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143 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

what are osteoblasts?

cells on any bone surface that produce bone matrix, initiate mineralization and initiate bone resorption

what is the appearance of an active osteoblast?

plump, lots of cytoplasm, RER, golgi and mitochondria

how can osteoblast activity be indirectly measured?

AlkPhos

what is osteoid?

bone matrix

what is AlkPhos?

alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme on the surface of osteoblasts. function unk, but has role in mineralization and pumping calcium across cell membranes.

what is osteocalcin?

protein secreted by osteoblast. found in bone matrix. correlates with osteoblast synthetic activity.

what are osteocytes?

osteoblasts surrounded by mineralized bone matrix. sit in lacunae.

what is osteocytic osteolysis?

process of enlarging lacunae. not very common.

what are osteoclasts?

multinucleated cells that resorb bone

how to osteoclasts resorb bone?

osteoclasts must access bone surface, attach to mineralized material, bind ligands and secrete H+ and lysosomal contents.

what enzymes do osteoclasts release to resorb bone?

- cysteine


- metalloproteinases


- cathpsins

what is the effect of calcitonin on osteoclasts.

a systemic inhibitor

how to osteocytes and osteoblasts interact?

osteocytes and osteoblasts are connected by cytoplasm. form a membrane that regulates movement of calcium and phosphate ions.

how do osteoclasts and osteoblasts interact?

regulate physiologic bone resorption.

what is the organic bone matrix made of?

- type I collagen


- ground substance

what is type I collagen?

type I collagen is secreted by osteoblasts


- made up of 3 intertwined aa chains with extensive cross linking

what is ground substance?

noncollagenous extracellular fluid made up of PSGAGS, proteoglycans, GAGs, lipids and noncollagenous proteins. produced by osteoblasts

what is hydroxyappetite?

a crystal that makes up 65% of a bone by weight.


made of ca, phos, carbonate, magnesium, sodium, manganese, zn, cu, fluoride.



the substance which gives bone its hardness

what initiates osteoid mineralization?

osteoid mineralization in woven bone is initiated by cytoplasmic blebs of osteoblasts. the blebs are filled with minerals that precipitate to form amorphus hydroxyappetite.

what are osteons?

osteons or haversian systems are bone organizations in the compact bone

what are interstitial lamella?

the area between osteons

what are circumferential lamella?

layers of bone parallel to internal and external circumference of bone

what is the osteonal system?

channels that provide vascular supply and help limit microcrack propegation

what is bone remodeling?

low constant replacement

what is the remodeling unit of cortical bone?o

osteon

what are cement lines?

peripheral remodeling units. no collagen fibers extend across the cement line, allowing some movement

what are reversal lines?

cement lines showing limit of previous resorptive activity are scalloped.

what are resting lines?

where osteoblasts stop forming and later resume. they are smooth and follow the contour of the surface.

what is bone modeling?

change shape or contour of bone in response to normal growth, altered use or disease

what process to flat bones use to form?

intramembranous ossification.

what is intramembranous ossification?

mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts and produce bone directly. no cartilage precursor.

what is endochondral ossification?

bone forming around a cartilage template. template is invaded by vessels, ossification centers develop.

how is blood supplied to the bone?

- nutrient arteris


- proximal and distal metaphyseal arteries


- periosteal arteries


- epiphyseal arteries

How do nutrient arteries enter bones?

penetrate cortex of diaphysis through nutrient foramen. branch and divide in medullary cavity.

how do proximal and distal metaphyseal arteries enter bones?

penetrate cortex and anastamose with nutrient artery in the medullary cavity.

how to periosteal arteries enter bones?

pass through diaphyseal cortex.

what do periosteal arteries supply?

1/4 to 1/3 of the outer cortex.

what do epiphyseal arteries supply?

chondrocytes in physis nearest to epiphysis.

what supplies the chondrocytes not supplied by epiphyseal arteries?

nutrient and metaphyseal artery branches

what is centrifugal blood flow?

blood in bones flows from medulla to periosteum

which growth plate is primarily responsible for bone elongation?

metaphyseal growth plates

what are the zones of cartilage?

- reserve/resting


- proliferative


- hypertrophic


- maturation


- degeneration


- calcification

why is vascular invasion key to bone mineralization?

vascular invasion supplies the necessary mineral salts.

what is the chondrosseous junction?

fragile lattice of bone covered by spicules of calcified cartilage in the metaphysis.

what is the AE complex?

zone of endochondral ossification beneath articular cartilage in growing animals.

what are the functions of joints?

- join skeletal structures


- provide movement


- shock-absorption

what are synovial joints?

synovial joints are found in both axial and appendicular skeletons. have variable degrees of movement. Made of two bone ends bund by fibrous capsule and ligaments

what lines the inner articular surface of synovial joints?

synovial membrane

what is found in the joint space of synovial joints?

- synovial fluid


- fibrocartilage menisci/disks

what are synovial fossae?

normal depression in non-weight bearing cartilage. develop bilaterally in large appendicular joints of large animals. unknown function. easy to mistake for lesions.

what are tide marks?

junctions between unmineralized articular cartilage and deeper mineralized cartilage.

what is aggregin?

made of chains of long non-polysulfacted GAGs with core proteins attached. smaller PSGAGs attached to core proteins. binds water to make a hydrated gel.

what is the function of the superficial zone of articular cartilage?

resists shearing forces. made up of type I cartilage.

what is the function of the middle zone of articular cartilage?

shock absorption

what is the function of the deep mineralized zone of articular cartilage?

attaches cartilage to the subchondral bone

what are the two layers of the articular capsule?

outer fibrous synovial layer


inner synovial membrane

what is the outer fibrous synovial layer?

a heavy sheath that stabilizes the joint. has a rich vascular and nerve supply.

what is the inner synovial membrane?

a very thin layer with villous surface.

what makes up synovial fluid?

plasma dialystate


supplemental proteoglycans

what are the two lubrication processes in synovial joints?

- weeping (squeeze film)


- boundary lubrication

what is weeping (squeeze film) lubrication?

pressurized fluid carries most of the load in a weighted joint. when pressure is released, fluid reenters cartilage (proteoglycans create inward draw).

what are the functions of subchondral bone?

supports overlying cartilage


dissipates concussion

what does primary trabeculae alteration indicate?

disrupted endochondral ossification

what are growth arrest lines?

an alteration of primary trabeculae. seen with poor nutrition or debilitating disease. plate is narrowed, and bony layer seals the metaphyseal face.

what is a growth retardation lattice?

an alteration of primary trabeculae. acquired osteoclast activity impairment. can be due to distemper, BVD, lead toxicosis.

what is wolff's law?

the ability of bone to model, remodel and change shape is based on tension, compression, and stress placed upon it.

what is streaming potential?

electrical current in bone. caused by fluid flux in canaliculi.

what is cutback zone?

where bone tapers from physeal diameter to diaphysis diameter. site of marked osteoclastic bone resorption from periosteum during growth.

how does articular cartilage respond to damage?

articular cartilage has minimal capability for repair. damage will persist for prolonged periods of time.

what replaces articular cartilage defects extending into subchondral bone?

fibrocartilage

what causes sterile joint injuries?

trauma


joint instability


lubrication failure

what is the appearance of damage articular cartilage?

yellow-brown, dull and rough

what substances are increased during joint inflammation and DJD?

PG, NO, TNF-alpha, substance P, neurotransmitters

what is the effect of PG and NO on joints?

inhibit proteoglycan synthesis. cartilage degenerates and is lost

what is the effect of IL-1 and TNF-alpha on cartilage?

promote PG and NO secretion. decreased matrix synthesis and increase its destruction.

which factors are anabolic to cartilage?

IL6, TGF-beta, insulin-like growth factor

what are joint mice?

free floating detached cartilage pieces in the joint

what happens to subchondral bone when proteoglycans are lost?

increased concussive forces are transmitted to subchondral bones.

how does subchondral bone response to increased concussive forces?

decreases resorption, increase formation

what is eburnation?

full articular cartilage ulceration results in polished, dense subchondral bone

what is osteopetrosis?

increased bone density per unit area (sclerotic bone). aka metaphyseal dysplasia.

what causes osteopetrosis?

failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone. seems to be spontaneous with a potential genetic link.

what is osteogeneis imperfecta?

reduced bone mass disease. a defect in production of type I collagen. more prone to fx.

what is congenital cortical hyperostosis?

an autosomal recessive dz in pigs that results in abnormal periosteal bone formation on long bones. allows GP to expand in diameter.

what is craniomandibular osteopathy?

aka "lion jaw". related to leukocyte adhesion deficiency. bilateral lesions in mandible, occipital and temporal bones, causing increased density and prolific woven bone production.

what are chondrodystrophies?

diseases of bone growth due to growth cartilage lesions.

what is osteochondrosis?

heterogeneous group of lesions in growth cartilage. characterized by multifocal failure of endochondral ossification.

what is OCD?

dysplasia at AE complex. forms clefts in retained cartilage, subsequent fx of articular cartilage above, resulting in flaps that can fracture off and become joint mice.

what is epiphysiolysis?

seperation of epiphysis and metaphysis due to tissue forming hoizontally thorugh physis. horizontal fractures.

what is cervical vertebral myelopathy?

static/dynamic cord compression due to abnormal vertebrae

what are the common metabolic bone diseases?

- osteoporosis


- osteomalacia


- rickets


- fibrous osteodystrophy

what causes osteoporosis?

malnutrition


excess glucorticoid

what causes osteomalacia?

vitamin D and phosphorous deficiency

what causes rickets?

vit D and phosphorous deficiency

what causes fibrous osteodystrophy?

hyperparathyroidism


- chief cell adenoma (paraneoplastic sydrome)


- nutritional hyperparathyroidims


- secondary renal hyperparathyroidism

what are characteristics of osteoporosis?

reduced bone mass


porous, thin, brittle bones

what are characteristics of osteomalacia?

decreased bone mineralization, soft bones

what are characteristics of rickets?

decreased mineralization, soft bone with thick growth plates.

what are characteristics of fibrous osteodystrophy?

decreased bone mass with replacement by fibrous tissue. rubbery bones.

what is osteitis?

bone inflammation

what is periosteitis?

periosteal inflammation

what is osteomyelitis?

chronic necrosis and removal of bone over time. disfiguring.

what is hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

non-infectious bone inflammation.

what lesions are seen with hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

suppurative and fibrinous osteomyelitis of trabecular bone in metaphysis.

what are enthesophytes?

nodular, benign bony growths projecting outwards from bone surface. non-neoplastic.

what are enthesophytes?

osteophytes located at tendon insertion point

what is hyperostosis?

increased bone diameter due to uniform periosteal thickening

what is enostosis?

bony growth WITHIN the medullary cavity. non neoplastic.

what is osteochondroma?

multiple cartilaginous exostoses.

where are osteochondromas most often seen?

ribs, vertebrae, scapula, pelvic bones

what is fibrous dysplasia?

an uncomon intraosseous lesion, focal/multifocal. seen in young animals.

what are simple bone cysts?

cyst walls made of fibrous tissue and woven lamellar bone, filled with serum like fluid.

what are aneurysmal bone cysts?

fibrous to fibroosseous walls filled with blood/serosanguinous fluid

what is ossifying fibroma?

an uncommon benign primary bone neoplasia. seen in jaw of horses and cows. mass expansion causes damage of adjacent tissue.

what is fibrosarcoma?

a primary bone neoplasm. malignancy of fibroblasts.

what is a chondroma?

benign primary bone neoplasm. tumor of hyaline cartilage.

what is a chondrosarcoma?

malignant primary bone neoplasm. growth produces cartilaginous matrix.

what is an osteoma?

benign primary bone tumor. tend to arise from skull, jaw.

what is an osteosarcoma?

malignant primary bone neoplasm, producing bone and/or osteoid

what is a common secondary bone neoplasm in cats?

asymptomatic pulmonary carcinoma

what is a pathologic fracture?

abnormal bone that fractures under normal force or minimal trauma.

what is a traumatic fracture?

normal bone that fractures under excessive force

what is a salter-harris I fx?

fracture of the hypertrophied cartilage layer

what is a salter-harris II fx?

fracture involving the primary trabeculae

what is a salter-harris III fx?

fx that crosses the growth plate and heals with secondary deformities

what is a salter-harris IV fx?

fx that crosses the GP and heals with secondary deformities.

what is a salter-harris V fx?

a crushing trauma that heals with secondary deformities

what is a salter-harris VI fx?

a crushing trauma that heals with secondary deformities

what repairs occur 24-48 hours post fx?

undifferentiated mesenchymal cells and reactive vascular proliferation penetrate the hematoma

what fracture repairs occur 36 hours post fx?

woven bone forms, nerve fibers regnerate

what is a fx callus?

unorganized mesh of woven bone. can be internal or external. bridges the fx and stabilizes ti.

what fx repairs occur 4-6 weeks after injury?

callus of woven bone and hyaline cartilage forms

how long does it take woven bone laid down during fx repair to become lamellar bone?

months-years

how do rigid fx repairs occur?

direct osteonal bridging. lamellar bone forms at 90 degree angle to fx line.

what is arthrogryposis?

congenital joint contracture. bilateral and congenital.

what are potential causes of arthrogyrposis?

- viruses that damage fetal CNS (bluetongue, akabane)


- toxic teratogenic plants (lupine, poison hemlock)


- positional abnormality

what is synovitis?

inflammation of synovium

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

a chronic, sterile, erosive polyarthritis

what is gout?

urate crystals deposited in/around joint and causes synovitis

what is DJD?

degenerative joint disease is a destructive dz of articular cartilage in synovial joints

what is joint ankylosis?

fibrous or bony bridging of joint

what is intervertebral disk degeneration?

age related change where central disk is replaced by fibrocartilaginous material

what are the common neoplasms of joints?

histiocytic sarcoma


synovial cell sarcoma