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307 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Absence of a limb
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Amelia
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Fusion of digits
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Syndactyly
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Multiple digits
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Polydactyly
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Permanent flexure of the limbs
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Arthrogryposis
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Ingestion of lupines from day 40-70 of gestation results in ____.
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arthrogyposis
aka crooked calves *only occurs during fetal development |
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Bluetongue
Manganese deficiency genetics --can all cause ____. |
arthropgryposis
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Kiphosis and Lordosis are types of ___ deformities
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spinal
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DORSAL curvature of the spine:
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Kyphosis
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VENTRAL curvature of the spine:
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Lordosis
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LATERAL curvature of the spine:
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Scoliosis
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Failure of the neural arch to close. May leave spinal cord or meninges exposed:
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Spina Bifida
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Failure of fusion in the fetal spine producing small vertebra
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Hemivertebra
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What are the 3 types of Osteodystrophy?
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periosteal hyperostosis
osteogenesis imperfecta osteopetrosis |
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a proliferation of periosteal new bone on long bones:
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periosteal hyperostosis
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this osteodystrophy is an inherited disease of PIGS and the animals are STILLBORN
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Periosteal hyperostosis
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the cortex of the bones is thin and trabeculae are decreased in number:
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osteogenesis imperfecta
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what types of osteodystrophy are found in cattle?
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osteogenesis imperfecta
osteopetrosis |
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this is a rare inherited disease of cattle characerized by defective osteoid formation:
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osteogenesis imperfecta
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this is an increase in the thickness of a bone due to an inherited osteoclas defect.
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osteopetrosis
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What do the bones of an animal with osteopetrosis look like?
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bone is thick with NO medullary cavity
bone is brittle and prone to fracture *affected LAMBS and CALVES are usually stillborn |
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what part of the bone is affected by chondrodystrophy???
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cartilage of the growth plates formed by endochondral ossification
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T/F: chondrodystrophy is genetic.
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true
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chondrodystrophy is generally (local/generalized).
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either/or
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What does an animal with generalized chondrodystrophy look like?
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dwarf
*bones are proportional, but short |
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what is the etiology of chondrodystrophy?
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premature closing of the growth plate
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T/F: chondrodystrophy is normal in some species.
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true
*bull dogs, pekingese |
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T/F: chondrodystrophy is normal in the malamute.
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false
chondrodystrophy is pathologic in the malamute only normal in stubby breeds like bulldog and pekingese. |
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_____ occurs when bone is damaged by any cause such as fracture, osteomyelitis, neoplasia.
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Hemorrhage
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ISCHEMIA occurs commonly in bones following ____, ____, or ____ and leads to NECROSIS.
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fracture, neoplasia, inflammation
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____ is common in miniature dog breeds and leads to the collapse of the femoral head.
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Aseptic necrosis
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Hypertrophic osteopathy is a (common/rare) disease of the (cat/cow/dog/horse/sheep).
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RARE
DOG |
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hypertrophic osteopathy occurs secondary to ___, ____, or ___.
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neoplasia
inflammation space occupying dz in lung *others include lesions of the heart, abdomen or urinary bladder |
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___ is a periosteal proliferation of bone along the diaphysis of limb bones that is usually symmetrical.
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hypertrophic osteopathy
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how does the "primary mass"cause secondary hypertrophic osteopathy? How could this be treated?
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stimulates INCREASED VASCULAR PERFUSION to the PERIOSTEUM by an unknown mechanism
may be mediated by the VAGUS nerve *treat mass or VAGOTOMY |
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What is the general cause of osteomalacia and rickets?
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inadequate mineralization of bone
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T/F: osteomalacia is a disease of young growing animals while rickets is the adult form of the same disease.
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FALSE
rickets = young growing animals osteomalacia = adult form |
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___ and ___ are bone diseases, rare in domestic animals and most common in EXOTICS and CHICKENS
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Osteomalacia
Rickets |
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What is the term for microscopic bone?
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osteoid
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deficiencies in vitamin D and phosphorus can cause ___ or ___.
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osteomalacia
rickets |
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what are ways to develop a deficiency in vitamin D if the diet is supplying adequate amounts of it?
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malabsorption
inadequate sunlight (required for conversion of Vit D) secondary to chronic renal dz (failure to activate Vit D) |
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New World monkeys and Chickens are the MOST susceptible species to ____ because they cannot utilize dietary sources of ____.
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Rickets
Vit D2 |
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What do the bones of a rickets case look like?
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soft, flexible, may fracture easily
cortices are THIN Cancellous bone SOFT deformities occur in response to normal weight bearing |
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T/F: Rickets affects growth plates that are short and irregular in width.
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False.
- LONG growth plates (irregular Yes) |
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What happens to the metaphysis affected by rickets?
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becomes widened
collapses under weight bearing = mushroom shape |
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___ affects NEW bone formed during the remodeling process in the adult after the growth plates have closed.
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osteomalacia
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What do the bones of an adult with osteomalacia look like?
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wide
UNMINERALIZED SEAMS of osteoid *prone to deformity and fracture |
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When Vit D deficiency is the cause of osteomalacia and rickets, ____ also develops which causes ____.
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Hypocalcemia---> hyperparathyroidism
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___ may be seen in Vitamin D deficient rickets as a result of the hyperparathyroidism.
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Fibrous osteodystrophy
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adult collie dog with unilateral hemorrhagic nasal discharge.
differentials? how to diagnose? |
Nasal carcinoma
Rhinitis fungal infx trauma *nasal biopsy |
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what would an infection of macrophages in the nasal passages be called?
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granulomatous rhinitis
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you have a dog with a hemorrhagic nasal discharge. you biopsy and find lymphocytes and plasma cells. The exudate from the nasal passages shows a mat of fungal hyphae. What is your etiologic and pathologic diagnosis?
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lymphoplasmocytic rhinitis (pathologic dx)
Mycotic Rhinitis (etiologic dx) |
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adult M German shorthair pointer
off feed, depressed, losing weight, dyspnea, febrile, harsh lung sounds, cervical lymphadenopathy, reddened conjunctiva, mild bilateral visual deficit Gross: lung is covered with white/yellow multifocal distinct foci. Microscopical: multifocal = interstitial What origins are suggested by by the Gross and microsopic pathology... ie: where did this come from before it hit the lung? |
hematogenous-- anything that SHOWERS the lung (multifocal)
vegetative endocarditis neoplasm (generally larger foci) metastasis |
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How do you definitively diagnose lung infiltration?
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Histopathology
-- neoplasia vs macrophages vs lymphocytes vs neutrophils |
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Radiograph reveals a disseminated nodular interstitial pneumonia. Biopsy: MACROPHAGES are present in the biopsy of an MULTIFOCAL infiltrated lung particularly around the BRONCHIALS. What is this called?
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granulomatous interstitial bronchopneumonia
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T/F: disseminated blastomyces infection of the lung are easy to treat.
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False
* very difficult, and don't respond well to treatment |
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Dead steer at the feedbunk in a feedlot with several other sick calves (increased RR, T, slobber).
On necropsy, left and right cranioventral lobes are firm and have areas of fibrin. |
Locally extensive bronchopneumonia
bacterial-- enter through the airways = BRONCHOpneumonia |
|
|
What organisms can cause locally extensive bronchopneumonia in cattle?
What is the primary stimulus underlying bacterial infection? |
mannheimia
pastuerella histophilus *Viral: IBR, PI3, BRSV, BVD this is usually covered up by the bacterial damage |
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mature angus brood cow
good BCS sudden death necropsy: lung is diffusely infiltrated, rounded, congested microscopically: interstitial pneumonia POSSIBLE CAUSES? |
toxins
tryptophan- lush grass viral Metabolic oxygen toxicity acute respiratory distress syndrome |
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What is the specific characteristic associated with interstitial pneumonia?
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infiltration in the alveolar septa
|
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Cat
dyspnea auscultation: muffled heart sounds pleural effusion (rad) Differentials |
Trauma -- hemorrhage
Congestive heart failure-- transudate (hydrothorax) inflammation-- pyothorax Pleural effusion generally accompanied by pleuritis. |
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What are the causes of chylothorax in cats?
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-cardiomyopathy
- ruptured thoracid duct -obstruction of thoracic drain |
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Cat: dyspnea, auscultation: muffled heart sounds, pleural effusion (rad)
aspirate: neutrophils and RBCs Diagnosis? |
Pyothorax; pleuritis
penetrating wound pneumonia idiopathic |
|
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Dead pig:
necropsy: vegetative endocarditis, abnormal lungs (diffuse uniform RBC congestion) that are plump Differentials? |
-endocarditis (left side heart)--> pulmonary edema
-hypoproteinemia -Shock (bacterial showers of the lung d/t vegetative endocarditis would require that the lesion be on the right side of the heart versus edema caused by heart failure requires that the lesion be on the left side of the heart) |
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What are the 2 classes of edema?
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intercellular: vasogenic
intracellular: cytotoxic |
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Why does the cerebellum become cone shaped when the brain is edematous?
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as the brain swells, the cerebellum is forced into the foramen magnum and takes its shape.
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_______ edema is often focal and is seen with neoplasia, inflammation, and trauma.
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vasogenic (intercellular)
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What are the 3 congenital abnormalities of the nasal cavity?
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Cleft palate
Choanal atresia Bracycephalic airway syndrome |
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____ is the principle defense mechanism of airway conducting system.
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mucociliary clearance
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_____ is the defense mechanism in th exchange system (alveoli).
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alveolar macrophage
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what are the secondary diseases that can occur as a result of a severe cleft palate?
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rhinitis
aspiration pneumonia |
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____ is a narrowing or closure of the ventral meatus of the nasal cavity and occurs most often inllamas.
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choanal atresia
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____ is a respiratory impairment caused by an excessive length of the small palate and stenotic external nostrils in brachycephalic breeds of dogs.
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Brachycephalic airway syndrome
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what is epistaxis?
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nosebleed
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what can cause laryngeal edema/hemorrhage?
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Post-mortem
shock intubation |
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____ can cause rhinitis in the dog.
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distemper
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Atrophic Rhinitis is an important cause of economic loss in young swine. It is due to __ and __.
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Bordetella bronchiseptica
Pasteurella multocida |
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____ is a purulent rhinitis and lymphadenitis of horses caused by strep equi.
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Strangles
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Fungal infetions produce granulomatous inflammation and a solid mass in the nasal cavity. This must be differentiated from ____.
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nasal carcinoma
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What species gets ethmoid hematomas?
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horses
* chronic bleeding mass that causes scarring and obstruction in th ethmoid region |
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This is a polyp of cats arising in the eustachian tube.
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nasopharyngeal polyp
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infectious coryza of avians is a ____ and ____ caused by haemophilus gallinarum.
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infraorbital sinusitis
tracheitis |
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What pathologic signs might you see if a horse has an infected molar tooth?
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maxillary sinusitis
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What is a common cause of sinusitis in sheep?
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nasal bots
oestrus ovis |
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___ is a common disease of calves caused by fusobacterium necrophorum. (calf diptheria)
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necrotic laryngitis
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What is empyema?
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a pouch filled with pus
*guttural pouch empyema |
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What is wrong with a horse that is called a "roarer"?
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Laryngeal hemiplegia
*inspiratory distress due to recurrent laryngeal nerve damage and atrophy of the cricoarytenoideous muscle |
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ethmoidal neoplasms arise from olfactory epithelium and are caused by a ____. What species do they occur in most commonly?
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retrovirus
sheep |
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Where do rhabdomyomas of the URT occur and what species tends to get it?
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laryngeal neoplasia
dog |
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____ occurs commonly in toy and miniature breeds. (pathology of the conducting airways).
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Tracheal collapse
*dorsoventral *segmental or entire |
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PM exam: you find linear red streaks in the trachea. What is the term for this?
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Hyperemia
*usually diffuse *hemorrhage and edema may also occur |
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___, ___, and bronchiolitis frequently occur together and may be associated with inflammation of the lung or nasal cavity
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tracheitis
bronchitis |
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What is catarrhal inflammation? What are some primary causes?
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mucous exudate withOUT hyperemia
bordetella, adenovirus, parainfluenza virus |
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What is syngamus trachea?
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nodules in the airway due to a large red worm (attached to the nodule)
*TURKEYS |
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_____ is a parasitic disease of dogs. It produces nodules in the trachea.
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Oslerus Osleri
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____ is an example of allergic bronchitis in the horse.
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Heaves
*feline asthma in cats |
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Chronic bronchitis may progress to ____, which is a dilation of the bronchi due to partial rupture of the bronchial wall.
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Bronchiectasis
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Bonchiolitis ma progress to _______ when exudate in the bronchioes is NOT removed... It organizes into fibrous tissue that plugs the bronchiole
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bronciolitis obliterans
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____ is a metaplastic lesion of the cartilaginous rings.
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Chondromas
*not a true neoplasm |
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squamous metaplasia of the mucosa occurs in birds with ____ deficiency.
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Vitamin A
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T/F: hemorrhage into the lungs may produce epistaxis
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true
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_____ occurs in racehorses following exercise. (pathology of the lung)
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exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage
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T/F: infarction is uncommon in the lung.
|
true
*due to dual blood supply |
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____ is an incomplete distension of the alveoli.
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Atelectasis
*congenital- lungs do not inflate at birth *acquired- obstruction (rubbery not consolidated like pneumonia) |
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how do you differentiate atelectasis from pneumonia?
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Pneumonia- consolidated
Atelectasis- rubbery... risk of developing bronchopneumonia |
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___ is overinflatoin of the lungs.
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emphysema
|
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what do emphysema lungs look like grossly?
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pale
may have bullae (large blister) |
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____ emphysema is associated with excess air in the interlobular space.
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interstitial
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____ emphysema is assocated with excess air in the aveoli. It is generally secondary to ______.
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alveolar
bronchiolar obstruction |
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Horses with heaves have ____ cell metaplasia and obstruction of the airway by mucus. What is the term for this condition?
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goblet cell metaplasia
COPD |
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Does COPD occur in cats?
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no
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A dog presents in severe respiratory distress. You suspect lung torsion. What lobe is most likely involved?
|
accessory
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____ is the most important disease of the respiratory system of animals.
|
Pneumonia
|
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What are the 2 microscopic classifications of pneumonia?
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bronchopneumonia
interstitial pneumonia |
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what are the 3 gross patterns of pneumonia?
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diffuse
local locally extensive |
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In ______the primary lesion is a bronciolitis of the terminal bronchiole.
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bronchopneumonia
|
|
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in interstitial pneumonia the primary lesion is inflammation of the ____ or _____.
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alveolar septa
interstitium |
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T/F: Bacterial pathogens are common causes of diffuse interstitial pneumonia.
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False
*most causes are NONinfectious |
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What does a lung with diffuse interstitial pneumonia look like? (gross and microscopic)
|
overinflated, rubbery, heavy
alveolar septa lined by cuboidal (type II) cells instead of type I cells |
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What are some of the suspected metabolic causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
|
* ARDS = diffuse interstitial pneumonias
* heart failure pancreatitis DIC shock |
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Describe the gross appearance of a locally extensive distributed pneumonia.
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single- multiple areas of consolidation
sharply demarcated by firm, dark red appearance |
|
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most bronchopneumonias are classified grossly as ___.
|
locally extensive
|
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____ is the most important class of pneumonias of animals, espcieally food animals.
|
broncopneumonias
|
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What region of the Lungs are bronchopneumonias generally focused?
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anterior-- ventral
terminal bronchioles |
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why are terminal bronchioles susceptible to bronchopneumonia?
|
weak pulmonary defense
* poor mucociliary blanket (before) * no alveolar macrophages (after) |
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____ are the cause of most bronchopneumonias with ___ as initiators.
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Bacteria
Viruses |
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"thumps" in pigs is a locally extensive pneumonia caused by actinobacillus pleuropneumonia. Where do these lesions localize?
|
dorsally / unilateral
Hemorrhagic |
|
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What are the potential outcomes of bronchopneumonia?
|
resolution: no scarring
obliterative bronchiolotis bronchiectasis |
|
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____ is the term used to designate a bronchopneumonia of young food animals.
|
enzootic pneumonia
|
|
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T/F: enzootic pneumonia is not a significant clinical problem.
|
true
*more economically important |
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____ is an important cause of enzootic pneumonia of pigs.
|
mycoplasma hyopneumonia
|
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____ distribution has many small single DISCRETE foci throughout the lung.
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multifocal
|
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_____ pneumonia results from BACTERIAL SHOWERS that occur during bacteremia.
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metastatic or embolic
* the lung is often dotted with raised red, white or yellow foci that contain pus |
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_____ pneumonia is CHRONIC interstitial pneumonia characterized by firm raised lesions that are yellow, white, or grey.
|
Granulomatous
|
|
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Allergic pneumonitis is produced by a variety of inhaled antigens. ___ are most common.
|
Molds
*saccharopolyspora faeni |
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Verminous pneumonia can be caused by ___ or ____, both of which are lung worms.
|
dictyocaulus - ruminants
meulleris - sheep and goats |
|
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____ comprise 80% of lung neoplasms.
|
carcinomas
*occur at the periphery of the lung |
|
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Pulmonary adenomatosis is a carcnimoa in what species?
It is caused by ____ that produces firm gray and white plaques throughout the lung |
Sheep
retrovirus |
|
|
____ is the most common site for metastatic tumors to occur.
|
LUNG
|
|
|
___ may occur in conjunction with congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, pleuritis, or neoplasia.
|
Hydrothorax
*fluid in the chest |
|
|
What is IN chylothorax?
|
lymph fluid rich in triglycerides
|
|
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rupture of a blood vessel, coagulopathies, or DIC in the thorax could cause ____.
|
hemothorax
|
|
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Where could the air come from that fills the chest during pneumothorax?
|
air escapes the lung
enters through the diaphragm penetrating chest wound |
|
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Pyothorax is an accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity as a result of ___.
|
pleuritis
|
|
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what is the difference between pyothorax and chylothorax?
|
chylothorax - lymph/ tg
occurs in the thoracic cavity pyothorax - pus occurs in the pleural cavity |
|
|
polyserositis is pleuritis of the ___, ___, and ____.
|
peritoneum, pleura, pericardium
|
|
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____ can cause polyserositis in pigs.
|
hemophilus parasuis
or mycoplasma hyorhinis |
|
|
pleuritis that occurs as a result of pneumonia is called ___.
|
secondary pleuritis OR pleuropneumonia
|
|
|
what is the result of a resolved pleuritis?
|
adhesions between the lung and thoracic wall
|
|
|
penetrating plant awns are a common cause of ___ in dogs and cats
|
pyothorax
|
|
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___ is due to inhalation of abestos fibers an is seen most commonly in the peritoneum of ____.
|
mesothelioma
calves |
|
|
Name 3 metabolic bone diseases.
|
osteocondrosis
osteoporosisos tibial dyschondroplasia in birds osteomalacia/ rickets fibrous osteodystrophy scurvy fluorosis hypervitaminosis A in cats |
|
|
___ is characterized by a defect in endochondral ossification. Occurs most commonly in PIGS, horses, and large breed dogs.
|
Osteochondrosis
|
|
|
what occurs microscopically in osteochondrosis?
|
blood vessels fail to grow into hypertrophic zone of cartilage and this zone persists as focal thickend area that does not mineralize
*cartilage may collapse or break off (OCD) or form cysts |
|
|
____ commonly affects young domestic poultry... it is similar to osteochondrosis of mammals
|
tibial dyschondroplasia
|
|
|
T/F: Osteoporosis is synonymous with osteopenia
|
true
|
|
|
____ is a lesion, not a specific disease and is one of the most common nutritional diseases of bone.
|
osteoporosis
|
|
|
grossly these bones are of normal diameter and have smooth surfaces, bu they are BRITTLE and the cortex near the metaphysis is thin. The cancellous bone compresses easily and fractures may occur. What is it?
|
Osteporosis
|
|
|
Microscopically, the bone trabeculae are decreased in number and growth plates are narrow or closed. There may be distinct transverse lines beneath the growht plate which are lines of growth arrest. What is it?
|
Osteoporosis
|
|
|
Nutritional osteoporosis is the most common and may be due to ___, ___, or deficiencies of __,__, or ___.
|
starvation
protein deficiency copper, manganese, zinc |
|
|
____ is excessive resorption of bone followed by replacement with fibrous connective tissue and some metaplastic bone.
|
fibrous osteodystrophy
|
|
|
____ causes fibrous osteodystrophy. it may be primary or secondary in nature.
|
hyperparathyroidism
|
|
|
high grain diets in horses can lead to fibrous osteodystrophy. how?
|
high grain = high phosphorus = inverted Ca:P ratio = hyperparathyroid = increased parathormone = excessive bone resorption and replacement by fibrous tissue
|
|
|
What bones are most susceptible to fibrous osteodystropohy?
|
head
|
|
|
What disease results from vitamin C deficiency?
|
Scurvy
|
|
|
Scurvy is a disease of ___ and ___ both of which lack the liver enzyme L-gluonolaactone oxidase needed to synthesize ___.
|
primates and guinea pigs
vitamin C |
|
|
Vitamin C is a cofactor in ___.
|
crosslinking collagen
*deficiency results in inadequate osteoid formation |
|
|
T/F: there is widening of epiphyses in scurvy.
|
false
*mineralization is normal and so there is no widening with scurvy |
|
|
Why might some people have brown/ black stains on their teeth?
|
fluorosis
*fluoride exchanges with OH in hydroxyapatite to form fluorapatite *affects new and developing teeth |
|
|
A cat that is on a diet consisting of liver for 5 years is at risk of developing ___.
|
hypervitaminosis A
*exostoses of cervical vertebrae, sternebrae, joints + osteopenia |
|
|
Vitamin A is toxic to ___.
|
chondrocytes
*death of these cells leads to endochondral ossification and formation of exostoses |
|
|
____ is a disease of young growing poultry characterized by swollen, enlarged hocks and twisting deformities of the distal tibia and proximal metatarsis.
|
avian perosis
|
|
|
What causes avian perosis?
|
deficiencies in
manganese folic acid choline pantothenic acid biotin niacin |
|
|
___ is inflammation of the bone or marrow.
|
osteomyelitis
|
|
|
Most osteomyelitis is caused by ____.
|
bacteria
|
|
|
hematogenous osteomyelitis occurs mostly in ____ because of the highly vascular areas in the metaphysis.
|
young animals
|
|
|
give an example of osteomyelitis.
|
actinomycyes bovis-- lumpy jaw
nocardia-- discospondylosis |
|
|
Who is at risk for hypertrophic osteodystrophy?
|
young large/giant breed dogs
|
|
|
What is hypertrophic osteodystrophy?
|
sudden fever associated with painful swellings of the metaphysis of limb bones
|
|
|
You have a saint bernard male that is 8 months old. on radiographs he shows new bone fomration in the diaphysis. What is this?
|
panosteitis
|
|
|
What breed is at risk for craniomandibular osteopath?
|
terriers
|
|
|
what is the difference between a simple and compound fracture?
|
broken skin
|
|
|
what is a comminuted fracture?
|
multiple small fragments of bone
|
|
|
what is a greenstick fracture?
|
one side of the bone is broken while the other side is bent without separatio of the bone
|
|
|
____ is a false joint due to a nonunion or a failure of the fracture to heal.
|
pseudoarthrosis
|
|
|
how does a callus form on bone?
|
a blood clot forms at the fracture site--> it is gradually replaced by fibrous tissue and woven bone and cartilage
|
|
|
T/F: Osteomas are rare and benign.
|
true
|
|
|
___ is a benign tumor of cattle and horses occurring in the bones of the head. they can cause problems with respiration or mastication.
|
osteoma
|
|
|
_____ is a tumor of mature hyalin cartilage. rare, bening and occurs on flat bones of sheep, dogs, and cats.
|
chondroma
|
|
|
T/F: osteochondroma is genetic.
|
true
|
|
|
___ is an inheritied tumor of dogs and horses just after birth. the tumor ceases growth with closure of the growth plate.
|
osteochondroma
|
|
|
___ is the most common BENIGN tumor of bone. it occurs in the skull of dogs.
|
Multilobar tumor
|
|
|
___ is the MOST COMMON bone tumor of animals. It affects large and giant breed dogs... and cats.
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
|
What is a osteosarcoma that forms cartilage?
|
compound osteosarcoma
|
|
|
this tumor is highly malignant in the dog with 85% death rate in <1yr post amputation.
|
osteosarcoma
|
|
|
___ is the SECOND most common bone tumor of the dog.
|
Chondrosarcoma
|
|
|
what is the difference between osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma?
|
chondrosarcoma will cross the joint space and is a slower progressing tumor... it also does NOT affect giant breeds... mean survival 1.5 yr.
|
|
|
What's the difference between a strain and a sprain?
|
strain-- mild stretching of the joint capsule
sprain-- stretch joint capsule and associated ligaments, ligaments may tear (but no displacement of joint) |
|
|
What's the difference between a subluxation and a luxation?
|
subluxation is an incomplete separation of the joint surface (poss. partial tear of jt cap)
luxation is complete separation of joint surfaces (jt cap completely torn) |
|
|
T/F: DJD is infectious.
|
false
|
|
|
Name 2 causes of DJD.
|
trauma
aging conformational faults inflammatory arthritis overuse nutritional |
|
|
what leads to the damage in DJD?
|
release of lysosomal enzymes from inflammatory cells, synovium, and damaged chondrocytes.... and prostaglandins. and a decrease in proteoglycans that form the matrix around the chondrocytes
|
|
|
what is eburnation?
|
continuous contacct of a denuded joint surface produces a polished appearance to the exposed subchondral bone.
|
|
|
____ is a thickened subchondral bone due to increased bone deposition in response to loss of cartilage (but this can occur anywhere on a bone: general process).
|
sclerosis
|
|
|
What are the new bone formations that occur at the joint margins along the insertions of tendons and ligaments and joint casules?
|
osteophytes
|
|
|
T/F: hyalin cartilage will regenerate
|
false
|
|
|
What are some specific examles of DJD?
|
Ringbone
Bone spavin Navicular disease spondylosis discospondylitis intervertebral disc disease |
|
|
Infectious arthritis can be ___ or ____ in origin.
|
hematogenous
direct penetration |
|
|
What is Borrelia burgdorferi?
|
lyme disease
|
|
|
____ is an important cause of arthritis in goats. it is caused by a retrovirus that produces arthritis in adults and encephalomyelitis in kids.
|
caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus
|
|
|
___ occurs when fibrous granulation tissue forms over the cartilage surface.
|
pannus
|
|
|
___ is fusion of the joint by fibrous tissue and/or bone.
|
ankylosis
|
|
|
Rheumatoid arthritis is an immune mediated disease in which antibodies called ____, form against _____ in serum and synovial fluid.
|
rheumatoid factors form against IgG
|
|
|
What is the difference between Rheumatoid Arthritis and Systemic lupus erythematosus?
|
RA is erosive
SLE is nonerosive-- deposits complexes |
|
|
T/F: amputation is the recommeded treatment for synovial sarcomas.
|
true
|
|
|
T/F: muscular dystrophy is genetic.
|
true
|
|
|
what do dystrophic muscles look like grossly?
|
pale and atrophic
loss of myofibers relaced by fat and fibrous tissue |
|
|
What is myotonia?
|
rare inherited disease: prolonged contraction of muscles
|
|
|
Myotonia is most common in what species?
|
goats
*fainting goats |
|
|
____ is an inherited disease of cattle in which the rear limbs are straight at the hock and unable to flex
|
spastic paresis
|
|
|
What are some congenital muscle diseases?
|
dystrophy
myotonia spastic paresis myasthenia gravis PSSM HYPP |
|
|
Polysaccharide Storage myopathy of the horse is a result of defective carbohydrate metabolism. Aggregates of abnormal carbohydrates called ____ are present microscopically.
|
amylopectin
|
|
|
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis is an inherited defect in _____ within muscle fibers that results in hyperkalemia.
|
sodium channels
|
|
|
What is the difference between denervation atrophy and disuse atrophy?
|
denervation: occurs quickly (weeks) affecting both type 1 and 2 fibers
disuse: occurs slowly (months) |
|
|
endocrine muscle atrophy can occur as a result of ___ or ___.
|
hyperadrenocorticism or hypothyroidism
|
|
|
T/F: necrotic muscle is generally darker than normal muscle.
|
false
*paler |
|
|
What must remain intact for COMPLETE repairs of any tissue to occur?
|
basal lamina
|
|
|
What are some causes of muscle necrosis?
|
Vit E/ Selenium deficiency
Monensin Cassia occidentalis adreamycin exertional rhabdomyolysis malignant hyperthermia capture myopathy ischemia (compartment syndrome, downer syndrome, crush syndrome) |
|
|
What is white muscle disease?
|
Vit E/ selenium deficiency--> muscles usually have white streaks with this pathological process
|
|
|
Which animals are likely to present with white muscle disease and how do they present?
|
young ruminants
stiff gait, respiratory distress, trouble suckling |
|
|
What is monensin?
|
coccidiostat for poultry
growth promotant in ruminant feed *toxic in high doses for ruminants *toxic to horses/ monogastrics |
|
|
Cassia occidentalis poisoning is a problem in what geographic region?
|
southern US
*only after a killing fost |
|
|
How will an animal with Cassia occidentalis poisoning present?
|
stumbling, weak, diarrhea, myoglobinuria
|
|
|
What is adriamycin?
|
anticancer drug in small animals
*causes cardiac muscle necrosis |
|
|
What are the 3 other names for exertional rhabdomyolysis?
|
monday morning disease
azoturia tying up |
|
|
What muscles are most affected by exertional rhabdomyolysis?
|
gluteal and lumbar
|
|
|
Who is most affected by malignant hyperthermia?
|
pigs
|
|
|
What is porcine stress syndrome?
|
malignant hyperthermia
|
|
|
what is the pathologic defect that causes malignant hyperthermia?
|
inherited defect in the ryanodine receptor causes changes in the calcium release channel.
* susceptible pigs may be identified by halothane anesthesia |
|
|
Wild animals and birds are likely to suffer from ___ after a chase or transport that stresses them... it may kill them
|
capture myopathy
|
|
|
____ occurs in muscles enclosed by a fascial sheath or bone and sheath. during vigorous exercise normal muscle expansion against the inelastic sheath leads to increased intramuscular pressure and occlusion of the blood supply.
|
compartment syndrome
|
|
|
____ occurs in recumbent animals lying on one of their limbs. the weight of the body on the limb causes pressure necrosis
|
downer syndrome
|
|
|
____ occurs in severe trauma where muscle is lacerated. subsequent edema, inflammation and hyperemia lead to swelling and increased pressure in the muscle.
|
crush syndrome
|
|
|
What causes black leg?
|
clostridium chauvei
|
|
|
what causes malignant edema?
|
clostridium septicum
|
|
|
What groups of animals are at risk for clostridial myositis infection?
|
young feeder cattle
sheep on pasture |
|
|
malignant edema in sheep occurs in animals hat are confined and the disease is secondary to _________.
|
a wound caused by trauma: injc, castration, shearing...
|
|
|
What does clostridia infections feel like and smell like?
|
bubble wrap
rancid butter |
|
|
What is masticatory myositis and who does it affect?
|
DOGS
immune mediated disease: antibody attacks type II myosin causing madibular immobility |
|
|
What are some causes of parasitic myositis?
|
toxoplasma- protozoa
neospora- protozoa sarcocystis- protozoa cysticerci (tape larva) trichinella - nematode |
|
|
T/F: rhabdomyoma is more common than rhabdomyosarcoma.
|
false
*rhabdomyosarcoma is more common |
|
|
Dermatomyositis is a rare inherited disease that produces megaesophagus in what species?
|
collies/ sheepdogs
|
|
|
____ is a rare skeletal muscle tumor that often affects the hearts of lambs or pigs... or the larynx of the dog.
|
rhabdomyoma
|
|
|
rhabdomyosarcoma occurs most often in the ___ of dogs less than 2yo.
|
urinary bladder
|
|
|
_____ is the most common tumor of the female repro tract of small animals. it is benign.
|
leiomyoma
|
|
|
T/F: cardiovascular lesions correlate well with their outcomes.
|
False
*big lesions can be better than small lesions which are more life threatening *due to the limited array of responses of muscle to injury and the inability of the heart fibers to regenerate |
|
|
____ heart failure results in pooling of blood in lungs.
|
left
|
|
|
___ heart failure may result in pooling of blood in the liver
|
right
|
|
|
T/F: long term failure of one side of the heart will eventually lead to failure of both sides.
|
true
|
|
|
Are loud murmurs more or less life threatening than quiet barely/ if noticeable murmurs?
|
less threatening
|
|
|
Patent ductus arteriosus results in _____ shunting of blood. There is volume overload of the ___ ventricle and pressure overload of the ____ ventricle.
|
left to right
volume overload: left pressure overload: right |
|
|
____ is the MOST common of cardiac defects in anima.s.
|
inteventricular septal defects
|
|
|
Where do interventricular septal defects generally occur?
|
under the valves of the great vessels
*in sheep they are LOW |
|
|
Interventricular septal defects lead to hypertrophy of which ventricle?
|
BOTH
left and right |
|
|
valvular anomalies called ___ and ___ of which ___ is more common, are present as fibrous bands beneath the valve and are easily missed.
|
aortic stenosis
subaortic stenosis(more common) |
|
|
What will you see with a subaortic stenosis?
|
fibrous band beneath the aortic valve
dilated aorta ventricle has concentric hypertrophy |
|
|
What is the outcome of an aortic stenosis?
|
sudden death due to ventricular fibrillation
|
|
|
What is vascular ring anomaly?
|
persistent right fourth aortic arch
entraps the esophagus causes esophageal dilation/ aspiration pneumonia |
|
|
____ is excess fluid in the pericardial sac. iit is a consequence of many things espeically right heart failure
|
hydropericardium
|
|
|
hemopericardium is the accumulation of blood in the pericardial sac. it is usually secondary to ____ in horses or ____ in dogs.
|
aortic rupture - horses
rupture of an atrial hemangiosarcoma - dogs |
|
|
What is a cardiac tamponade
|
too much fluid in the heart sac resulting in too much pressure for the myocardium to have complete excursion
|
|
|
Where would you look for severe starvation? where is the LAST place fat is taken from?
|
pericardial fat
*serous atrophy of pericardial fat |
|
|
____ is an inflammatory reaction in which free floating fibrin clots are found in the preicardial fluid.
|
fibrinous pericarditis
|
|
|
____ is a common inflammatory reaction occuring in conjunction with toxemias especially clostridial toxemias.
|
fibrinous pericarditis
|
|
|
what is tramatic reticulopericarditis called?
|
hardware disease
|
|
|
fibrosis of the endocardium can be focal as in the case of "___" from regurgitaion of incompetent valves.
|
jet lesions
|
|
|
Vitamin D toxicosis can cause _____ due to prolonged hypercalcemia.
|
metastatic mineralization
|
|
|
Endocardiosis is a degenerative lesion generally on the ___ valves common in older dogs.
|
AV
|
|
|
What is the difference between endocardiosis and endocarditis?
|
Endocarditis is usually bacterial and valvular (mitral valve or Tricuspid). turbulent flow + bacteremia
Endocardiosis is a degeneration of the AV valve |
|
|
Endocarditis genearlly affects the ___ valve in most species except the cow in which the ___ valve is more common.
|
mitral
tricuspid |
|
|
____ occurs as a compensatory change in response to an increase in either systolic or diastolic work load.
|
hypertrophy
|
|
|
____ is an increase in ventricular mass without an increase in end diastolic volue and is usually associated with increased systolic load.
|
concentric hypertrophy
|
|
|
_____ is an increase in myocardial mass with an increase in end diastolic volume and is usually secondary to volume overload.
|
eccentric hypertrophy
|
|
|
____ is an inflamation of the heart muscle.
|
myocarditis
|
|
|
T/F: myocarditis may occur as a result of vegetative valvular endocarditis.
|
true
|
|
|
What are the 3 forms of cardiomyopathy?
|
dilative
hypertrophic restrictive |
|
|
What is the most common cardiomyopathy of dogs?
|
dilative
*large breeds |
|
|
T/F: cardiomyopathy is common in cats.
|
True
|
|
|
What form of cardiomyopathy is common in the cat? and what is it related to?
|
dilative/ congestive
taurine deficiency |
|
|
It is comon for the dilated heart to have ____ thrmobi and also thromboemboli going down the aorta to lodge at the _____.
|
atrial
iliac bifurcation |
|
|
Arteriosclerosis is a general term for :
|
hardening of the arteries
|
|
|
____ is the term for Mushy arteries.
|
atherosclerosis
|
|
|
____ is due to the buildup of cholesterol cotaining plaque on the intimal surface of arteries
|
atherosclerosis
|
|
|
What might cause arterial medial calcification?
|
vitamin D toxicosis, renal failure, cachexia (johnes)
|
|
|
hypertrophy of pulmonary arteries can occur in response to _____ or as a response to ____ disease.
|
pulmonary hypertension
high altitude disease |
|
|
What can cause thrombosis/ embolism?
|
any hypercoagulable state can lead to fibrin formation
nephrotic syndrome: loss of antithrombin III hyperadrenalcorticism endothelial damage |
|
|
arteritis, angitis, and vasculitis result from damage to the wall with enhanved potential for ___ or ____ or both
|
aneurysm
thrmobosis |
|
|
what is the most common anomolous development of the veins in dogs? what are the consequences?
|
portosystemic shunt
build up of metabolites that have not been biotransformed by normal liver function |
|
|
____ is a dilation of lymphatics usually secondary to obstruction
|
lymphangiectasis
|
|
|
What are teh 2 most common causes of lymphangiectasis?
|
granulomatous inflammation or neoplasia
|
|
|
____ is most common in the intestinal mucosa and leads to protein losing enteropathy. IE: jone's dz and chronic inflammatory bowel disease.
|
lymphagiectasis
|
|
|
____ are benign masses of vascular origin.
|
hemangiomas
|
|
|
hemangiomas are usually ___ in origin in dogs.
|
dermal
|
|
|
_____ are relatively common neoplasms in the dog. they come rom hemagiopericytes-- soft tissue sarcomas.
|
hemagiopericytomas
|
|
|
What is the prognosis of a dog that you remobe a superficial hemangiopericytoma from?
|
-- it will probably recur and the regrowth is more aggressive
|
|
|
____ are malignancies of the blood vessels.
|
hemangiosarcomas
|
|
|
Where are the primary sights for hemangiosarcomas?
|
spleen, liver or RIGHT atrium
|
|
|
What are the clinical consequences for splenic and cardiac masses?
|
rupture and fatal hemorrhage
|
