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213 Cards in this Set

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Undescended testes increasing the rate of malignancy and sterility.
cryptorchidism
Inflamation of the testes due to viral/bacterial infections (mumps/TB,syphilis) -->infertility.
Orchitis
_________ is the most common STD, male and female, causing ________ urethritis.
Chlamydia, non-purulent
Purulent urethritis is caused by ______.
Neisseria gonorrhea
Abnormal opening of the urethra on the lower shaft of the .
hypospadia
________ is caused by benign hyperplasia of the prostate usually post-op, leading to constriciton of the urinary tract --> infection.
Prostatitis
This STD causes vessicles --> ulcers and has no cure.
Herpes
Treponema pallidum is a spirochete causing this STD.
Syphilis
Macular-papular rash, condyloma lata and mucous patch are signs of what stage of syphilis?
secondary
What stage of syphilis is charcterized by a chancre at the site of innoculation which usually heals in 4-6 weeks.
primary
Gummas (granulomas), tabes dorsalis (CNS - unsteady gate), dissecting arotic aneurysms, perivasculitis, dementia are signs of this NON curable stage of syphilis.
tertiary
______ is the most common testicular neoplasm, peak incidence @ 35 with good prognosis.
Seminoma
Embryonal cell cracinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma and teratoma are _________ germ cell tumors.
non-seminomatous (NSGCT's)
Most aggressive, 1/3 metastisize, NSGCT causing increased hCG.
embryonal cell
_____ tumor has a peak age of 3 w/ elevated alpha fetal protein.
Yolk sac
Which NSGCT is most malignant?
Choriocarcinoma
_______ are comprised of emdryonic layers which can be malignant.
Teratomas
T/F Benign prostate hyperplasia is related to prostate cancer.
False - may co-exist
Urinary obstruction, increased urinary frequency, hesitancy (stage fright), increased infections are symptoms of ______.
benign prostate hyperplasia
_________ carcinoma is the most common cancer in men and frequently metastisizes to ______.
Prostate, bone
List the risk factors of prostate carcinoma.
none
Which is not a predisposing factor for pelvic inflammatory disease: early ual activity, multiple partners, recurrent STD's, infertitlity, IUD use.
infertitlity is a complication of PID
Which is not a complication of PID: pain, infertitlity, l discharge, pelvic abscess, ectopic pregnancy.
all are complications
________ is the most common malignancy of the female genitalia.
Endometrial carcinoma
Endometrial carcinoma risk factors include the following except: obesity, hypoestrogenism, nulliparous, early menarche or late menopause.
hypoestrogen, HYPER is correct
Cervical cancer commonly occurs in the "______" zone betweeen the endo and ecto-cervix.
transition
________ is the most common uterine tumor, often multiple, and is estrogen sensitive.
Leiomyoma (benign), increased incidence with inc estrogen
T/F Leiomyomas are pre-malignant.
False
Endometriosis is manifested by severe menstrual pain; it is related to cancer.
True; false it is not related to cancer
Endometriosis is characterized by functional, hormonally responding endometrial tissue tumors forming ______ the uterus. This leads to menstrual bleeding "chocolate cysts" leading to pain, adhesions and _______.
outside, infertility - due to close proximity to uterine tubes
T/F Ovarian cancers cause more s than all other tumors of the female repro tract.
TRUE
Gastric carcinoma metastatic to overies featuring signet ring cells.
Kruckenburg tumors - signet ring cells
Preeclampsia causes all the following except: hypertension, albuminemia, edema, convulsions.
convulsions = eclampsia
Coma and convulsions during or immediately after pregnancy, characterized by edema, hypertension, DIC and proteinuria.
eclampsia
Sheehan syndrome is caused by _______ anterior pituitary necrosis.
postpartum
________ results from abnormal fertilization (46XX paternal) causing grape-like placental villi in loose stroma.
Hydatiform mole
Edema of the eustachian tube causing fluid accumulation of the middle ear usually in children is _______.
otitis media --> bulging tympanic membrane --> hearing loss
Particle size:__-__ microns do not reach distal airways, __-__ microns impact at bifurcation on distal airways, __ microns act as a gas
5-10, 1-5, .5
Particle concentration:__-__ppm overcomes scrubbing action
1-5 ppm
Non neoplastic lung reaction to mineral dust like silica & coal, macrophage phagocytosis & release of mediators --> fibrosis
Pneumoconiosis
Slowly progressive nodular fibrosis mostly in upper lobes, quartz smaller that a micron is retained & causes fibrosis (sandblasters & miner workers)
Silicosis
Diffuse parenchymal interstitial fibrosis, bronchiogenic carcinoma, localized fibrous plaques on pleural surface, mesiothelioma, lower lobes of lungs
Asbestosis
which is the more pathological form of asbestosis, Amphibole or Serpentine?
Amphibole
most common cause of preventable mortality, slows healing, contains carcinogens, toxins, CO, & nicotine
smoking
Then best indicator nicotine intake is _________ blood/urine levels
Continine
Cancer of the lung, Chronic bronchitis, emphysema, MI, Systemic atherosclerosis, oral cancer are all effects of _________
Smoking
Causes decreased O2 to heart (lung disease), contaction of coronary arteries, ventricular fibrillation & increased risk of MI
Smoking
Can cause anaplastic anemia
Chloramphenicol
Can cause hemolytic anemia & anaphylaxis
Penicillin
Can cause acute tubular necrosis
Aminoglycosides
Can cause asthma & tinnitus
Salicylate (asprin)
Can cause Hepatic change
Tetracycline, Tylenol
Can cause Lupus
Hydralazine
Can cause respiratory depression
sedatives
Which is NOT an effect of exogenous estrogen: Enometrial carcinoma, breast carcinoma, thrombo-embolism, & cardiovascular disease.
Cardio disease is actually reduced by estrogen, endometrial c. increase when used alone, breast c. worse in combination w/ progestin
Breast carcinoma (after 45) and cervical carcinoma (risk based on lifestyle) are effects of oral contraceptives. OC is protective against endometrial carcinoma and ovarian carcinoma (T/F)
True; True
Oral antibiotics increase the effect of oral contraceptives
FALSE
Acetaminophen over dose (15-25g) can lead to _____ _____
liver failure
An overdose (10-30g) of what leads to gastric ulcers, bleeding (by stoping formation of thromboxane 2), fluid electrolyte imbalance, respiratory alkalosis, & metabolic acidosis
Asprin
_____________ is responsible for the damage in ethanol overdose (a metabolite)
Acetaldehyde
Most addictive of all drugs (intense euphoria), no physical dependance, psychological withdrawal difficult (years)
Cocaine (yes, Nic you crack head)
Can cause life threatening situation in dental chair due to epi in local anesthesia --> arrhythmias (it blocks epi reuptake)
cocaine
Cocaine cause all of the following except: arrhythmias, open pupils, talkativeness, normal anxiety, jitteriness, tremor
normal anxiety, it resembles it but must be differentiated from
Acute effects of cocaine cause all of the following except: dialated pupils, vasoconstriction, rise in BP, tachycardia, arrhythmia, platelet aggregation, hyperpyrexia (high body temp), & rhabdomylosis (degeneration of muscle)
all of the above are effects
Chronic effects of cocaine cause all of the following except: perforation of nasal septum, increased lung capacity, dilated cardiomyopathy
increased lung capacity (should be decreased)
Heroin cause all of the following except: pupil constriction, xerostomia, slurred speech, pain reaction threshold decreased
pain reaction threshold decreased--it is actually INCREASED
T or F: cocaine is more hazardous than heroin.
FALSE
You can die from heroin overdose from all of the following except: respiratory arrest, severe hemmorrhage, arrythmia, cardiac arrest.
severe hemmorrage
What is the initial "rush" of heroin due to?
histamine release
What stage of heroin use includes the following symptoms: vasoconstriction, sweating, pupillary dilation
cold turkey stage
Which heart valves can become infected due to side effects of heroin use?
right sided heart valves
All of the following are side effects of heroin use except: pulmonary edema, viral hepatitis, hypopigmentation, amyloidosis, constipation.
hypopigmentation (should be HYPERpigmentation)
T or F: Heroin addicts should be prescribed opiate analgesics.
False, Biatch!!!!
T or F: NSAIDS should be prescribed for heroin addicts
TRUE
Vicodin, Vicoprofen, and Lortab are all_______.
Hydrocodones
What do the effects of Hydrocodones mimic?
Morphine
What definition? Compulsive, obsessive pattern of abuse. Abuser feels life is impossible w/out the
Psychological abuse
What definition? Manifestation of withdrawal syndrome. Body goes through unpleasant experiences if user suddenly stops .
physiological abuse
What is the most widely used illegal ?
mary jane baby, light it up
delta-9 tertrahydro cannabinol is the psychoactive substance in what ?
marijuana
In california where the reefer is legal for medicinal purposes, what treatement is it effective for?
glaucoma and radiation sickness
T or F: marijuana can cause birth defects
true, through chromosomal damage
all of the following are effects of methamphetamine except: temporary mood elevation, exhilaration (high), Increased mental alertness, sleepiness
sleepiness
T or F: you can become addicted to meth from just one use.
TRUE
All of the following are side effects of meth use except: heart irregularities, Low pressure, depression, restlessness, tremors, severe fatigue.
Low pressure
what level of caffeine increases performance?
30-200 mg
what level of caffeine makes you a wired, crazed lunatic?
>500 mg
the acceptable limit for lead intake is ____ ug/dl; __________lead is more hazardous; ___% of ingested is absorbed; ____% ingested by kids is absorbed; ____% is taken up by bone; and lead binds to _________.
25; volatized; 10; 50; 80; disulfides
Formation of zinc protoporphyrin, gum line effect, anemia, and lines in your bones, a "wrist drop" (sort of like eric's) are all characteristic of what?
lead poisoning
what causes basophilic stippling of RBC's?
lead
Hemoglobin has 200 times more affinity for ___ than _______.
CO; Oxygen
In regards to CO poisoning, ________ ________ occurs at 20-30% saturation, and _____________ occurs at 60-70% saturation.
systemic hypoxia; unconsciousness
How quickly can you die if you leave your car running in your garage?
five minutes
What disease? Slight headache, nausea, vomiting, fatigue
mild exposure to CO
what disease? Throbbing headache, drowsiness, fast heart rate
medium exposure to CO
what disease? Convusions, uncosciousness, heart & lung failure, brain damage and possibly
severe exposure to CO
What people are are most affected by CO poisoning?
unborn babies, infants, ppl w/ heart disease
Hemifacial microsomia results in a maldeveloped external ear along with aplasia of the ________ bone and _______.
zygomatic, mandible --> TMJ problems
Why are children more prone to otitis media?
shallow inclination of eustachian tube (10 vs. 40 degrees)
Glue ear is a bacterial chronic otitis media. T/F
False = non-bacterial
________ is an in tion of squamous epidermis --> tympanic membrane into middle ear causing an inclusion cyst.
Chlolesteatoma
The most common cause of conductive hearing loss in middle aged individuals.
Otosclerosis = deposition of bone around oval window
Vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitis, due to hydrops (dialated membranous labyrinth), are part of the clinical triad of this disease found in 40-60 year olds.
Meniere's
List three types of hearing loss.
conductive, sensory and neural
Which is not a form of sensory hearing loss: noise trauma, presbycusis, otosclerosis, ototoxic .
otosclerosis = conductive along
Which is the least common type of deafness caused by MS, neuromas and lesions to CN VIII?
neural
Impacted cerumen, tympanic membrane trama, effusions of the middle ear, cholestetoma, hematoma and otosclerosis are forms of ______ deafness.
conductive
T/F Continuity exists between the sphenomandibular ligament and the malleolar ligament of the middle ear.
TRUE
The chorda tympani provides special sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and is in close proximity to the inner and middle ear. T/F
TRUE
Type I fibers are ________ used for ___________.
aerobic; endurance
These fibers make up 1/3 of muscle fibers, rich in mitochondria and myoglobulin, stain very lightly w/ mhyosin atpase
type I (aerobic) fibers
These fibers make up 2/3 of all muscle fibers, glycogen rich, fast-contracting myosin, dark fibers on staining, susceptible to metabolic insult during prolonged periods of disuse.
anaerobic (type II) fibers
A given motor neuron will innervate ______ fiber type(s), and the fiber type is determined by the ________.
one; neuron
What muscle disease? Progressive, genetically determined; degeneration of skeletal muscle, wasting, weakness, increaesd serum creatine kinase
Muscular dystrophy
What ist the most common form of muscular dystrophy?
Duchenne's
What muscle disease? Def. Of dystrophin, X linked, weakness initially in proximal extremity muscles and pelvic girdle, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, GOWER's sign, die in early 20's or teens.
Duchenne's
What is the sign called that is hard to get to a standing position from squatting?
Gower's sign
What is the milder form of Duchenn'es muscular dystrophy called?
Becker's (appears later in life--this is how you tell because Duchenn'es usually appears in children)
What muscle disease? Autosomal nt, triple nucleotide repeat, symptoms begin as , weakness of hands and foot muscles initially, Hatchet Face, inc frequency of cardiomyopathy, cataracts, and diabetes
myotonic dystrophy
What is the second most common muscular dystrophy?
myotonic dystrophy
T or F: myotonic dystrophy can worsen in subsequent generations.
true, the triple nuclotide repeat mutation is amplified
What are the autoimmune muscle disorders?
Myasthenia gravis, polymyosiitis/dermatomyositis
Myasthenia gravis has all the following characteristics except: autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors, men(20-35 yrs old) and women (50-60 yrs old), muscle weakness intensified by muscle use, associated with tumors of the thymus, thymic hyperplasia, ocular muscle droop (ptosis), diplopia, inability to chew
The men and women ages should be switched
What muscle disease? Chronic degenerative autoimmune process involving proximal muscles of extremities--weakness and pain walking up stairs, necrotic muscle surrounded by lymphocytes and plasma cells in biopsy
Polymyositis
What is polymyositis called when it involves the skin also?
dermatomyositis
what is the major symptom associated with dermatomyositis?
heliotrope (iliac rash) discoloration around the eyes
T or F: myotonic dystrophy involves only type I fibers
TRUE
What percent of tumors associated with myasthenia gravis are thymomas?
15%
What percent of thyus associated problems due to myasthenia gravis is thymic hyperplasia?
65%
What rare disorder is associated with small oat cell lung cancer?
Eaton Lambert syndrome
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children (malignant)
Rhabdomyosarcoma
What is the most common cause of peripheral nueropathy?
Diabetes
In infectious myositis, _________ causes tetanus, __________causes gas gangrene, parasites cause __________, and the virus involved is ____________.
clostridium tetani, clostridium perfringens, trichinosis, coxsackie virus
All of the following cause peripheral neuropathy except: diabetes, immune disorders, alcohol excess, Vitamin C deficiency, toxins, infection (AIDS), congenital
Vitamin C def. (Vitamin B DOES)
What are the supporting cells of the nervous system and form part of brain barrieer?
astrocytes
What forms the myelin around nerves in the CNS analagous to a schwann man cell?
oligodendrocytes
what cells line the cerebral ventricles?
ependymal cells
what nervous cells are scavenger cells?
microglia
What is the infectious agent in spongiform encephalopathies?
prions
T or F: prions have DNA
FALSE
T or F: prions have a short incubation period
FALSE
What is the prion caused disease in cow's?
bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)
What is the human form of mad cow disease?
creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
This disease is found in new guinea and is transmitted by eating infected brains
Kuru
Is MS Autoimmune or infectious?
It has been associated with both
____% of MS cases in US are caucasian
95%
T or F: MS is more common in tropical climates.
false; more common in moderate to cold climates
In MS, visual disturbances occur _____% of the time and limb weakness occurs______% of the time.
20; 40
What cells are destroyed in multiple sclerosis?
oligodendrocytes
MS affects the _______ matter of the brain
white
What disorder of the brain can thiamine deficiency cause?
beriberi (also Wernicke's encephalopathy and Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome
Thiame def. Is most often seen in what population.
Piss drunks
What disease? Paralysis of extraocular muscles, ataxia, mental confusion
Wernicke's encephalopathy
What disease? Loss of recent memory, confabulation (making up stories)
Korsakoff's psychosis (repeated bouts of Wernicke's)
Vit B12 deficiency can cause all of the following except: high pressure, uncoordinated movements, abnormal gait, psychiatric symptoms
High pressure (doesn't mention anything about pressure)
Nicotinic acid is AKA ______
Vitamin B3
Nicotinic acid def. Causes the 3 D's: Dermatitis (photosensitivity), Diarrhea and __________.
Delirium
What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?
Alzheimer's disease
What disease? Slow progressive memory loss, genetic in small #'s, Neurofibrillary tangles and plaques, atrophy of cerebral cortex
Alzheimer's disease
A telltale sign of Alzheimer's Disease is __________ sulci and ________ gyri.
widened; narrowed
A patient with down syndrome survives past age 40. What neurological disorder are the patient's symptoms most likely to mimic?
Alzheimer's disease
What over-the-counter medicine is supposed to inhibit the effects of Alzheimer's?
NSAIDS (like ibuprofen)
What disease? Movement disorder, changes in extrapyramidal (involuntary) motor system, depigmented substantia nigra, Lewy bodies.
Parkinson's
The symptoms of Parkinson's include all of the following except: Pill rolling tremor, bradykinesia, dementia, instability while walking, flacidity, expresionless face.
Flacidity (should be rigidity)
T or F: there is a cure for parkinson's
FALSE
This cell is stained pink (eosinophilic) and is seen in Parkinson's disease
Lewy Body
Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, Huntington's corea, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are all ____________ diseases
degenerative
What disease? Abnormality in chromsome 4, increased CAG trinucleotide repeats
Huntington's (chorea)
What disease? Involuntary gyrating movements, progressive dementia, brain atrophy, caudate nucleus, clinical abnormalities present in 30's to 40's
Huntington's (chorea)
What is the "layman" name for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
Lou Gehrig's disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) presents w/ wasting and weakness of small muscles in hands, and is the loss of ________ cerebrospinal pathways in spinal cord.
Lateral
ALS is a progressive disorder of upper or lower motor neurons?
both
All of the following are characteristic of CNS neoplasms except: only 2% of cancer s, High mortality rate, Prominent in older age groups, 50% are primary, 50% metastasis
Prominent in older age groups (they are more prominent in younger age groups)
T or F: Primary malignant tumors of the CNS never metastasize
True dat, hippie
The four types of CNS tumors to remember are: Gliomas, Meningiomas, Medulloblastomas, and ___________.
retinoblastoma
What 2 subgroups of gliomas are there?
Astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme
What is the most common primary CNS tumor?
Glioblastoma multiforme (stage four astrocytoma)
An astrocytoma becomes a glioblastoma multiforme when it reaches grade ___.
Four
Astrocytomas occur in which part of the brain?
Cerebellum
What is the second most common CNS neoplasm?
Meningioma
All are characteristic of meningioma except: arise from the dura, rapid growth, compresses the brain
rapid growth
Meningiomas are characteristic of which of the following? Lewy bodies, caudate nucleus, pill-rolling tremor, psammoma bodies, depigmented substantia nigra?
Psammomma bodies (calcifications)
Meningiomas are benign or malignant?
benign
T or F: Benign meningiomas don't affect brain function.
False, because they compress the brain
Retinoblastoma is more common in kids or s?
kids
What area of the brain does medulloblastoma occur?
Cerebellum
All are characteristic of medulloblastoma except: more common in children, rapid growth, poor prognosis, psammoma bodies
Psammomma bodies (calcifications)
A ______ (hordeolum) is and acute supporative ______ infection of the hair folicle and associated glands of the eye.
Sty, staph
_______ is chronic inflammation of an obstructed meibomian gland often mistaken for a neoplasm.
Chalazion
__________, occuring in diabetics and other hyperlipidemic conditions, are small lipid plaques of foamy macrophages.
Xanthelasmas
________ aka "pink eye" is contagious and caused by a virus or bacteria.
Conjunctivitis
Viral conjuctivitis = _____ discharge and _____ vision.
watery, blurred
_______ conjunctivitis = purulent discharge and no blurring
bacterial
______ caused by chlamydia, are associated with ulcers and scarring leading to blindness.
Trachomas
Inflammation of the cornea is called ______.
keratitis
Hypertensive retinopathy leads to the formation of microaneurysms and hemorrhages into the retinal nerve fibers called ___________.
dot and flame hemorrhages
Edema of the optical disc is called _________ causing irreversible damage.
papiledema
Narrowing of retinal arterioles leads to a "copper wire effect" due to ____.
hypertensive retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy promotes the formation of ______ and microaneurysms.
cataracts
Diabetic vessels are more permeable leading to edema and hemorrhage into the eye. This is known as ________ retinopathy and characterized by "________" and may lead to retinal detachment in severe cases.
background, "cotton-wool spots"
Due to progressive damage or atrophy to the optic nerve _______ causes peripheral loss of eyesight.
glaucoma
Which is not a risk factor of glaucoma: over 60, familial history of glaucoma, diabetes, farsightedness, smoking, black pt over 40.
farsighted, NEARsighted is correct.
Priamary glaucoma is idiopathic; secondary is related to a preexisting eye disease.
True; True
Secondary glaucoma is the most common form. T/F
FALSE
Priamary glaucoma can be classified as open or closed angle. Open angle is caused by _________.
INTERNAL blockage of eye's drainage canals = increased P
"Steamy cornea," rainbow halos around lights at night, acute onset intraocular pain and blurred vision are all due to ____ angle glaucoma caused by _______ drainage canal blockage.
closed, ENTERING
The most common cause of decreased vision in the US is _______, causing clouding of the lens due to the natural aging process.
Cataracts
The most common eye tumor of infants and young s.
Retinoblastoma - deletion of Rb gene
Oral contraceptives do NOT cause which one of the following: Thrombo embolism, Hypertension, Cardiovascular disease, Coronary artery disease
Coronary artery disease
Oral contraceptives do NOT cause which one of the following: Thrombo embolism, Hypertension, Cardiovascular disease, Coronary artery disease
Coronary artery disease
P-450 is an enzyme that helps detoxify ethanol & medications (T/F)
True
What is the most common cause of liver injury/cirrhosis (from environmental factors)?
Alcohol (chronic alcoholism)
Which is a positive effect of alcohol: cerebral atrophy, cerebellar degeneration, optic neuropathy, inc HDL in , oral cancer.
inc in HDL