Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
143 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what are osteoblasts? |
cells on any bone surface that produce bone matrix, initiate mineralization and initiate bone resorption |
|
what is the appearance of an active osteoblast? |
plump, lots of cytoplasm, RER, golgi and mitochondria |
|
how can osteoblast activity be indirectly measured? |
AlkPhos |
|
what is osteoid? |
bone matrix |
|
what is AlkPhos? |
alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme on the surface of osteoblasts. function unk, but has role in mineralization and pumping calcium across cell membranes. |
|
what is osteocalcin? |
protein secreted by osteoblast. found in bone matrix. correlates with osteoblast synthetic activity. |
|
what are osteocytes? |
osteoblasts surrounded by mineralized bone matrix. sit in lacunae. |
|
what is osteocytic osteolysis? |
process of enlarging lacunae. not very common. |
|
what are osteoclasts? |
multinucleated cells that resorb bone |
|
how to osteoclasts resorb bone? |
osteoclasts must access bone surface, attach to mineralized material, bind ligands and secrete H+ and lysosomal contents. |
|
what enzymes do osteoclasts release to resorb bone? |
- cysteine - metalloproteinases - cathpsins |
|
what is the effect of calcitonin on osteoclasts. |
a systemic inhibitor |
|
how to osteocytes and osteoblasts interact? |
osteocytes and osteoblasts are connected by cytoplasm. form a membrane that regulates movement of calcium and phosphate ions. |
|
how do osteoclasts and osteoblasts interact? |
regulate physiologic bone resorption. |
|
what is the organic bone matrix made of? |
- type I collagen - ground substance |
|
what is type I collagen? |
type I collagen is secreted by osteoblasts - made up of 3 intertwined aa chains with extensive cross linking |
|
what is ground substance? |
noncollagenous extracellular fluid made up of PSGAGS, proteoglycans, GAGs, lipids and noncollagenous proteins. produced by osteoblasts |
|
what is hydroxyappetite? |
a crystal that makes up 65% of a bone by weight. made of ca, phos, carbonate, magnesium, sodium, manganese, zn, cu, fluoride.
the substance which gives bone its hardness |
|
what initiates osteoid mineralization? |
osteoid mineralization in woven bone is initiated by cytoplasmic blebs of osteoblasts. the blebs are filled with minerals that precipitate to form amorphus hydroxyappetite. |
|
what are osteons? |
osteons or haversian systems are bone organizations in the compact bone |
|
what are interstitial lamella? |
the area between osteons |
|
what are circumferential lamella? |
layers of bone parallel to internal and external circumference of bone |
|
what is the osteonal system? |
channels that provide vascular supply and help limit microcrack propegation |
|
what is bone remodeling? |
low constant replacement |
|
what is the remodeling unit of cortical bone?o |
osteon |
|
what are cement lines? |
peripheral remodeling units. no collagen fibers extend across the cement line, allowing some movement |
|
what are reversal lines? |
cement lines showing limit of previous resorptive activity are scalloped. |
|
what are resting lines? |
where osteoblasts stop forming and later resume. they are smooth and follow the contour of the surface. |
|
what is bone modeling? |
change shape or contour of bone in response to normal growth, altered use or disease |
|
what process to flat bones use to form? |
intramembranous ossification. |
|
what is intramembranous ossification? |
mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts and produce bone directly. no cartilage precursor. |
|
what is endochondral ossification? |
bone forming around a cartilage template. template is invaded by vessels, ossification centers develop. |
|
how is blood supplied to the bone? |
- nutrient arteris - proximal and distal metaphyseal arteries - periosteal arteries - epiphyseal arteries |
|
How do nutrient arteries enter bones? |
penetrate cortex of diaphysis through nutrient foramen. branch and divide in medullary cavity. |
|
how do proximal and distal metaphyseal arteries enter bones? |
penetrate cortex and anastamose with nutrient artery in the medullary cavity. |
|
how to periosteal arteries enter bones? |
pass through diaphyseal cortex. |
|
what do periosteal arteries supply? |
1/4 to 1/3 of the outer cortex. |
|
what do epiphyseal arteries supply? |
chondrocytes in physis nearest to epiphysis. |
|
what supplies the chondrocytes not supplied by epiphyseal arteries? |
nutrient and metaphyseal artery branches |
|
what is centrifugal blood flow? |
blood in bones flows from medulla to periosteum |
|
which growth plate is primarily responsible for bone elongation? |
metaphyseal growth plates |
|
what are the zones of cartilage? |
- reserve/resting - proliferative - hypertrophic - maturation - degeneration - calcification |
|
why is vascular invasion key to bone mineralization? |
vascular invasion supplies the necessary mineral salts. |
|
what is the chondrosseous junction? |
fragile lattice of bone covered by spicules of calcified cartilage in the metaphysis. |
|
what is the AE complex? |
zone of endochondral ossification beneath articular cartilage in growing animals. |
|
what are the functions of joints? |
- join skeletal structures - provide movement - shock-absorption |
|
what are synovial joints? |
synovial joints are found in both axial and appendicular skeletons. have variable degrees of movement. Made of two bone ends bund by fibrous capsule and ligaments |
|
what lines the inner articular surface of synovial joints? |
synovial membrane |
|
what is found in the joint space of synovial joints? |
- synovial fluid - fibrocartilage menisci/disks |
|
what are synovial fossae? |
normal depression in non-weight bearing cartilage. develop bilaterally in large appendicular joints of large animals. unknown function. easy to mistake for lesions. |
|
what are tide marks? |
junctions between unmineralized articular cartilage and deeper mineralized cartilage. |
|
what is aggregin? |
made of chains of long non-polysulfacted GAGs with core proteins attached. smaller PSGAGs attached to core proteins. binds water to make a hydrated gel. |
|
what is the function of the superficial zone of articular cartilage? |
resists shearing forces. made up of type I cartilage. |
|
what is the function of the middle zone of articular cartilage? |
shock absorption |
|
what is the function of the deep mineralized zone of articular cartilage? |
attaches cartilage to the subchondral bone |
|
what are the two layers of the articular capsule? |
outer fibrous synovial layer inner synovial membrane |
|
what is the outer fibrous synovial layer? |
a heavy sheath that stabilizes the joint. has a rich vascular and nerve supply. |
|
what is the inner synovial membrane? |
a very thin layer with villous surface. |
|
what makes up synovial fluid? |
plasma dialystate supplemental proteoglycans |
|
what are the two lubrication processes in synovial joints? |
- weeping (squeeze film) - boundary lubrication |
|
what is weeping (squeeze film) lubrication? |
pressurized fluid carries most of the load in a weighted joint. when pressure is released, fluid reenters cartilage (proteoglycans create inward draw). |
|
what are the functions of subchondral bone? |
supports overlying cartilage dissipates concussion |
|
what does primary trabeculae alteration indicate? |
disrupted endochondral ossification |
|
what are growth arrest lines? |
an alteration of primary trabeculae. seen with poor nutrition or debilitating disease. plate is narrowed, and bony layer seals the metaphyseal face. |
|
what is a growth retardation lattice? |
an alteration of primary trabeculae. acquired osteoclast activity impairment. can be due to distemper, BVD, lead toxicosis. |
|
what is wolff's law? |
the ability of bone to model, remodel and change shape is based on tension, compression, and stress placed upon it. |
|
what is streaming potential? |
electrical current in bone. caused by fluid flux in canaliculi. |
|
what is cutback zone? |
where bone tapers from physeal diameter to diaphysis diameter. site of marked osteoclastic bone resorption from periosteum during growth. |
|
how does articular cartilage respond to damage? |
articular cartilage has minimal capability for repair. damage will persist for prolonged periods of time. |
|
what replaces articular cartilage defects extending into subchondral bone? |
fibrocartilage |
|
what causes sterile joint injuries? |
trauma joint instability lubrication failure |
|
what is the appearance of damage articular cartilage? |
yellow-brown, dull and rough |
|
what substances are increased during joint inflammation and DJD? |
PG, NO, TNF-alpha, substance P, neurotransmitters |
|
what is the effect of PG and NO on joints? |
inhibit proteoglycan synthesis. cartilage degenerates and is lost |
|
what is the effect of IL-1 and TNF-alpha on cartilage? |
promote PG and NO secretion. decreased matrix synthesis and increase its destruction. |
|
which factors are anabolic to cartilage? |
IL6, TGF-beta, insulin-like growth factor |
|
what are joint mice? |
free floating detached cartilage pieces in the joint |
|
what happens to subchondral bone when proteoglycans are lost? |
increased concussive forces are transmitted to subchondral bones. |
|
how does subchondral bone response to increased concussive forces? |
decreases resorption, increase formation |
|
what is eburnation? |
full articular cartilage ulceration results in polished, dense subchondral bone |
|
what is osteopetrosis? |
increased bone density per unit area (sclerotic bone). aka metaphyseal dysplasia. |
|
what causes osteopetrosis? |
failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone. seems to be spontaneous with a potential genetic link. |
|
what is osteogeneis imperfecta? |
reduced bone mass disease. a defect in production of type I collagen. more prone to fx. |
|
what is congenital cortical hyperostosis? |
an autosomal recessive dz in pigs that results in abnormal periosteal bone formation on long bones. allows GP to expand in diameter. |
|
what is craniomandibular osteopathy? |
aka "lion jaw". related to leukocyte adhesion deficiency. bilateral lesions in mandible, occipital and temporal bones, causing increased density and prolific woven bone production. |
|
what are chondrodystrophies? |
diseases of bone growth due to growth cartilage lesions. |
|
what is osteochondrosis? |
heterogeneous group of lesions in growth cartilage. characterized by multifocal failure of endochondral ossification. |
|
what is OCD? |
dysplasia at AE complex. forms clefts in retained cartilage, subsequent fx of articular cartilage above, resulting in flaps that can fracture off and become joint mice. |
|
what is epiphysiolysis? |
seperation of epiphysis and metaphysis due to tissue forming hoizontally thorugh physis. horizontal fractures. |
|
what is cervical vertebral myelopathy? |
static/dynamic cord compression due to abnormal vertebrae |
|
what are the common metabolic bone diseases? |
- osteoporosis - osteomalacia - rickets - fibrous osteodystrophy |
|
what causes osteoporosis? |
malnutrition excess glucorticoid |
|
what causes osteomalacia? |
vitamin D and phosphorous deficiency |
|
what causes rickets? |
vit D and phosphorous deficiency |
|
what causes fibrous osteodystrophy? |
hyperparathyroidism - chief cell adenoma (paraneoplastic sydrome) - nutritional hyperparathyroidims - secondary renal hyperparathyroidism |
|
what are characteristics of osteoporosis? |
reduced bone mass porous, thin, brittle bones |
|
what are characteristics of osteomalacia? |
decreased bone mineralization, soft bones |
|
what are characteristics of rickets? |
decreased mineralization, soft bone with thick growth plates. |
|
what are characteristics of fibrous osteodystrophy? |
decreased bone mass with replacement by fibrous tissue. rubbery bones. |
|
what is osteitis? |
bone inflammation |
|
what is periosteitis? |
periosteal inflammation |
|
what is osteomyelitis? |
chronic necrosis and removal of bone over time. disfiguring. |
|
what is hypertrophic osteodystrophy? |
non-infectious bone inflammation. |
|
what lesions are seen with hypertrophic osteodystrophy? |
suppurative and fibrinous osteomyelitis of trabecular bone in metaphysis. |
|
what are enthesophytes? |
nodular, benign bony growths projecting outwards from bone surface. non-neoplastic. |
|
what are enthesophytes? |
osteophytes located at tendon insertion point |
|
what is hyperostosis? |
increased bone diameter due to uniform periosteal thickening |
|
what is enostosis? |
bony growth WITHIN the medullary cavity. non neoplastic. |
|
what is osteochondroma? |
multiple cartilaginous exostoses. |
|
where are osteochondromas most often seen? |
ribs, vertebrae, scapula, pelvic bones |
|
what is fibrous dysplasia? |
an uncomon intraosseous lesion, focal/multifocal. seen in young animals. |
|
what are simple bone cysts? |
cyst walls made of fibrous tissue and woven lamellar bone, filled with serum like fluid. |
|
what are aneurysmal bone cysts? |
fibrous to fibroosseous walls filled with blood/serosanguinous fluid |
|
what is ossifying fibroma? |
an uncommon benign primary bone neoplasia. seen in jaw of horses and cows. mass expansion causes damage of adjacent tissue. |
|
what is fibrosarcoma? |
a primary bone neoplasm. malignancy of fibroblasts. |
|
what is a chondroma? |
benign primary bone neoplasm. tumor of hyaline cartilage. |
|
what is a chondrosarcoma? |
malignant primary bone neoplasm. growth produces cartilaginous matrix. |
|
what is an osteoma? |
benign primary bone tumor. tend to arise from skull, jaw. |
|
what is an osteosarcoma? |
malignant primary bone neoplasm, producing bone and/or osteoid |
|
what is a common secondary bone neoplasm in cats? |
asymptomatic pulmonary carcinoma |
|
what is a pathologic fracture? |
abnormal bone that fractures under normal force or minimal trauma. |
|
what is a traumatic fracture? |
normal bone that fractures under excessive force |
|
what is a salter-harris I fx? |
fracture of the hypertrophied cartilage layer |
|
what is a salter-harris II fx? |
fracture involving the primary trabeculae |
|
what is a salter-harris III fx? |
fx that crosses the growth plate and heals with secondary deformities |
|
what is a salter-harris IV fx? |
fx that crosses the GP and heals with secondary deformities. |
|
what is a salter-harris V fx? |
a crushing trauma that heals with secondary deformities |
|
what is a salter-harris VI fx? |
a crushing trauma that heals with secondary deformities |
|
what repairs occur 24-48 hours post fx? |
undifferentiated mesenchymal cells and reactive vascular proliferation penetrate the hematoma |
|
what fracture repairs occur 36 hours post fx? |
woven bone forms, nerve fibers regnerate |
|
what is a fx callus? |
unorganized mesh of woven bone. can be internal or external. bridges the fx and stabilizes ti. |
|
what fx repairs occur 4-6 weeks after injury? |
callus of woven bone and hyaline cartilage forms |
|
how long does it take woven bone laid down during fx repair to become lamellar bone? |
months-years |
|
how do rigid fx repairs occur? |
direct osteonal bridging. lamellar bone forms at 90 degree angle to fx line. |
|
what is arthrogryposis? |
congenital joint contracture. bilateral and congenital. |
|
what are potential causes of arthrogyrposis? |
- viruses that damage fetal CNS (bluetongue, akabane) - toxic teratogenic plants (lupine, poison hemlock) - positional abnormality |
|
what is synovitis? |
inflammation of synovium |
|
what is rheumatoid arthritis? |
a chronic, sterile, erosive polyarthritis |
|
what is gout? |
urate crystals deposited in/around joint and causes synovitis |
|
what is DJD? |
degenerative joint disease is a destructive dz of articular cartilage in synovial joints |
|
what is joint ankylosis? |
fibrous or bony bridging of joint |
|
what is intervertebral disk degeneration? |
age related change where central disk is replaced by fibrocartilaginous material |
|
what are the common neoplasms of joints? |
histiocytic sarcoma synovial cell sarcoma |