMA or metanephrine in the urine
VMA - norepinephrine secreting pheochromocytoma
metanephrine - epinephrine secreting pheochromocytoma
what two things increased angiotensinogen synthesis in the liver
estrogen oral-contraceptives
cortisol