Pathology - Exam 1

Front 1

Objective or Subjective: Observable, able to be seen, heard, touched, smelled, tasted, and factual?

Back 1

Objective

Front 2

Objective or Subjective: in one person's opinion; judgement, assumption, belief, suspicion, based on fact but is one person's interpretation of that fact? (I feel, I believe)

Back 2

Subjective

Front 3

Information that can be measured or perceived by the investigating clinician is?

Examples: size, color, duration, consistency, surface contour -

Back 3

signs

Front 4

Patient's own interpretation of a clinical circumstance is called? (pain)

Back 4

symptoms

Front 5

Symptoms rely on what 2 kind of experiences?

Back 5

neurologic and psychologic

Front 6

Visual observation is called what?

Back 6

inspection

Front 7

___________ is compressing tissue w/ a glass slide to determine vascular nature of a lesion.

Back 7

diascopy

Front 8

__________ is feel/press lesion to yield information about texture, consistency, temp and function.

Back 8

palpation

Front 9

_________ is striking tissues w/ fingers or instrument and listening to resulting pressure changes in tissues (ex: tooth ankylosis)

Back 9

percussion

Front 10

__________ is a withdrawal of fluids from a body cavity. (ex: needle aspiration of cysts, vascular tumors, purulent swellings)

Back 10

aspiration

Front 11

___________ is listening for sounds w/ in the body.

Back 11

auscultation

Front 12

_____________ is a valuable adjunct to clinical/radiographic assessment of TMJ disorders.

Back 12

doppler auscultation

Front 13

Essay answers are...

A. Objective

B. Subjective

C. Projective

D. Positive

E. Negative

Back 13

B - subjective

Front 14

Multiple choice answers on scantrons are...

A. Objective

B. Subjective

C. Projective

D. Positive

E. Negative

Back 14

A - objective

Front 15

My gums bleed when I floss....

A. Sign

B. Symptom

Back 15

A - sign

Front 16

My gums hurt when I floss...

A. Sign

B. Symptom

Back 16

B - symptom

Front 17

________ is any excised/removed tissue; examination of tissue, cells, or fluids removed from living body to discover the presence, cause or extent of a disease. (Confirm diagnosis of systemic disease)

Back 17

biopsy

Front 18

A biospy indication is a lesion w/ greater than or equal to ___ day duration. (has unusual location and appearance)

Back 18

14

Front 19

_______ the is formation of tumors.

Back 19

neoplasia

Front 20

_____________ is a break in skin/mucous membrane w/ loss of surface tissue, disintegration and necrosis of epithelial tissue and pus.

Back 20

persistent ulceration

Front 21

______________ is a reddened patch w/ velvety surface on oral/genital mucosa that is considered to be precancerous lesion.

Back 21

persistent erythroplasia/erythroplakia

Front 22

____________________ is abnormal lymph nodule enlargements.

Back 22

lymphadenophathy

Front 23

___________ is an increase in fibrous elements in tissue commonly associated w/ inflammation and marked by loss of elasticity and pliability : sclerosis; hardened mass/formation.

Back 23

induration

Front 24

___________ = immobilized

Back 24

fixation

Front 25

____________ is having a slow progressive course of indefinite duration; especially of degenerative invasive diseases, infections, psychoses, and inflammations.

Back 25

chronicity

Front 26

3 types of biopsies?

Back 26

excisional, incisional, and asporation

Front 27

Which biopsy removes around the lesion and the tissue surrounding the lesion?

Back 27

excisional

Front 28

Which biopsy takes part of tongue and tests to decide if you need to removal whole tongue?

Back 28

incisional

Front 29

Innocuous means -

Back 29

harmless

Front 30

___________________ is when only surface cells are captured (broom sweep limited to superficial cells)

Back 30

exfoliative cytology

Front 31

True/False: Immunoflorescent is using an antigen, when present and has UV light - it will glow meaning its positive.

Back 31

True

Front 32

_________________ is the labeling of antibodies/antigens w/ fluorscent dyes especially for the purpose of demonstrating the presence of particular antigen/antibody in a tissue preparation or smear.

Back 32

immunoflurescent

Front 33

List 3 indications w/ culture and sensitivity testing:

Back 33

1. life treatening infection

2. unsuccessful previous antibiotic therapy

3. immunosuppressed patient

Front 34

Why does culture/sensitivity testing have limited use in dentistry?

Back 34

1. difficult for anaerobic conditions

2. turnover time too long; best to attempt trial therapies of certain antibiotics as results may occur quicker than the time interval of the test.

Front 35

What is erythroplasia?

A. antibiotics

B. erythromycin family

C. red patches

D. white patches

Back 35

C. red patches

Front 36

What is leukoplakia?

A. antibiotics

B. erythromycin family

C. red patches

D. white patches

Back 36

D. white patches

Front 37

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic test to diagnose oral lesions?

A. culture & sensitivy testing

B. probing

C. oral exfoliative cytology

D. biopsy

Back 37

B - probing (its a clinical exam, not test)

Front 38

An interruption, cessation, or disorder of body functions, systems or organs is called -

Back 38

a disease

Front 39

Periodontal/oral infections may impact which systemic conditions?

Back 39

heart disease, stroke, diabetes, respiratory disease, and preterm low-birth weight babies

Front 40

2 examples of oral manifestations of systemic disease -

Back 40

diabetes and leukemia

Front 41

3 goals of a dental hygienist -

Back 41

1. increase # of adults receiving info/counseling w/ tobacco cessation

2. increase # of adults receiving oral/pharyngeal cancer screening

3. increase # of adults being tested or referred for glycemic (blood sugar) control

Front 42

Should an oral cancer screening be done the same way every time?

Back 42

YES

Front 43

T/F: During an oral cancer screening, you should palpate first then observe.

Back 43

FALSE; observe first THEN palpate (tactile)

Front 44

Types of traumatic findings during a screening -

Back 44

thermal/chemical burns, abrasion, erosions and fractures.

Front 45

Types of infectious findings during a screening-

Back 45

bacterial, viral and fungal

Front 46

Types of benign findings during a screening-

Back 46

fibroma, lipoma, and hyperplasia

Front 47

Types of malignant findings during a screening-

Back 47

carcinoma and sarcoma

Front 48

Other findings during a screening-

Back 48

autoimmune, genetic, inflammatory, and allergic.

Front 49

____________ is the study of disease/abnormal conditions resulting from disease, trauma, defects, genetic abnormalities, etc.

Back 49

pathology

Front 50

_________ is the cause, can be single entity or event or multiple causes.

Back 50

etiology

Front 51

___________ is the natural ability of an organism to remain unaffected by pathologic or toxic agents.

Back 51

resistance

Front 52

___________ are conditions w/ in or around the organism or host do not inhibit the action of pathogenic agents but instead leave the host more likely to be affected.

Back 52

susceptibility

Front 53

_____________ is how the disease/condition develops, the sequence of events through the progression of disease or conditon.

Back 53

pathogenesis

Front 54

______________ are visible/invisible observations that the disease/condition is present. (beings on cellular level)

Back 54

manifestations

Front 55

6 types of extrinsic etiologys:

Back 55

1. microorganism

2. physical agents

3. chemical agents

4. mechanical agents

5. nutritional deficiencies

6. iatrogenic

Front 56

Types of extrinsic microorganisms: (3)

Back 56

1. bacteria

2. fungi

3. viruses

Front 57

Types of extrinsic physical agents: (7)

Back 57

1. temp

2. electricity

3. ionizing radiation

4. UV radiation

5. ultrasound

6. microwaves

7. lasers

Front 58

Types of extrinsic chemical agents: (6)

Back 58

1. poison

2. acid

3. venom

4. drugs

5. lead

6. mercury

Front 59

Types of extrinsic mechanical agents: (4)

Back 59

1. knives

2. guns

3. motor vehicle accidents

4. bad luck

Front 60

Types of extrinsic nutritional deficiencies: (3)

Back 60

1. scurvy

2. rickets

3. obesity

Front 61

Types of extrinsic iatrogenic: (2)

Back 61

1. infective endocarditis

2. hospital infections

Front 62

3 Types of intrinsic etiology:

Back 62

1. genetic

2. immunologic

3. degenerative

Front 63

3 types of intrinsic genetics:

Back 63

1. sickle cell

2. cystic fibrosis

3. breast cancer

Front 64

2 kinds of intrinsic immunologics:

Back 64

1. autoimmune (lupus, rheumatoid arthritis)

2. hypersensitivity (allergies)

Front 65

2 types of intrinsic degeneratives:

Back 65

osteoporosis and osteoarthritis

Front 66

2 types of psychogenic:

Back 66

1. conscious/subconscious reactions or attitudes

2. posttraumatic stress disorder

Front 67

fibromyalgia/unknown is under what?

Back 67

idiopathic

Front 68

primary hypertension/cancer is under what?

Back 68

multifactoral

Front 69

T/F: Limited genetic lineage groups have a lower risk of developing a disease than someone from another group (intermarrying).

Back 69

FALSE; they have higher risk

Front 70

Do certain ethnic groups have a higher risk of developing conditions?

Back 70

yes

Front 71

Tay-sachs is a condition linked to what descent?

Back 71

jewish

Front 72

Sickle cell anemia is a condition linked to what descent?

Back 72

african

Front 73

List all risk factors: (9)

Back 73

1. genetic

2. immune system dysfunction

3. compromised first-line defense

4. age

5. lifestyle

6. stress

7. environment

8. preexisting conditions

9. multiple risk factors

Front 74

List some non-modifiable risk factors (4)

Back 74

1. race

2. sex

3. age

4. genetic background

Front 75

List modifiable risk factors: (5)

Back 75

1. tobacco use

2. poor eating habits

3. risky driving behaviors

4. inappropriate drug use/abuse

5. exercise habits

Front 76

How would one decrease risk of hypertension?

Back 76

maintain healthy weight, exercise, monitor sodium intake and no smoking.

Front 77

How would one decrease risk of cancer?

Back 77

maintain healthy weight, healthy diet high in fiber/antioxidants, no tobacco, limit alcohol use, exercise.

Front 78

List types of cellular adaptation: (6)

Back 78

1. atrophy

2. hypertrophy

3. hyperplasia

4. metaplasia

5. dysplasia

6. intracellular retention of substances

Front 79

3 types of cellular injury:

Back 79

1. free radical injury

2. hypoxic cell injury

3. imbalance of intracellular calcium

Front 80

2 kinds of cellular death -

Back 80

1. apoptosis

2. necrosis

Front 81

List examples of normal and abnormal cellular adaptation changes:

Back 81

normal: pregnancy, aging, exercise

abnormal: infections, genetic defects, etc

Front 82

T/F: when etiology/stimulus for change is removed, the cell will revert to normal structure/function.

Back 82

TRUE

Front 83

T/F: Eventually the cell will no longer be able to adapt to environment and will die.

Back 83

TRUE

Front 84

____________ is decrease in size/function of cell, tissue or organ caused by reduced functional demand, hormonal stimulation, nutrient supply and aging.

Back 84

atrophy

Front 85

__________ is the enlargement of cells leading to increase of size in tissue/organ caused by functional demand and hormonal stimulation.

Back 85

hypertrophy

Front 86

__________ is an increase in the # of cells in tissue/organ resulting in enlargement can be due to excessive hormone stimulation, chronic cell injury, functional demand or cell injury/death.

Back 86

hyperplasia

Front 87

Hyperplasia or hypertrophy may occur simultaneously as in the formation of a __________.

Back 87

goiter

Front 88

___________ is the conversion of 1 differentiated cell type to another.

Back 88

metaplasia

Front 89

__________ refers to creation of abnormal cells from normal cells (change in size,shape and nuclear changes)

Back 89

dysplasia

Front 90

Severe dysplasia is usually treated as a -

Back 90

neoplasm

Front 91

__________ is new cell-growth, not considered to be an adaptive change.

Back 91

neoplasia

Front 92

Severe dysplasia is usually considered to be at least _______________ if not overt cancer.

Back 92

premalignant

Front 93

___________ is when the liver is not functioning correctly. It builds up in the body and is stored in various cells including epithelial cells.

Back 93

bilirubin

Front 94

What will dissipate when the liver starts functioning properly and is able to process the accumulated bilirubin?

Back 94

jaundice

Front 95

___________ is the storage carotene in epithelial cells not harmful and will dissipate when foods rich in carotene are decreased.

Back 95

carotenemia

Front 96

3 kinds of reversible cellular injury :

Back 96

1. free radical injury

2. hypoxic cell injury

3. intracellular imbalance of calcium

Front 97

____________ is a highly reactive class of chemical generated by the cell during normal metabolic processes.

Back 97

free radical injury

Front 98

What is the most frequent source of free radicals because it has 2 unpaired outer electrons and is used in almost all of the cell's activities?

Back 98

oxygen

Front 99

What may be impaired against free radical injury when the cell is under stress for any reason?

Back 99

built-in defenses

Front 100

What defenses allow single-strand breaks in DNA to occur?

Back 100

impaired

Front 101

What in the cell membrane and organelle membranes can be destroyed, compromising integrity of free radical structures impairing normal cellular function and replicative capabilities?

Back 101

phospholipids

Front 102

Cell membrane disruption will upset balance of calcium w/ in the cell causing?

Back 102

calcium imbalance

Front 103

_________ is when lack of oxygen inhibits production of energy w/ in the cell.

Back 103

hypoxic cell injury

Front 104

In hypoxic cell injury, why is there an increase in the amount of water in the cell?

Back 104

because the cell depends on an energy source to actively maintain the sodium/potassium balance.

Front 105

In hypoxic cell injury, sodium and water will flow unchecked into the cell causing -

Back 105

swelling

Front 106

___________ is a malfunction of system maintaining sodium & potassium levels will impair the system maintaining calcium & magnesium levels.

Back 106

calcium imbalance

Front 107

With calcium imbalance, normal cells can have MORE OR LESS calcium inside than what is found in the extracellular environment?

Failure will cause an _______ of calcium into the cell.

Back 107

- less!

- influx

Front 108

With calcium imbalance, increased calcium activates ___________ that can damage the cell and compromise cell membranes.

This then causes _____ of the cell.

Back 108

- enzymes

- lysis (death)

Front 109

What has cellular self-destruction, removes defective cells and can be triggered by infections and other stimuli?

Back 109

apoptosis

Front 110

Caseous necrosis is -

Back 110

tuberculosis

Front 111

Coagulative necrosis is usually triggered by ____________. ex: infarcts.

Back 111

hypoxia

Front 112

Liquefactive necrosis is a?

Example?

Back 112

- bacterial infection

- spider bite

Front 113

How can a cell increase in size?

Back 113

by osmosis

Front 114

In liquefactive necrosis, WBC's use potent ___________ to destroy bacteria, but host cells are destroyed also.

Back 114

enzymes

Front 115

In liquefactive necrosis, walled off area impairs removal of debris and _________ forms.

Back 115

abscess

Front 116

___________ is an accumulation of dead cells, dead bacteria and dead/dying WBC's.

Back 116

abscess

Front 117

Which inflammation is limited in scope, area, and duration - characterized by cardinal signs of inflammation - may be extensive and involve multiple orangs/systems?

Back 117

acute

Front 118

2 major categories of inflammation are -

Back 118

1. acute inflammation

2. chronic inflammation

Front 119

Which inflammation is characterized by long duration/history of repeated insults or injuries?

Back 119

chronic

Front 120

List some cardinal signs of acute inflammation -

Back 120

redness, heat, swelling, pain and loss of function.

Front 121

3 phases of acute inflammation are -

Back 121

1. initiation

2. amplification

3. termination

Front 122

__________ is increased blood flow (redness/heat)

Back 122

hyperemia

Front 123

__________ is excess fluid in effected tissues (swelling, pain and loss of function).

Back 123

edema

Front 124

Which phase of acute inflammation is activated when injury occurs resulting in loss of fluid from blood into tissues and movement of WBC's from blood vessels to the injured area?

Back 124

initiation

Front 125

Which phase of acute inflammation has chemical mediators that direct more/different types of WBC's into injured area increasing the response and neutralizing the agents causing response?

Back 125

amplification

Front 126

Which phase of acute inflammation requires other chemical substances to stop or inhibit the inflammatory process? (if process continues unhindered, more damage will result)

Back 126

termination

Front 127

List the 5 events of initiation phase of acute inflammation -

Back 127

1. vasocontriction

2. vasodilation

3. increased vascular permeability

4. vascular stasis

5. chemotaxis

Front 128

Amplification phase of acute inflammation occurs as ____________ arrive at the site of injury.

Back 128

leukocytes

Front 129

List the 2 events (events 6/7) of amplification phase of acute inflammation -

Back 129

event 6: opsonization

event 7: phagocytosis

Front 130

What occurs during event 8 of termination phase of acute inflammation?

Back 130

debris removed through lymphatic system, chemical mediators "turn off" inflammatory process.

Front 131

What occurs during event 6 (opsonization)?

Back 131

opsonins prepare resistant microbes for phagocytosis (immunoglobulins, complement)

Front 132

What are the 3 cellular components (granulocytes)?

Back 132

1. polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN)

2. basophil

3. eosinophil

Front 133

Which granulocyte is the most active in inflammatory process and is the FIRST cell to arrive in the area of acute inflammation?

Back 133

PMN

Front 134

Which granulocyte is attracted to area by chemotactic factors and is active in fighting bacterial/fungal infections?

Back 134

PMN

Front 135

Which granulocyte plays a role in allergic reactions?

Back 135

basophils

Front 136

Which granulocyte is active in fighting parasitic infections especially helminthic (tapeworm)?

Back 136

eosinophils

Front 137

List the 3 cellular components (agranulocytes):

Back 137

1. Lymphocyte

2. monocyte

3. mast cell

Front 138

Monocytes circulate in bloodstream until they enter specific tissue and become -

Back 138

fixed

Front 139

Fixed monocyte differentiates into a ___________ specific for a particular tissue.

Back 139

macrophage

Front 140

Histiocytes (tissue macrophage) work in what 2 inflammatory responses?

Back 140

inflammatory and immune

Front 141

3 types of Giant Cell macrophages:

Back 141

1. foreign body giant cell

2. langhans giant cell

3. aschoff cell

Front 142

Which giant cell forms in response to TB infection?

Back 142

langhans

Front 143

Which giant cell forms during rheumatic fever?

Back 143

aschoff cell

Front 144

Which cells (cytes) play a central role in the function of immune system?

Back 144

lymphocytes

Front 145

T/F: Mast cells are a type of leukocyte.

Back 145

FALSE; it is not.

Front 146

Which cell is created in bone marrow and travels through circulation to tissue size to mature?

Back 146

mast cells

Front 147

Both _____ cell and _________ have granules in their cytoplasm containing histamine, an important chemical mediator.

Back 147

mast and basophil

Front 148

What is released when the cell's granules break open or degranulate, in response to a stimulus?

Back 148

histamine

Front 149

2 categories of endogenous chemical mediators -

Back 149

1. preformed (histamine, serotonin)

2. synthesized (PAF, prostaglandins, leukotriences, cytokines)

Front 150

What is w/in exogenous chemical mediators?

Back 150

lipopolysaccharides and other toxins

Front 151

_______________ is a component of gram - bacterial cell walls released as bacteria destroyed.

Back 151

LPS (lipopolysaccharide)

Front 152

What is released from platelets in response to platelet-activating factor and increases vascular permeability?

Back 152

serotonin

Front 153

Platelet-activating factor causes -

Back 153

aggregation (sticking together)

Front 154

Platelet-activating factor increases vasodilation and vascular permeability ____ to ______ times more than histamine alone.

Back 154

100-10,000

Front 155

Platelet-activating factor increases phagocytic action of what 2 types of cells?

Back 155

neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages

Front 156

What is synthesized by leukocytes in response to a stimulus?

Back 156

prostagladins

Front 157

What is synthesized by leukocytes and mast cells?

Back 157

leukotrienes

Front 158

What is produced by macrophages and some lymphocytes?

Back 158

cytokines

Front 159

What 2 things produce fever, increase need for sleep, and decrease appetite; also increase leukocyte adherence, prostaglandin synthesis and fibroblast production; involved w/ perio?

Back 159

TNF (tumor necrosis factor) and IL-I (interleukin-I)

Front 160

3 systems of plasma-derived chemical mediatiors?

Back 160

1. complement system

2. clotting system

3. kinin system

Front 161

Activation of kinin and complement systems is called the _________ system.

Back 161

clotting

Front 162

Membrane attack complex (MAC) is w/in which system?

Back 162

complement

Front 163

3 systemic manifestations of inflammation:

Back 163

1. pyrexia (fever)

2. leukocytosis

3. lymphadenopathy

Front 164

____________ is the increase in # of WBC's in the blood. Increase up to __________/mm.

Back 164

1. Leukocytosis

2. 100,000 mm

Front 165

Normal WBC's counts range from ______ to _________/mm.

Back 165

4,000 to 10,000/mm.

Front 166

Acute inflammation usually resolves in __ to __ weeks.

Back 166

2-3

Front 167

Chronic inflammation is often refered to as "_____________________". It occurs when one or more of the elements on this slide are still present.

Back 167

frustrated healing

Front 168

T/F: Granulomas heal only after all stimuli that initiated the inflammatory process are eliminated.

Back 168

TRUE

Front 169

_________ forms through hard/soft tissues, when enzymes released by macrophages bore a hole through tissues allowing the purulent exudate to exit one area and flow to an outer surface.

Back 169

fistula

Front 170

__________ forms when pus from abscessed tooth forms a tract through the alveolar bone forming w/in the gingiva.

Back 170

parulis

Front 171

________ is the spread of bacteria into surrounding tissues producing inflammation of CT.

Back 171

cellulitis

Front 172

______________ is bilateral cellulitis involving the submandibular/sublingual spaces causing rapid swelling of oral tissues and obstruction of airway and potential carotid artery involvement and rupture.

Back 172

ludwig angina

Front 173

Blood poisoning is known as -

Back 173

septicemia

Front 174

Blood clot is known as -

Back 174

cavernous sinus (thrombosis)

Front 175

Transcient vasoconstriction at the vascular level is in which phase?

Back 175

initiation

Front 176

Will extensive injuries undergo regeneration?

Back 176

no

Front 177

T/F: Only tissues comprised of cells having the ability to replicate will regenerate.

Back 177

TRUE (like epithelial or liver cells)

Front 178

Which cells will NOT regenerate?

Back 178

non-dividing or permanent cells like nerve cells or cardiac cells

Front 179

Repair results in formation of a fibrous scar known as -

Back 179

cicatrix

Front 180

Which healing intention has clean wound margins held together by sutures/bandages and has migrating epithelial cells having little distance to travel w/ little or no scarring?

Back 180

primary

Front 181

Which healing intenetion has loss of tissue w/ wound edges not brought together?

Back 181

secondary

Front 182

T/f: Both types of healing (primary/secondary) go through the same process w/ the same degrees.

Back 182

FALSE; same process but DIFFERENT degrees.

Front 183

Edonthelial cells begin to form new blood vessels in a process called -

Back 183

angiogenesis

Front 184

Very fragile vascular tissue starting to form is called -

Back 184

granulation tissue

Front 185

______________ tissue forms the framework upon and w/in which fibrous repair takes place.

Back 185

granulation

Front 186

In granulation tissue, if the wound appears on surface of body (skin/buccal mucosa) _______________ will occur in conjunction w/ formation of granulation tissue.

Back 186

epithelialization

Front 187

T/F: Whenever a scar forms the function of that area of tissue is lost.

Back 187

TRUE

Front 188

After scar formation, the injured tissue will only regain about ___-___% of its full strength.

Back 188

70-80

Front 189

If a wound bursts after abdominal surgery, there is a ___% chance of mortality.

Back 189

30

Front 190

Excessive scar formation results in a hypertrophic scar or _____ which is usually unsightly and tend to recur after removal.

Back 190

keloid

Front 191

Excessive contracture or Wound contracture of edges can cause __________ in the area near a joint limiting mobility (burns, hands)

Back 191

deformity

Front 192

Does inflammatory process and process of repair following an extraction occur at the same time?

Back 192

yes!

Front 193

How long do epithelial cells at wound begin process of epithelialization and cover extraction site?

Back 193

about 10-12 days

Front 194

Following extraction, bone is completely filled in by ___ weeks postextraction.

Back 194

12

Front 195

Alveolar osteitis means -

Back 195

dry socket