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420 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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3 Structural Components of lymph nodes
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1. Fibrous Capsule
2. Cortex 3. Medulla |
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Hemal Node
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* Similar to structure to LNs but the sinuses are filled with blood
** Seen primarily in ruminants. |
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Outer cortex of LN composed of what?
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outer cortex composed of lymphoid follicles
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Inner cortex (paracortex) of LN composed of what?
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Consists of accumulations of T lymphocytes and high endothelial venules (HEVs)
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Primary vs. Secondary Lymphoid Follicles
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• Primary Lymphoid Follicles – without germinal centers
• Secondary Lymphoid Follicles – germinal center composed of proliferating B lymphocytes due to being stimulated antigenically. |
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What is the trabeculae of a LN?
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Collagenous bands that radiate into the cortex from the capsule and are surrounded by trabecular sinuses
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Medulla of a LN is composed of what?
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• Medulla is composed of medullary cords separated by medullary sinuses
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Medullary cords of a LN are composed of what?
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* Medullary cords contain macrophages and lymphocytes
** If immunologically stimulated, they contain plasma cells actively secreting antibodies. |
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3 primary functions of lymphoid tissue
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1. Antigen survelliance
2. Mounting of an immune response 3. Phagocytosis of foreign material |
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What are some potential consequences of abnormal function of lymphoid tissue?
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* Hypersensitivity or allergic reactions
* Immune-mediated disease * Immunosuppression |
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2 primary lymphoid organs
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1. Bone Marrow
2. Thymus |
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What is considered to be a secondary lymphoid organ?
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Spleen, LNs, other lymphoid tissue
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5 Functions of LNs?
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1. Filter lymph
2. Mounting immune response 3. Production of antibodies 4. Production of cells associated with cell-mediated immunity 5. Stimulation of macrophages (sinus histiocystosis) |
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3 primary causes of small lymph nodes?
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• Developmental disorders – occurs sometimes in neonatal animals with primary immunodeficiencies such as SCID leading to an absence of lymphoid follicles and corticomedullary differentiation.
• Atrophy – decrease in size; may be due to lack of antigenic stimulation, cachexia, aging, etc. • Lymphoid necrosis – many viruses target lymphocytes and lead to destruction of lymphoid tissue |
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Term for LN enlargement
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lymphadenomegaly
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term for diseased LN
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lymphadenopathy
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3 gross changes seen with LN hyperplasia
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1. Tense capsule
2. Bulge on cross section 3. Thicker than normal cortex |
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4 Histological changes seen with LN hyperplasia
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1. Cortex thickened by numerous follicles, some with germinal centers
2. Follicles may extend into the medulla 3. Medullary cords are thickened by plasma cells 4. Medullary sinuses contain many macrophages |
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Term for inflammation of a LN
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lymphadenitis
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2 types of chronic lymphadenitis
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1. Suppurative
2. Granulomatous |
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3 pyogenic bacteria discussed in class that cause a suppurative lymphadenitis
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1. Streptococcus equi (strangles)
2. Streptococcus porcinus (jowl abscess in pigs) 3. Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis (sheep and goats) |
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What bacteria causes abscessation of mandibular and retropharyngeal LNs of horse (strangles)?
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Streptococcus equi
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What bacteria causes abscessation of the jowl in pigs?
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Streptococcus porcinus
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What bacteria in sheep and goats can gain access thru skin (mainly via shearing) and migrate to local LNs causing a suppurative lymphadenitis?
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Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
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3 causes of granulomatous lymphadenitis discussed in class
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1. Mycobacterium bovis (bacteria-caseous center)
2. Histoplasma capsulatum (funji-non-caseous) 3. Coccidioides immits (protozoa-non-caseous) |
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Tuberculosis caused by what? What is the classic lesion seen?
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Mycobacterium bovis
* Granulomas that develop a necrotic/caseous center |
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Generally speaking- when should lymphoma should be considered?
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When an organ appears diffusely enlarged and pale
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3 general ways that lymphoma can be classified?
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1. Anatomic location
2. Immunophenotype 3. Cellular Morphology and Pattern |
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4 anatomic classifications of lymphoma
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1. Multi-centric (affecting more than one organ)
2. Alimentary (nutrition) 3. Thymic 4. Cutaneous |
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Immunophenotype classifications of lymphoma
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Immunohistochemical staining of cytology or histology slides with markers for B and T lymphocytes can be done to determine which type of lymphocyte the neoplastic cells are derived from
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How do B and T cells typically stain with Immunohistochemical staining?
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CD79a:B cells
CD3:T cells |
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3 Cellular Morphology classifications of lymphoma
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1. Small
2. Intermediate 3. Large |
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Generally speaking, what age group of dogs get lymphoma?
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Middle to old age
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Common lympoma classifications in dogs?
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* Multi-centric
* B-Cell (70-80%) * Majority are intermediate to high grade |
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Common clinical laboratory finding in dogs with lymphoma?
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hypercalcemia due to the production of parathyroid homone-related peptide (PTHrP) by neoplastic cells
* This is an example of a paraneoplastic syndrome |
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3 types of lymphoma seen in cats?
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1. Alimentary
2. Multi-centric 3. Thymic |
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most common form of lymphoma in cats?
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Alimentary
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type of cat who commonly get alimentary lymphoma?
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mostly older; negative for FeLV
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Majority of cats with alimentary lymphoma have what type of tumor?
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majority are B cell tumors
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from what can alimentary lymphoma arise from in the cat?
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can arise in cats with chronic inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
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What type of cats commonly get multicentric lymphoma?
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Young- about 30% (+) for FeLV
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What cell type commonly makes up multicentric lymphoma in cats?
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T cell
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What type of cats commonly get thymic lymphoma?
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younger, FeLV (+)
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What cell type commonly makes up thymic lymphoma in cats?
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T cell
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What is known to induce lymphoma in cattle?
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Bovine Leukosis Virus
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What cell type commonly makes up lymphoma in cattle?
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B cell
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What is Bovine Leukosis Virus?
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* A retrovirus that persists within lymphocytes for the life of the infected animal
** More common in dairy cattle than beef cattle |
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What are the three common forms of lymphoma that exist in cattle that are not believed to be associated with BLV?
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1. Thymic
2. Multi-centric 3. Cutaneous form |
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WHat age group of cattle commonly gets the thymic form of lymphoma?
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seen in cattle less than 2 years old
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WHat are the clinical signs of cattle with the thymic form of lymphoma?
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massive thymic enlargement and respiratory distress
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WHat age group of cattle commonly gets the Multicentric calfhood form of lymphoma?
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calves 3 – 6 months old
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WHat age group of cattle commonly gets the Cutaneous form of lymphoma?
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young
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WHat are the clinical signs of cattle with the Cutaneous form of lymphoma?
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cutaneous plaques and scabs
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What type of lymphoma is seen in horses?
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Lymphoma is relatively uncommon in horses; multicentric most common
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What is the most common malignancy of pigs?
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Lymphoma most common malignancy of pigs
* Multicentric form most common. |
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Cause of a RED LN?
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* Caused by hemorrhage
* May be caused be endotoxin-induced in animals with septicemia |
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4 causes of a BLACK LN?
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* Carbon particle in pulmonary lymph nodes from anthracosis
* Melanin in area with pigmentation loss * Metastatic malignant melanoma * Liver fluke pigment in hepatic lymph nodes |
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Cause of a BROWN LN?
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Hemosiderin
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What things make up the mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
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* Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT)
* Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) * Tonsils * Lymphoid nodules in the nasal cavity, pharynx, conjunctiva, and urinary bladder. *** All are secondary lymphoid tissue |
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Peyer’s patches
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Lymphoid tissue found in the SI that has follicle-associated epithelium (FAE), in which there are numerous M cells.
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M cells
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M cells deliver bacteria, viruses, and other antigens across the epithelium to a population of dendritic cells that present the antigen to lymphocytes.
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9) Know that hyperplasia of lymphoid nodules results in grossly visible structures on the mucosal surfaces, such as the GI tract and conjunctiva.
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9) Know that hyperplasia of lymphoid nodules results in grossly visible structures on the mucosal surfaces, such as the GI tract and conjunctiva.
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Know that necrosis of Peyer’s patches occurs with some viral infection such as BVD and Canine parvovirus.
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Know that necrosis of Peyer’s patches occurs with some viral infection such as BVD and Canine parvovirus.
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Red vs. Yellow Bone Marrow
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* Red marrow (hematopoietically active) predominates in young animal
* Yellow marrow (fat) predominates in older animal |
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Where does hematopoiesis occur in the adult?
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Hematopoiesis occurs in the pelvis, sternum, ribs, vertebrae, and proximal end of the long bones in the adult
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During gestation, hematopoiesis shifts from where to where?
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During gestation, hematopoiesis shifts from the spleen and liver to the bone marrow.
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Structure of bone marrow
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* Marrow cavity composed of venous sinuses lined by layer of specialized endothelial cells
* Hematopoietic cells occupy the spaces between the sinusoids * Adventitial reticular cells support the hematopoietic cells * The marrow cavity has adipocytes and macrophages |
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Function of bone marrow
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Formation of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
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Know that disorders of growth that occur in the bone marrow, including hyperplasia, hypoplasia, aplasia, and neoplasia.
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Know that disorders of growth that occur in the bone marrow, including hyperplasia, hypoplasia, aplasia, and neoplasia.
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Hyperplasia in the bone marrow
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increase in cell number;
e.g. erythroid hyperplasia in response to hypoxemia. |
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Hypoplasia in the bone marrow
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* Decrease in bone marrow tissue
* can affect one or multiple cell lines. |
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Aplasia in the bone marrow
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absence of hematopoietic tissue of a particular lineage
* -May be caused by toxicities or infectious agents |
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Dysplasia in the bone marrow
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alterations of shape, size, or organization of cells; may progress to neoplasia.
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Leukemias
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neoplasms of hematopoietic cells that originate in bone marrow and have neoplastic cells in circulation
* can be chronic or acute. |
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2 types of Leukemias
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1.) Lymphoid – derived from lymphocytes.
2.) Myeloid – derived from any other blood cell type. |
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serous atrophy of fat
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Starvation causes catabolism of marrow adipose tissue. The marrow reticular cells then produce a mucoid ground substance, giving the marrow a gelatinous appearance.
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How is the thymus divided?
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• Divided into incomplete lobules, each of which has a cortex and medulla; also, a subcapsular zone is recognized.
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Hassall’s corpuscles
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Epithelial cells of medulla of the Thymus
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Function of the thymus
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T-lymphocyte maturation
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pathogenesis of severe combined immunodeficiency of Arabian foals
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Humoral and cell-mediated immunity is deficient
-Succumb to infectious agents, especially adenovirus |
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Necropsy findings of severe combined immunodeficiency of Arabian foals
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small thymus, spleen, lymph nodes
** Histological examination – marked reduction of lymphocytes in organs listed above. |
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3 causes of hemorrhage into the mediastinum and thymus.
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* Trauma
* Ingestion of rodenticide * Rupture of aortic aneurysms * Most common in dogs |
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2 examples of thymitis discussed in class
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* Equine Herpes Virus 1 (EHV-1): horse abortions
* Porcine Circovirus 2: pig, post weaning multi-systemic wasting syndrome |
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two major types of neoplasia that occur in the thymus
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-Lymphoma
-Thymoma |
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4 functions of the spleen
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1. Filtering Blood
2. Immune responses 3. Reservoir of blood 4. Site of hematopoiesis |
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4 causes of splenomegaly with a BLOODY consistency
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1. Torsion
2. Barbiturates 3. Acute hyperemia 4. Acute hemolytic anemia |
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causes of splenomegaly with a FIRM consistency
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* Septicemia and bacteremia
* Chronic Infectious Diseases * Neoplasia * Stored deposits of material * Extra-medullary hematopoiesis * Prolonged hemolytic anemia |
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3 Chronic Infectious Diseases that cause splenomegaly with a FIRM consistency
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1. Macrophage hyperplasia
2. Chronic granulomatous inflammation 3. Lymphoid Hyperplasia |
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4 causes of splenic nodules with a BLOODY consistency
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1. Hematoma
2. Hemangiosarcoma 3. Acute Splenic Infarcts 4. Incomplete contraction |
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5 causes of splenic nodules with a FIRM consistency
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1. Nodular hyperplasia
2. Primary splenic neoplasia 3. Metastatic splenic neoplasia 4. Granulomatous splenitis 5. Abscesses |
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Know the accessory spleens generally indicate previous splenic trauma.
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Know the accessory spleens generally indicate previous splenic trauma.
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Congenital vs, acquired accessory spleens
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Congenital: Not caused by trauma, usually within the gastrosplenic ligament.
Acquired: Caused by trauma, located on peritoneal surfaces. |
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definition of hemosiderosis of the spleen
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pigementation caused by hemosiderin, the storage form of iron from the breakdown of RBCs
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2 causes of hemosiderosis of the spleen
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1. Rapid destruction of erythrocytes (hemolytic anemia)
2. Reduced rate of erythropoiesis |
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What is the gross appearance and significance of siderotic plaques on the surface of the spleen?
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* Common finding in old dogs
* White/yellow, hard, dry, encrustations often located along the spleen’s margin *** No clinical significance. |
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Lymphedema
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swelling of a part of the body by an increased quantity of lymph
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Primary Lymphedema
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Anomalous development of the lymphatic system which leads to failure of proper lymph flow
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Secondary Lymphedema
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Obstruction of lymphatics by inflammation, neoplasia, surgery, or trauma
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Lymphangiectasis
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* Dilation of normally developed lymphatic vessels:
* Occurs secondary to obstruction * Causes accumulation of excess intestinal fluid in the draining area of the lymphatics |
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know that intestinal lymphangiectasis is a cause of protein-losing enteropathy in dogs.
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know that intestinal lymphangiectasis is a cause of protein-losing enteropathy in dogs.
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Intestinal lymphangiectasis
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-Dilated lacteals in intestinal villi rupture or leak contents into intestinal lumen
* Leads to severe hypoproteinemia |
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causes of chylothorax
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-Leakage/rupture of thoracic duct due to:
1. Neoplasia 2. Right-sided heart failure 3. Dirofilariasis 4. Thrombosis of the thoracic duct |
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appearance of chylothorax
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* Fluid that is opaque, milky white/yellow
* A layer of cream is formed on top (chylomicron fat) |
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3 causes of lymphangitis discussed in class
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1. Mycobacterial infections
2. Sporadic 3. Ulcerative |
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Sporadic lymphangitis
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common disease of horses affecting the hind limbs; affected lymphatics are thickened and corded although usually palpable only along the saphenous vein on the medial aspect of the thigh; usually affected animals recover
* causative agent is uncertain. |
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Ulcerative lymphangitis
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Chronic progressive inflammation of the subcutaneous lymphatics of horses caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
* Abscesses form along lymphatics of the limbs and rupture to discharge thick purulent exudate |
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Examples of mycobacterial infections that cause lymphangitis
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* Johne’s disease in cattle: granulomatous lymphangitis
* Intestinal form of tuberculosis (caused by Mycobacterium bovis) * Bovine farcy (seen in the tropics caused by Mycobacterium farcinogenes). |
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1. What are the factors controlling normal development of the genital system of the male and female?
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* All embryos have the genes needed to develop testes; however, females lack a 14-35 kb gene, Sry, sex determining region Y, that is on the short arm of the Y chromosome and is thought to be the major switch leading to the expression of male phenotype
* Expression of the Sry gene in the gonadal ridge results in formation of a testis * Otherwise the primordial gonad becomes an ovary |
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Ovarian sexual development relies primarily on what?
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the presence of germ cells and not on estrogen
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The organization of follicles requires what?
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oocytes and two X chromosomes
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Wolffian (mesonephric) Ducts
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* These are tubules of the mesonephric kidney that persist in the male and give rise to part of the male genital system
* These ducts regress in the female unless testosterone, exogenous or from the fetal gonad, promotes their development. |
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Mullerian (paramesonephric) Ducts
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* These ducts form from invading cords of coelomic epithelium and give rise to the oviduct, cervix, and uterus.
* The failure of the Sertoli cells in the fetal gonad to elaborate Mullerian duct-inhibiting substance leads to persistence of the paramesonephric ducts in the male. |
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What are the most common intersexes seen in veterinary medicine?
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* Freemartins
* Hermaphrodites * Pseudohermaphrodites |
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Freemartin
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Fusion of chorioallantoic vessels between twins in utero leads to the virilization and sterility of females born twin to males.
* Occurs almost exclusively in cattle, 95% of such females affected. |
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Chimeras
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animals containing cells derived from two individuals
ex: freemartin |
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Intersex animals with gonadal tissue of both sexes
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Hermaphrodites
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Bilateral hermaphrodite
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two ovotestes
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Unilateral hermaphrodite
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one ovotestis
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Lateral hermaphrodite
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an ovary and a testis
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XY sex reversal
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individuals that are XY and lack Sry gene
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Pseudohermaphrodites
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Not chimeras, but animals having gonads of one sex and an indeterminate phenotypic sex (ambiguous external genitalia).
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When investigating intersexes what should you determine first?
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When investigating intersexes, first determine genotypic sex (the karyotype).
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What do follicular cysts result from?
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* Result from failure to ovulate
* Thought to occur because of failure of adequate LH release or an improper timing of LH release leading to ovulatory failure. * Cystic Graffian follicles |
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Cystic Corpus Luteum
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* CL formed after ovulation where a portion of CL doesn’t luteinize
* ~30% of bovine CLs have cystic center |
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Are Cystic Corpus Luteums coincident with pregnancy?
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Not seen coincident with pregnancy (don’t prepare uterus for pregnancy)
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Luteal Cysts
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* Persistent, anovulatory follicles that partially luteinize
* Have no ovulation stigma to demonstrate that ovulation occurred * Larger than normal follicles * Common in cows. |
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Transitional follicle cyst
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* Occurs in mare, large follicular cysts are thought to result from inadequate ovulatory stimuli in spring and fall transition periods as mare enters and leaves breeding season
* Called this when palpated during transitional periods. * Develop rim of luteal tissue and can persist for months, resemble luteal cysts, regress spontaneously. |
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Ovarian Hematoma
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Occurs with endotoxemia, transitional follicle may fill with blood
* Can rupture, lethal |
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Cystic rete ovarii
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paraovarian cysts- usually benign cysts seen around the ovary
* Are commonly seen in cats and guinea pigs * They may cause infertility but are not otherwise a problem. |
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Hydatid of Morgagni
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Cystic accessory uterine tube and is seen on the fimbria of most mares and fillies.
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rarest of sex cord stromal ovarian tumors
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Luteoma
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most common ovarian neoplasm in cats, mare, and cows.
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Granulosa cell tumors
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“Epithelial neoplasms” of the ovary
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Ovarian Adenoma, Cystadenoma, or Cystadenocarcinoma
* May secrete hormones, induce cystic endometrial hyperplasia. ** are seen most commonly in the dog |
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Prognosis of “Epithelial neoplasms” of the ovary
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poor, esp if there’s evidence of extension through ovarian bursa into abdomen.
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Where do Sex cord-stromal neoplasms originate from?
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originate from pluripotent cells of mesoderm
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Examples of Sex cord-stromal neoplasms
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* Granulosa cell tumors
* Thecomas/thecal cell tumors * Luteomas |
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Appearance of Granulosa cell tumors
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* Often large, contain many fluid-filled cysts
* In cows, commonly seen bilaterally, may coexist with pregnancy |
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Granulosa cell tumorshave the ability to make what hormones?
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* Ability to make estrogens or androgens may lead to nymphomania or masculine behavior and body characteristics.
** May be signs of hyperestrogenism (anemia, thrombocytopenia, enlarged nipples, and alopecia) and pyometra if neoplasm secretes hormones. |
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Appearance of Thecomas/thecal cell tumors
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firm, solid, gray neoplasms of cells resembling normal thecal cells
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In what species are Thecomas/thecal cell tumors found?
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dogs, cats, and cattle
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Prognosis of Thecomas/thecal cell tumors
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Advise some caution in small animals. Most cases in cattle are malignant and bilateral.
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Appearance of Luteomas
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firm, yellow neoplasms
* rarest of sex cord stromal ovarian tumors |
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Dysgerminomas arise from what?
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arise from ovarian germ cells
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Appearance of Dysgerminomas
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Solitary gray neoplasms
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What species are Dysgerminomas seen in?
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dogs and cats
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prognosis of Dysgerminomas
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usually good, but there are several reports of malignancy in cats
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Leiomyoma are seen in what species?
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seen unilaterally in dog ovaries
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Prognosis of Leiomyomas
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May be fairly large but carry a good prognosis
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Appearance of Teratomas
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Solitary and often large; may grossly see cysts, hair, teeth, bone, etc. Gross appearance reflects growth of neoplastic cells derived from more than one embryonic cell layer.
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Prognosis of Teratomas
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Good
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Metastatic neoplasia to ovary is rare except in cases of what?
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lymphosarcoma in cows
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What are the features associated with the occurrence of uterine torsion?
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* Uniparous species (cow, horse): involves the whole uterus because an intercornual ligament joins the horns
* Multiparous animals that have long uterine horns, one horn may be affected * In all cases, torsion occurs in gravid (late gestation) or distended uteri and has a rotation along the long axis of 180-360 degrees. ** Torsions up to 720 degrees are reported. |
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What predisposes the female to rolapses of the uterus and/or cervix?
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** Most common in postparturient animals
* Dystocias * Hypocalcemia * Retained placentas * Prolonged gestation * Exogenous estrogens or phytoestrogens * By any condition that increases abdominal pressure on the uterus |
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In what species is cervical ring eversion common? What occurs?
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In aged, multiparous cows (esp. Bos indicus breeds) the cervix enlarges (2-8X normal size)
* The more caudal cervical rings evert and protrude into the vagina * The overall increased thickness of the cervix is due to an increase of fibromuscular tissue in the cervical rings that is sometimes polypoid. * It results in severe dorsoventral deviations in the lumen of the cervix (tortuous cervix). ** It causes no apparent problems in fertility or parturition. |
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When are prolapses of the vagina to the exterior (Type III) commonly seen?
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seen with dystocias and hyperestrogenism
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Type II vaginal prolapse (exteriorization of the floor and lateral walls) is a severe problem in what species?
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young postestral bitches
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Type II vaginal prolapse (exteriorization of the floor and lateral walls) is associated with what?
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ventral vaginal hyperplasia
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What is Endometrial hyperplasia?
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A condition characterized by a cystic and/or polypoid proliferation of the endometrium
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What species is Endometrial hyperplasia commonly seen in?
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seen most commonly in the dog and cat
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Adenomyosis
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invasion of the myometrium by endometrial epithelium, leading to weakening of the wall and rupture
** Can be seen with Endometrial hyperplasia |
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Why are the postestral and postpartum periods characterized by an increased susceptibility to uterine infection?
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Because of estral hormone patterns
* favoring post-coital infections |
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Pyometra
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accumulation of pus in the uterus
** often does not extend beyond the lamina propria |
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Pyometra effects in the cow and horse
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Pyometra is usually of little consequence overall in the cow and mare, although it will negatively impact fertility
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Pyometra effects in small animals
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life-threatening in the cat and dog
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Endometriosis
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the proliferation of endometrium of primates after reflux of endometrium out the uterine tube after menstruation and implantation over the abdomen
* The implanted tissue continues to grow during each cycle in response to hormone stimulation and forms fluid and blood-filled cysts that induce scarring and adhesions between all viscera. * The adhesions can be life-threatening by occluding intestines. |
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Lymphatic cysts
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* Distended lymphatics
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Lymphatic cysts are very common in what species?
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They’re very common in the endometrium of multiparous mares.
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Lymphatic cysts appearance?
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usually small and multiple and restricted to the endometrium and are associated with infertility
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How to tell a endometrial cyst from a luteal cyst?
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True endometrial cysts have are common in bitches and queens.
* Grossly visible, true endometrial cysts in the mare are less common. |
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What are common neoplasms of the uterus?
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* Adenocarcinoma
* Leiomyomas * Leiomyosarcomas * Lymphosarcoma |
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Adenocarcinomas of the uterus are commonly seen in what species?
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cows and rabbit does
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|
Prognosis of Adenocarcinoma in the uterus
|
poor prognosis and metastasize to lungs, lymph nodes, and liver.
* The primary neoplasm induces a scirrhous reaction and is small and umbilicated. |
|
|
Leiomyomas vs. Leiomyosarcomas
|
Leiomyomas (good prognosis) and leiomyosarcomas (poor prognosis)
* sporadically seen in all species |
|
|
What species has a high incidence of Leiomyomas and Leiomyosarcomas?
|
Eker rat
|
|
|
Vaginitis of various degrees is seen secondary to what things?
|
* Trauma
* Chronic uterine pooling * Infection or irritation of vestibular glands and Gartner’s ducts, * In response to specific agents that prefer the vaginal niche |
|
|
What infectious agent is known for causing vestibular vaginitis in dogs, cows, and horses?
|
Several herpes viruses
|
|
|
Ureaplasma often infects the vagina in cattle, and it induces what?
|
it induces hyperplasia of lymphoid follicles in the mucosa (granular vaginitis)
|
|
|
Ovarian hypoplasia is commonly seen in what species?
|
the XO horse and cat
|
|
|
Ovarian hypoplasia
|
* The ovaries are small and there is an infantile development of the rest of the genital tract.
** There is loss of oocytes usually before birth. |
|
|
A 3-year-old cow is in anestrus for a long time and not pregnant, and the farmer culled her last year. You have the packer hold her tract for you. She has a nine cm cyst with a uniform, thin, yellow lining in the right ovary. The lesion is a(n)?
|
* Luteal Cyst
|
|
|
Why do luteal cysts form?
|
* Anovulatory follicles that partially luteinize
* Have no ovulation stigma to demonstrate that ovulation occurred. |
|
|
Chronic salpingitis often heals forming distended structures such as ?
|
tube-ovarian cyst
|
|
|
In bovine twins, a female born co-twin to a male calf usually is an intersex called a what?This occurs because why?
|
* Freemartin
* Fusion of the chorioallantois allows exchange between the fetuses, thus exposing the female to testosterone |
|
|
What hormone predisposes the mature bitch to pyometra? What are 2 reasons why?
|
* Progesterone
1. Inhibits bacterial killing 2. Decreases uterine contractions thus preventing expulsion of bacteria |
|
|
What is the simplest way to reduce the incidence of mammary neoplasia in the bitch?
|
To perform an ovariohysterectomy before her 1st heat
|
|
|
Cryptorchidism in young dogs results in a testicular lesion called what?
|
Testicular hypoplasia
|
|
|
What is most common testicular neoplasm of the stallion?
|
Seminoma
|
|
|
What is most common testicular neoplasm of the bull and male dog?
|
Interstital cell tumor
|
|
|
What is the term for a fetus that dies with bacterial contamination and is maintained in utero for a long time?
|
Macerated fetus
|
|
|
A fetus that dies in utero without bacterial contamination and is maintained a long time in utero becomes a what?
|
mummified fetus
|
|
|
The secondary sex glands of most old, intact-male dogs have a problem called what?
|
cystic prostatic hyperplasia
|
|
|
What hormone has a negative effect on uterine bacterial defenses?
|
progesterone
|
|
|
You palpate the ovary of an anestrus cow and note a 7cm cyst on the right ovary. What are 2 probable causes?
|
Follicular or Luteal cyst
|
|
|
A stallion is presented with a penis that has been prolapsed for a long time and that you cannot get back into the prepuce because of the edema. The condition is called what?
|
Paraphrimosis
|
|
|
A male dog is presented with a red, fleshy proliferation of his penis. Smear of the tissue have foamy, macrophage-like cells and erythrocytes. This is probably a what?
|
Transmissible Venereal Tumor
|
|
|
A male dogs has stanguria and is starting to form a perineal distention. During surgery, you remove 4, 2-5cm, thin-walled cysts cranial to and not attached to the prostate. What are the cysts called?
|
Paraprostatic cysts
|
|
|
Most late-term, infectious abortions in mares get to the uterus via what?
|
The Cervix
|
|
|
In cases of equine abortions, you always identify and sample from the what?
|
The cervical star- because most late-term, infectious abortions in mares get to the uterus via the cervix
|
|
|
You do an ovariohysterectomy of a 2 year-old, 22kg bitch and note she has a 1kg, bony mass replacing her left ovary. This is most likely a what?
|
teratoma
|
|
|
bulldog bitch litter 4 pups. Two of the pups are dead and have severe, whole-body edema. This condition in a fetus is called what?
|
Ansicara
|
|
|
Fibropapillomas
|
* Firm, often large, ulcerated and solitary neoplasms.
* Viral-induced in cattle * Prognosis: good, but they may recur locally. |
|
|
Squamous cell carcinomas of the vagina
|
* Common malignant neoplasms of the vaginal epithelium.
* Firm, ulcerated, induce fibroplasia. * Seen most commonly in cows and mares, esp. when the area around the vulva isn’t pigmented. ** Prognosis: poor because they usually recur and are multicentric in origin. |
|
|
Transmissible venereal tumor appearance
|
Lobulated, fleshy, hemorrhagic mass that may regress spontaneously
|
|
|
Transmissible venereal tumor is seen in what species?
|
Dog
|
|
|
How are transmissible venereal tumor transmitted?
|
transmitted by transfer of neoplastic histiocytic cells via licking, sniffing (it may implant on oral, nasal, or ocular mucosae), or coitus.
|
|
|
Under what condition does feline mammary hypertrophy occur?
|
Condition seen in males and females given progestins to control vices and behaviors associated with estrous.
|
|
|
2 types of feline mammary hypertrophy
|
* Solid Form: Proliferation of ducts in a dense connective tissue
* Intraductular Form: a proliferation of ductal cells within dilated ducts |
|
|
Abortus
|
dead fetus expelled before term
|
|
|
Stillbirth
|
death at term
|
|
|
Macerated fetuses
|
die in utero and are contaminated so they are fetid, badly decomposed, and friable when delivered. Very stinky.
|
|
|
Mummified fetuses
|
Have died, but were not contaminated, and not resorbed. Dry and nonfetid.
|
|
|
Oligohydramnion
|
* A decreased amount of amniotic fluid.
* Seen with bunyaviral infections of the fetus. * Constriction of the fetus, may result in arthrogryposis (joints fixed in flexion) and vertebral column deviation (scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis, etc). |
|
|
Hydrops allantois
|
* Excessive allantoic fluid
* Considered a form of maternal failure. Seen in cases of uterine disease where many caruncles are nonfunctional. ** Noted in the last trimester. |
|
|
Hydrops amnion
|
* Excessive amniotic fluid.
* Considered a form of fetal failure |
|
|
Hippomane
|
“non lesion”, normal. Pasty or rubbery aggregates of cell debris found free in the allantoic cavity of horses
|
|
|
Pseudocyesis
|
* False pregnancy seen in dogs, a species that retains it CL for the length of a gestation whether pregnant or not.
** Pseudogenetria is the term used to describe the mothering behavior seen in these nonpregnant bitches. |
|
|
22. What key features distinguishes the pathogeneses of infectious late-term abortion in cows from that in mares?
|
In cows, late abortions are usually from hematogenous spread, while in the mare, entry through the cervix is common.
|
|
|
Interstitial (Leydig) cell tumors
|
the most common testicular neoplasms in dogs and bulls
|
|
|
Interstitial (Leydig) cell tumor appearance
|
* Small, have a texture similar to testicular parenchyma
* Yellow-tan, soft, and mildly hemorrhagic. *Histologically, will see neoplastic Leydig cells in well-vascularized stroma. * Often multiple and can be bilateral, rarely secrete hormone |
|
|
Canine cryptorchid testicles have a high incidence of Sertoli cell neoplasia that secrete estrogen.
|
Canine cryptorchid testicles have a high incidence of Sertoli cell neoplasia that secrete estrogen.
|
|
|
most common testicular tumor in the stallion
|
Seminoma
(can be seen in dogs too) |
|
|
seminoma appearnace
|
gray and soft
|
|
|
Hypoplasia of the testis is seen when?
|
Hypoplasia of the testis is seen with intersex animals, cryptorchids, and malnutrition.
|
|
|
most common cause of testicular hypoplasia
|
Cryptorchidism is the most common cause of testicular hypoplasia and may be unilateral or bilateral.
|
|
|
In old, intact male dogs, the prostate undergoes hyperplasia related to what?
|
secretion of testosterone and estrogen
|
|
|
retention cysts
|
cysts that may enlarge and remain attached by a stalk
|
|
|
paraprostatic cysts
|
cysts of prostatic origin are seen free in the pelvic canal
|
|
|
Paraphimosis
|
inability to replace the penis into the prepuce due to swelling of the penis.
* Seen most frequently in the dog |
|
|
Phimosis
|
inability to exteriorize a swollen penis
|
|
|
Priapism
|
persistent erection of the penis not associated with breeding arousal
|
|
|
inability to replace the penis into the prepuce due to swelling of the penis
|
Paraphimosis
|
|
|
persistent erection of the penis not associated with breeding arousal
|
Priapism
|
|
|
inability to exteriorize a swollen penis
|
Phimosis
|
|
|
Cardiac Dilatation
|
* Enlargement of a chamber (best appreciated in the ventricles)
* A dilated heart requires more energy for its function than a normal heart * Dilation generally indicates that the heart is not healthy, but is in a compromised and compensatory state that often eventually results in death. |
|
|
What causes Cardiac Dilatation
|
Increased filling which will cause stretching of the myocytes (end diastolic volume).
* With this stretching of the myocytes, the contractile force will increase to try and rid the chamber of all the blood (Frank-Starling phenomenon). |
|
|
Frank-Starling Law of the Heart
|
Increased preload produces an increased amount of stroke work and a larger stroke volume during the next contraction.
|
|
|
Cardiomegaly
|
Increased weight or size of the heart
** Increased total myocardial mass (both myocyte and non-myocyte). |
|
|
Hypertrophy
|
a reversible increase in muscle mass due to an increase in the size, length, and diameter of myofibers, due to an increase in the number of myofibrils
|
|
|
Mechanism of Cardiomegaly
|
1. Stretching of the myocardial fibers (e.g. stretching of the ventricular wall) is a stimulus for an increase in ribosomal formation in myofibers
2. Results in an increase in ribosomal formation in myofibers 3. Results in an increase in protein synthesis and thus the number of myofibrils 4. Enlargement of the individual myofibers. |
|
|
3 general stages of myocyte response to stress
|
1.) hyperfunction
2.) hypertrophy 3.) failure |
|
|
Define: Reversible, sublethal/degeneration and lethal injury
|
•Reversible – cardiomegaly (myocyte hypertrophy vs. non-myocyte hyperplasia)
•Sublethal/degeneration – fatty degeneration, lipofuscinosis, vacuolar degeneration, wavy fiber change and myocytolysis • Lethal – necrosis or apoptosis; necrosis = inflammatory reaction with replacement fibriosis; apoptosis = non-inflammatory and no fibrosis |
|
|
Law of LaPlace
|
The larger the vessel radius, the larger the wall tension required to withstand a given internal fluid pressure
|
|
|
Explain the cardiac physiologic mechanism and result from a sudden demand for increase in cardiac output (ex: throughbred coming out of starting gate)
|
* BP= CO X Peripheral Resistance
* Blood pressure would increase initally, because systemic peripheral resistance would not change |
|
|
Define left-sided forward failure.
|
This is a systoloc disorder inwhich the cardiac myocytes are damaged and/or weakened.
* The malfunction of the cells is due to volume overload of the left ventricle. * As the volume increased, the chamber became dilated and is now failing to push enough blood into systemic circulation. |
|
|
Define Left-sided backward failure.
|
* A diastolic dysfunction of either the left ventricle, left atrium, or a combination of both
* Blood will back-up in venous circulation, there will be an increase in venous pressure, and high capillary pressure; this will lead to pulmonary issues * Caused by valvular insufficiency, valvular stenosis, and ventricular insuffiency. |
|
|
Define right-sided backward failure.
|
* When the right ventricle contracts, blood is regurgitated back into the right atrium, thus causing the right atrium to dilate
* Caused by incompetent right AV valve |
|
|
Define left to right shunt in a congenital heart defect in a new born lamb.
|
* Oxygenated blood from the the left ventricle is "pushed" to the right ventricle when the heart contracts
* This can be seen with a patent ductus arteriosus, patent foramen ovale, ventricular septal defect. * The lamb would not be cynotic |
|
|
3 causes for a left to right shunt in a congenital heart defect
|
1. Patent ductus arteriosus
2. Patent foramen ovale 3. Ventricular septal defect |
|
|
Explain the development of cyanosis tardive in a 12 week old lamb born with a left to right shunt in a congenital heart defect
|
Due to the amount of blood being pulmonary artery, it undergoes remodeling and the pulmonic valve stenotic.
* This causes the pressure to increase in the right atrium, causing it to become a right to left shunt. |
|
|
What is the term for the switch from a L to R shunt to a R to L shunt due to pulmonary remodeling
|
cynosis tardive
|
|
|
Two common causes of right-to-left shunts (cyanotic)
|
1. Tetralogy of Fallot
2. Transposition of the great vessels. |
|
|
Why are animals with a right-to-left shunt cyanotic?
|
• Oxygen-poor blood gets from the right half of the heart into the left side and thus into the systemic circulatory system. This can cause hypoxia and cyanosis
|
|
|
2 causes of non-inflammatory fluiod accumulation in the pericardial sac
|
1. Hydropericardium
2. Hemopericardium |
|
|
4 causes of no-shunt in congenital hearts
|
1. Pulmonary stenosis
2. Subaortic stenosis 3. Persistent right aortic arch 4. Coarctation of the aorta |
|
|
Pulmonary Stenosis
|
* Reduction of blood from the right ventricle at the level of the pulmonic valve
* Can be caused by stenosis of the valve or artery. |
|
|
Systemic response to Pulmonary Stenosis
|
* Results in a reduction of blood flow to the lungs.
* Jugular vein distension, cyanosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and general symptoms associated with lowered oxygen content of the blood. |
|
|
Subaortic Stenosis
|
* The narrowing of the area just below the aortic valve
* usually due to an abnormal band of fibrous tissue * can be congenital or develop after birth |
|
|
Systemic response to Subaortic Stenosis
|
* Will cause pressure overload in the left ventricle
* There will be increased blood volume, retention of salt and water by the kidneys, and insufficient blood flow to tissues * This could lead to dizziness, cooler extremities |
|
|
Persistent Right Aortic Arch
|
The right fourth aortic arch develops and ascends on the right side of the midline and persists, which causes obstruction of the esophagus at the level of the heart base.
|
|
|
Systemic response to Persistent Right Aortic Arch
|
This will cause megaesophagus leading to regurgitation of food and aspiration pneumonia.
|
|
|
Coarctation of the Aorta
|
narrowing of part of the aorta
|
|
|
Systemic response to Coarctation of the Aorta
|
* Inefficiency of the passage of blood through the artery and to the rest of the systemic vasculature.
* The femoral pulse may be hard to feel or absent; symptoms/response will be similar to subaortic stenosis in regards to cold extremities, exercise intolerance, dizziness/fainting, etc. |
|
|
common CV anomalies in dogs
|
* PDA,
* Pulmonic stenosis * Subaortic stenosis (Newfoundland) * Persistent right aortic arch |
|
|
common CV anomalies in cattle
|
* Atrial septal defect
* VSD * Transposition of the great vessels * PA valvular hematomas |
|
|
common CV anomalies in pigs
|
* Subaortic stenosis
* Endocardial cushion defect |
|
|
common CV anomalies in cats
|
* Endocardial cushion defect
* Mitral malformation |
|
|
common CV anomalies in horses
|
* Subaortic stenosis
* Coarctation of aorta |
|
|
3 causes of non-inflammatory fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac
|
1. Hydropericardium
2. Pericardial effusion 3. Hemopericardium |
|
|
3 causes of Hydropericardium
|
* Hypoproteinemia (decreased colloid osmotic pressure) caused by liver disease or protein-losing nephropathy/enteropathy
* Heart failure (increased hydrostatic pressure) where there is poor venous return to the heart * Vascular injury, where damage to the barrier function of the vascular wall can result in leakage of small quantities of plasma proteins. |
|
|
3 types of pericarditis
|
* Fibrinous pericarditis
* Suppurative pericarditis * Constrictive pericarditis |
|
|
fibrinous pericarditis
|
* Frequently seen with bacterial septicemias
* Visceral and parietal pericardial surfaces are covered by variable amounts of yellow fibrin deposits, which can result in adherence between the parietal and visceral layers * |
|
|
Suppurative pericarditis is mainly seen in what species in a response to what?
|
cattle as a complication of traumatic reticuloperitonitis (“hardware disease”)
|
|
|
Constrictive pericarditis
|
A chronic inflammatory lesion of the pericardium accompanied by extensive fibrous proliferation and eventual formation of fibrous adhesions between the surfaces of the visceral and parietal pericardium.
|
|
|
Know the link between pericardial disease and renal failure.
|
* Renal failure can cause changes in electrolyte levels
* Potassium must be balanced with sodium levels and kept within the normal range for proper functioning of the heart * increased amounts of urea (azotemia), fibrinous pericarditis can occur. * Atherosclerosis and high blood pressure can also occur |
|
|
What is the most common cardiovascular lesion in dogs and is encountered most frequently as an incidental finding at autopsy.
|
Valvular Endocardiosis
|
|
|
What valve is most commonly affected in dogs with valvular endocardiosis?
|
Left AV
|
|
|
characteristic lesion in dogs with valvular endocardiosis
|
The thickening of the leaflets which appear opaque and white, but the surface is smooth and glistening, without any evidence of inflammation.
|
|
|
Cause of Endocarditis in cattle
|
Corynebacterium pyogenes
|
|
|
Cause of Endocarditis in swine
|
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and Streptococci
|
|
|
Cause of Endocarditis in horses
|
seldom develop bacterial endocarditis; has been associated with Streptococcus spp. and Actinobacillus equuli infection.
|
|
|
Cause of Endocarditis in sheep
|
Streptococcus spp.
|
|
|
Cause of Endocarditis in dogs
|
seldom observed in dogs; variety of organisms can be the cause but lesion can occur secondary to inflammatory oral disease such as periodontitis or pharyngitis.
|
|
|
Functional disorder: eccentric vs. concentric
|
* Eccentric- systolic dysfunction
* Concentric- diastolic dysfunction |
|
|
Gross appearance: eccentric vs. concentric
|
* Eccentric- thin valvular wall, dilated chamber
* Concentric- hypertrophy of ventricular wall, chamber is reduced in size |
|
|
3 pathologic mechanisms for vascular response to injury
|
1. weakening of the vessel wall
2. narrowing of the lumen 3. damage to endothelial cells that could lead to intravascular thrombosis |
|
|
Describe the mechanisms for developing deep vein phlebothrombosis in a "downer" cow
|
* A downer cow does not have efficient venous return which causes congestion of the venous system and can result in thrombosis
|
|
|
Formula for the regulation of blood pressure
|
BP = CO X Peripheral resistance
|
|
|
Explain the difference in myocardial changes due to parvovirus in a newborn and an adult dog
|
* Newborn: dividing myocytes would be damaged, but would be able to replinish or compensate (hypertrophy)
* Adult: No signs usually seen because adult cadiac myocytes do not typically divide |
|
|
Describe the vascular pressure and mycardial dynamics in a yorkshire pig in 3rd trimester
|
1. Capillary resistance ( pul. vs. systemic): High pulmonary, Low systemic
2. Great Vesseles (pulmonary a. vs. aorta): High pulmonary, Low aortic 3. Myocardial changes (right vs. left ventricle): Right ventricle is bigger than the left |
|
|
Describe the vascular pressure and mycardial dynamics in a yorkshire pig immediately at birth
|
1. Capillary resistance ( pul. vs. systemic): Pulmonary decreases and systemic increases
2. Great Vesseles (pulmonary a. vs. aorta): Pulmonary decreases and aortic increases 3. Myocardial changes (right vs. left ventricle): Left ventricle hypertrophies because of inc. left-sided pressure and it gets larger than the right ventricle |
|
|
Describe the vascular pressure and mycardial dynamics in a yorkshire pig thats one day old with a VSD
|
1. Capillary resistance ( pul. vs. systemic): Pulmonary decreases (no compensation yet) and systemic increases
2. Great Vesseles (pulmonary a. vs. aorta): Aortic pressure decreased because of loss of blood through VSD and pulmonary pressure increases because of increased blood in the right ventricle 3. Myocardial changes (right vs. left ventricle): Right ventricle begins to dilate because of increase blood volume |
|
|
Physical characteristics of a yorkshire pig thats one day old with a VSD
|
Weak due to decreased cariac output
|
|
|
Describe the vascular pressure and mycardial dynamics in a yorkshire pig thats 5 months old with persistent VSD stage 4 heart failure
|
1. Capillary resistance ( pul. vs. systemic): Lung capillaries have inc. resistance and systemic capillaries have no change
2. Great Vesseles (pulmonary a. vs. aorta): Pulmonary artery is stenotic and pressure is inccreased. The aorta pressure is decreased because the left ventricle is dilated from the shunt. 3. Myocardial changes (right vs. left ventricle): Right ventricle is hypertrophied and left ventricle is dilated |
|
|
Physical characteristics of a yorkshire pig thats 5 months old with persistent VSD stage 4 heart failure
|
Cyanosis, labored breathing
|
|
|
A cat presents with high blood pressure: describe renal small artery changes
|
* Increased aortic blood pressure results in renal artery constriction to attempt to decrease the pressure
|
|
|
A cat presents with high blood pressure: describe glomerular afferent artery changes
|
The glomerular afferent artery will constrict to attempt to maintain a constant GFR
|
|
|
.) A 5 year-old dog presents the early stages of heart failure. Ultrasound imaging shows a uniform, increase thickening of the left ventricle freewall and a reduced lumen volume. What type of dysfunction and cardiomegaly is most likely the cause?
|
This represents a diastolic dysfuntion and most likely has a concentric cardiomegaly.
|
|
|
You have a 4 month old Springer spaniel with early stages of Chagas disease. Describe the left ventricle myocardium changes and pathophysiologic changes.
|
The left ventricle is largely unaffected in the early disease changes. The protozoa have much more wall to get through.
|
|
|
You have a 4 month old Springer spaniel with early stages of Chagas disease. Describe the right ventricle myocardium changes and pathophysiologic changes.
|
The protozoa penetrate the thin wall of the right ventricle easier and can cause damage faster. You would see signs of right ventricular backward failure.
|
|
|
Know the parasite in horses that can produce an endocarditis.
|
Strongylus vulgaris
|
|
|
Know the difference between eccentric and concentric cardiomegaly.
|
•Eccentric –
* No uniform * R esults in a heart with enlarged ventricular chambers and walls of normal to somewhat decreased thickness * Produced by lesions that increase blood volume load such as valvular insufficiencies and septal defects * Systolic dysfunction • Concentric * More uniform * Heart is characterized by small ventriclar chambers and thick walls * Results from lesions that increase pressure and load such as valvular stenosis * Systemic hypertension * Pulmonary disease * Diastolic dysfunction |
|
|
fatty infiltration
|
* A presence of increased numbers of lipocytes interposed between myocardial fibers.
* The lesion is associated with obesity and age and appears as abundant epicardial and myocardial deposits of adipose tissue. |
|
|
Gross appearance of fatty infiltration
|
Grossly, the myocardium has irregular layers of adipose tissue infiltrating normal myocardium.
The atria and right ventricle are most often affected. |
|
|
Fatty degeneration
|
* An accumulation of abundant lipid droplets in the sarcoplasm of myocytes.
* This lesion occurs with systemic disorders, such as severe anemia, toxemia, and copper deficiency, but is seen much less often in the heart than in the liver and kidneys. |
|
|
three major classifications of cardiomyopathy
|
1. Dilatative/Congestive
2. Hypertrophic/Hypertrophic Obstructive 3. Restrictive |
|
|
clinical presentation of Dilatative/Congestive cardiomyopathy
|
systolic disorder
|
|
|
2 primary forms of Dilatative/Congestive cardiomyopathy
|
1. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
2. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia |
|
|
6 secondary forms of Dilatative/Congestive cardiomyopathy
|
1. Infective myocarditis
2. Chronic anemia 3. Toxicity 4. Pregnancy 5. Sarcoidosis 6. Hemochromatosis |
|
|
clinical presentation of Hypertrophic/Hypertrophic Obstructive cardiomyopathy
|
diastolic disorder
|
|
|
Primary form of Hypertrophic/Hypertrophic Obstructive cardiomyopathy
|
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
|
|
|
2 secondary forms of Hypertrophic/Hypertrophic Obstructive cardiomyopathy
|
1. Glycogen storage disease
2. Neonates from diabetic mothers |
|
|
clinical presentation of restrictive cardiomyopathy
|
diastolic disorder
|
|
|
3 Primary forms of restrictive cardiomyopathy
|
1. Endomyocardial fibrosis
2. Endocardial fibroelastosis 3. Loeffler’s endomyocarditis |
|
|
3 secondary forms of restrictive cardiomyopathy
|
1. Amyloidosis
2. Radiation-induced fibrosis 3. Storage diseases |
|
|
3 types of Myocarditis
|
1. Suppurative
2. Interstitial 3. Parenchymal |
|
|
cause of Suppurative Myocarditis
|
infarcts and embolisms
|
|
|
characteristic of viral meyocarditis
|
Interstitial Myocarditis
|
|
|
What type of Myocarditis is seen with Chagas?
|
Parenchymal Myocarditis
|
|
|
Know the most common types of tumors found in the heart
|
• Primary – most common is the hemangiosarcoma that develops in the right auricle
• Secondary – secondary tumors metastasizing from primary tumors of other organs are not uncommon; heamngiosarcoma and malignant lymphosarcoma |
|
|
Know the three mechanisms for vascular response to injury.
|
• Weakening of vessel walls with dilatation or rupture.
• Narrowing of lumen and development of ischemia. • Damage of endothelium followed by intravascular thrombosis. |
|
|
Know the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
|
• Arteriosclerosis – characterized by intimal fibrosis of large elastic arteries
• Atherosclerosis – characterized by intimal and medial lipid deposits in elastic and muscular arteries |
|
|
Know the cause and mechanism for dilated cranial artery in the horse.
|
An acquired aneurysm occurs in the anterior mesenteric artery of horses due to migration of larvae of Strongylus vulgaris. The lesion is characterized by enlargement of the luminal diameter accompanied by thickening of the vessel wall due to inflammation and scarring as occurs with some aneurysms.
|
|
|
Know the most common malignant tumor of endothelial cells found in old dogs.
|
Hemangiosarcoma
|
|
|
Phlebitis
|
inflammation of a vein
|
|
|
Omphalophlebitis
|
inflammation of the umbilical veins that often occurs in neonatal farm animals because of bacterial contamination of the umbilicus immediately after parturiation
|
|
|
Know the difference between Essential and Secondary Hypertension
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* Essential - idiopathic (primary) hypertension, is rare in dogs and cats, but common in humans.
Secondary - Secondary hypertension results from a specific underlying disease. |
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In dogs, the most common cause of hypertension?
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renal disease
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In cats, the most common cause of hypertension?
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renal disease and hyperthyroidism
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Which form of hypertension is most common in Veterinary Medicine?
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Secondary
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Know the difference between Benign vs. Malignant hypertension.
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Benign - is high blood pressure that "runs a relatively long and symptomless course"
Malignant - a very serious type of hypertension demonstrated by an unusually sudden increase in blood pressure to very high levels. |
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three common vascular lesions associated with hypertension
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1. Structural alterations
2. Aberrations in functionality 3. Increased potential for the development of intravascular thrombus |
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Know the 5 common conditions that can cause Pulmonary hypertension.
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1. Increased pulmonary blood flow – cardiac shunts
2. Pulmonary Venous Congestion – mitral valve disease 3. Mechanical Arterial Occlusion . 4. Alveolar hypoxia (causing vasoconstriction) 5. Destruction of lung capillary bed |
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Functional unit of the kidney
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nephron
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Important to recognize the interdependence of the various components of the nephron
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dysfunction of one segment of the nephron often results in dysfunction in the other segments of that same nephron
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Glomerular function
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Elimination of metabolic waste in the form of urea and creatinine
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Where is urea synthesized?
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1.) Urea is synthesized in the liver from ammonia derived from amino acid catabolism as the major pathway of nitrogen excretion.
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Where is creatine formed?
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Creatine is formed predominantly in muscle as non-enzymatic breakdown product of phosphocreatine
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glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s capsule per unit time
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Why is creatinine clearance is a close approximation of GFR?
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Creatine is an endogenous molecule, synthesized in the body, which is freely filtered by the glomerulus (but also secreted by the renal tubules in very small amounts).
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Endocrine function of the glomerulus?
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Produce renin
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Renin is responsive to what 2 things
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blood pressure and distal tubular Na+ concentration
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Know how renal blood perfusion/volume is controlled
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Renin-angiotensin system
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Steps to the Renin-angiotensin system
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1. Renin acts on angiotensinogen to yield angiotensin I.
2. Angiotensin I is cleaved by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE), producing angiotensin II 3. Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to realease aldosterone. 4. Aldosterone causes the kidneys to reclaim still more sodium and water. |
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Functions of Angiotensin II
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* Constricts the walls of the arterioles closing down capillary beds
* Stimulates the proximal tubules in the kidney to reabsorb sodium ions * Stimulates the adrenal cortex to realease aldosterone. * Increases the strength of the heartbeat * Stimulates the pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
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Source of ADH
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Pituitary
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Function of ADH
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conserve body water by reducing the loss of water in urine
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source of aldosterone
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zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
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function of aldosterone
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* The conservation of sodium
* Secretion of potassium * Increased water retention * Increased blood pressure ** The overall effect of aldosterone is to increase reabsorption of ions and water in the kidney -- increasing blood volume and, therefore, increasing blood pressure. |
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source of Erythropoietin
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* Produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney (adults)
* It is also produced in Ito cells in the liver (mainly in fetal and perinatal periods). |
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function of Erythropoietin
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acts on bone marrow to increase the production of red blood cells
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source of calcitrol
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produced in the cells of the proximal tubule of the nephron in the kidneys
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3 functions of calcitrol
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1. Acts on the cells of the intestine to promote the absorption of calcium from food
2. Acts on bone to mobilize calcium from the bone to the blood 3. Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium thus reducing the loss of calcium in the urine. |
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Azotemia
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biochemical abnormality characterized by elevation of blood urea and creatinine but without obligatory clinical renal disease.
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Uremia
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“urine in the blood”; clinical syndrome of renal failure; characterized by the presence of “uremic toxins” in circulating blood
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Based on percent loss of renal function, at what point will your patient present with clinical disease?
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~ 75%
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stage of diminished renal reserve
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GFR ~50% of normal; asymptomatic
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Stage of renal insufficiency
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GFR 20-50% of normal; azotemia, polyuria
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Renal Failure
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GFR 20-25% of normal; uremia
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End-stage Renal Disease
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GFR < 5% of normal; terminal stages
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3 general causes of renal failure
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1. Pre-renal
2. Renal 3. Post-renal |
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Pre vs. Post renal
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Pre-renal: Is fromreduced renal blood flow (hypovolemia, shock)
* Post-renal: is from an bstruction of urine outflow through the lower urinary tract. |
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Death from renal failure is usually due to what?
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cardiotoxicity of elevated serum K+, metabolic acidosis, and pulmonary edema
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Mechanism of Pulmonary Edema associated with renal disease
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Increased vascular permeability
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Mechanism of Fibrinous pericarditis associated with renal disease
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Increased vascular permeability
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Mechanism of Ulcerative and hemorrhagic gastritis associated with renal disease
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Ammonia secretion and vascular necrosis
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Mechanism of Ulcerative and necrotic stomatitis associated with renal disease
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Ammonia secretion in saliva and vascular necrosis
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Mechanism of Atrial and aortic thrombosis associated with renal disease
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Endothelial subendothelial damage
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Mechanism of Hypoplastic anemia associated with renal disease
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Increased erythrocyte fragility and lack of erythropoietin production
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Mechanism of Soft-tissue mineralization associated with renal disease
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Altered calcium-phosphorus metabolism
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Mechanism of Fibrous osteodystrophy associated with renal disease
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Altered calcium-phosphorus metabolism
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Mechanism of Parathyroid hyperplasia associated with renal disease
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Altered calcium-phosphorus metabolism
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Cause of “fetal” lobulation of the kidney
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It occurs when there is incomplete fusion of the developing renal lobules.
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Kidney Aplasia
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* Complete embryonic failure of development. (no kidney formed!)
*Bilateral incompatible with life. *Unilateral aplasia associated with contralateral compensatory hypertrophy. * Occurs infrequently in all species. |
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Kidney Hypoplasia
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- Quantitative defect of renal development resulting in small kidneys with a reduced number of histologically normal lobules
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kidney Dysplasia
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Kidneys often grossly small, misshapen, and firm due to fibrosis with thick-walled cysts
** microscopically by the presence of structures inappropriate for the stage of development |
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Know diseases, in the perinatal period, that can cause renal dysplasia. Dog? Cats?
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* Canine – neonatal infection by canine herpesvirus
*Feline – fetal infection with panleukopenia virus |
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Polycystic kidney disease, know what species have the heritable form.
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pigs, lambs, cats, and dogs
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Polycystic kidney disease
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* Typically a progressive disease that can produce renal failure
* - Cysts are often widespread, numerous, and variable in size with nearly complete effacement of the parenchyma |
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Distinguish between renal hyperemia versus congestion.
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* Hyperemia – active process-acute inflammation
* Congestion – passive process (CHF, venous outflow obstruction) |
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Pathogenesis of renal cortical necrosis
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* Cause of acute renal failure secondary to ischemic necrosis of the renal cortex
* Seen most frequently with Gram-negative septicemia or endotoxemia. * Endothelial damage results in activation of the clotting cascade and widespread capillary thrombosis. |
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Primary papillary necrosis is seen in animals treated with what?
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NSAIDs
* NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and eliminate the normal mechanism that the medullary region of the kidney uses to provide adequate blood flow. |
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Primary papillary necrosis aka
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medullary crest necrosis
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three main classifications associated with Glomerular disease
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1. Hereditary
2. Primary 3. Secondary |
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Examples of Heriditary glomerular dz
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Alport’s and Fabry’s syndromes
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primary glomerular dz
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the disease process originates from the glomerulus ( most common)
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Examples of secondary glomerular dz
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* secondary to systemic diseases
* Diabetes mellitus * Bacterial endocarditis |
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3 ways glomerular disease can present asymptomatically
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1. Hematuria
2. Proteinuria 3. PU/PD |
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NephrOTIC syndrome is characterized by what 4 things?
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1. Proteinuria
2. Hypoalbuminemia 3. Edema 4. Hyperlipidemia/hyperlipiduria |
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NephrITIC syndrome is characterized by what main thing?
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1. Hematuria****
(as well as proteinuria, oliguria/anuria, hypertension, edema, and uremia) |
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Pyelonephritis
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inflammation of the pelvis and renal parenchyma.
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Pyelitis
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inflammation of the renal pelvis
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Distinguish between ascending and descending pyelonephritis.
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* Ascending: more common; originates as an extension of a bacterial infection in the lower urinary tract
* Descending: less common; due to embolic nephritis. |
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Vesicoureteral reflux
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an abnormal process that occurs secondary to derangement of the vesicoureteral orifice
** Reflux is enhanced by lower urinary tract obstruction or inflammation of the urinary bladder. |
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Hydronephrosis
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Dilatation of the renal pelvis due to obstruction of urine outflow
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Hydronephrosis is most commonly caused caused by what?
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* Ureteral or urethral blockage by urinary tract calculi
* Chronic inflammation * Neoplasia. |
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Know the 3 common neoplasm derived from renal
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1. Nephroblastoma
2. Adenoma 3. Carcinoma |
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common neoplasm derived from renal parenchyma most commonly seen in pigs and chickens
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Nephroblastoma
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Orgin of nephroblastoma
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Of embryonal origin arising from the metanephric blastema and thus occur in young animals.
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rare benign neoplasms arising from tubular epithelial cells
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Adenoma
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most common primary renal neoplasm
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carcinoma
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common neoplasm derived from renal parenchyma seen most frequently in older dogs
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carcinoma
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Neoplasia of the kidney that may be solitary or multiple masses that often reach a great size; soft to rubbery, gray with foci of hemorrhage and lobulated on cut surface.
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Nephroblastoma
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Appearance of kidney carcinomas
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spherical to oval, firm, and pale yellow with areas of hemorrhage and necrosis
* Metastasis to the lungs is frequent. |
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most common malformation of the urinary bladder
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patent urachus
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patent urachus
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Fetal urachus fails to close forming a direct channel between the apex of the bladder and the umbilicus.
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most commonly affected by patent urachus
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Foals
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most common type of urinary bladder tumors
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Epithelial neoplasms
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3 Epithelial neoplasms of urinary bladder
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1.) transitional cell papilloma, carcinoma
2.) Squamous cell carcinoma 3.)Adenocarcinoma |
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2 common types of urinary bladder tumors
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1. Epithelial neoplasms
2. Mesenchymal tumors |
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most common mesenchymal tumor of the bladder that appears as solitary or multiple masses in the urnary bladder wall
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Leiomyoma
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Botryoid rhabdomyosarcomas
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rare mesenchymal tumor of the bladder seen in young dogs
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pathogensis of a descending pyelonephritis
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A systemic bacterial infection that is circulating in the blood and is filtered through the kidney.
The bacteria are not expended from the kidney and cause an inflammatory response. |
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A patient with the following systemic/glomerular disease would initally present as a (nephritic or nephrotic) syndrome: membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
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nephritic
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A patient with the following systemic/glomerular disease would initally present as a (nephritic or nephrotic) syndrome: benign hypertension
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nephrotic
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A patient with the following systemic/glomerular disease would initally present as a (nephritic or nephrotic) syndrome: IgA nephropathy
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nephritic
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A patient with the following systemic/glomerular disease would initally present as a (nephritic or nephrotic) syndrome: membranous glomerulopathy
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nephrotic
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A patient with the following systemic/glomerular disease would initally present as a (nephritic or nephrotic) syndrome: diabetes mellitus
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nephritic
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A patient with the following systemic/glomerular disease would initally present as a (nephritic or nephrotic) syndrome: amyloidosis
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nephritic
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Explain how you may see hyperlipidemia and hyperlipiduria simultaneously in a patient with early stages of nephrotic syndrome.
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When the patient begins losing HDLs in the urine due to nephrotic syndrome, the body well sense that loss and begin increasing production of LDL
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Outline pathogenesis of an ascending pyelonephritis
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There is something downstream of the kidney causing an obstruction. Urine will begin to back up and cause the renal pelvis to dilate. This will damage the renal parenchyma.
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