• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/391

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

391 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is hypetrophy?
increaes in SIZE of an organ, due to increase in SIZE of cells
Examples of hypertrophy (2)
1 = increase in skeletal mm. mass with exercise
2 = hypertrophy of LV in hypertensive disease
What is hyperplasia?
increase in SIZE of an organ, due to increase in NUMBER of cells
Example of hyperplasia
glandular proliferation in breast during pregnancy
What is aplasia?
failure of cell production
during fetal development, aplasia results in (1) aka. (2)
1 = agenesis
2 = absence of organ due to failure of production
What is hypoplasia?
decrease in cell production
Example of hypoplasia?
partial lack of growth or maturation of gonadal structures i.e. Turners, Klinefelters
What is atrophy?
decrease in size of an organ/tissue due to decrease in mass of pre-existing cells
Causal Factors of atrophy (5)
disuse
lack of O2/nutritional factors
denervation
diminished endocrine stimulation
aging
Characteristic feature of atrophy?
autophagic granules
What is metaplasia?
replacement of one differentiated tissue by another
What is squamous metaplasia?
replacement of columnar epithelium by squamous epithelium
Where is squamous metaplasia commonly seen? (4)
- cervical junction with vagina
- respiratory epithelium of bronchi
- enodmetrium
- pancreatic ducts
Is squamous metaplasia reversible or irreversible?
reversible
what is osseus metaplasia?
formation of new bone at sites of tissue injury
what is myeloid metaplasia?
proliferation of hematopoetic tissue at sites other than the bone marrow, commonly in liver/spleen
Causes of Hypoxic Cell Injury (5)
1 = ischemia
2 = anemia
3 = CO poisoning
4 = poor perfusion
5 = poor oxygenation of blood
What does hypoxic cell injury first affect?
mitochondria -> decreased OX PHOS and ATP synthesis
What is hydropic change? (1)
What is it characterized by? (2)
1 = cellular swelling
2 = large intracellular vacuoles
What is the first ultrastructural change evident in reversible cell injury?
swelling of ER
What is high-amplitude swelling of mitochondria characterized by?
dilation of inner mitochondrial space
Acidification, due to lactic acid, causes (1)
1 = reversible clumping of nuclear chromatin
Reversible morphological signs of hypoxic damage include (2)
1 = myelin figures
2 = cell blebs
Hypoxic injury becomes irreversible after (1) min in neurons, (2) time for myocardial cells and hepatocytes and (3) for skeletal mm.
1 = 3-5 minutes
2 = 1-2 hours
3 = many hours
Which neurons are most susceptible to hypoxic injury? (2)
1 = purkinje cells of cerebellum
2 = hippcampal neurons
Mechanisms that generate free radicals (6)
1 = normal metabolism
2 = oxygen toxicity
3 = ionizing radiation
4 = UV radiation
5 = drugs/chemicals
6 = reperfusion after ischemic injury
Mechanism of Coagulative Necrosis
interruption of blood supply --> results in denaturation of proteins
Where does coagulative necrosis occur?
organs supplied by end arteries with no collateral circulation i.e. heart, kidney
pathologic changes in coagulative necrosis (2)
1 = nuclear changes
2 = increased cytoplasmic binding of acidophilic dyes
Mechanism of Liquefactive Necrosis
enzymatic liquefaction of necrotic tissue -> initially caused by interruption of blood supply
Where does liquefactive necrosis occur? (2)
1 = CNS
2 = areas of bacterial infection
Pathologic changes in liquefactive necrosis (1)
necrotic tissue soft and liquefied
Caseuous necrosis shares features with (1) and (2) necrosis
1 = coagulative
2 = liquefactive
Caseuous necrosis most commonly seen in (1)
1 = tuberculous granulomas
Caseuous necrosis:
architecture is (1) but tissue is (2); gross appearance is (3); histologic appearance is (4) and tissue has increase affinity for (5)
1 = not preserved
2 = not liquefied
3 = soft and cheese-like
4 = amorphous
5 = acidophillic dyes
Mechanism of gangrenous necrosis
interruption of blood supply to a lower extremity or the bowel
4 nuclear changes characteristic for irreversible cell injury/necrosis
1. pyknosis
2. karyorrhexis
3. karylolysis
4. disappearance of stainable nuclei
pyknosis
chromatin clumping and shrinking with increased basophilia
karyorrehexis
fragmentation of chromatin
karyolysis
fading of chromatin material
mechanism of fibrinoid necrosis
deposition of fibrin-like proteinaceous material in walls of arteries
fibrinoid necrosis is often observed as part of (1)
immune mediated vasculitis
pathologic changes in fibrinoid necrosis
1 = smudgy appearance in vascular walls
2 - necrosis may or may not be present
mechanism of fat necrosis (2)
1 = liberation of pancreatic enzymes with autodigestion of pancreatic parenchyma
2 = trauma to fat cells
pathologic changes in fat necrosis (5)
1 = necrotic fat cells
2 = inflammation
3 = hemorrhage
4 = calcium soap formation
5 = lipid laden macrophages in pancreas
liquefaction is caused by: (1)
autolysis
wet gangrene
complicated by infective heterolysis -> with consequent liquefactive necrosis
dry gangrene
primary coagulative necrosis without liquefaction
what are the activating caspases?
8 and 9
what are the terminal (executioner) caspases?
3 and 6
what are the activating caspases?
8 and 9
bcl2
inhibits apoptosis
bax
facilitates apoptosis
definition of fatty change
accumulation of intracellular parenchymal triglycerides
bax
facilitates apoptosis
fatty change most commonly occurs in (1), (2) and (3)
1 = heart
2 = liver
3 = kidney
p53
decreases txn of bcl2 and increases txn of bax --> facilitates apoptosis
Fatty change can be caused by : (4)
1 = increased transport of TGs and FAs into cells
2 = decreased mobilization of fat from cells
3 = decreased use of fat by cells
4 = overproduction of fat in cells
definition of hyaline change
homogenous, glassy, eosinophillic appearance in H&E stains
what causes hyaline change
nonspecific accumulations of proteinaceous material
hemisiderosis
accumulation of hemosiderin, within tissue macrophages
Fatty change can be caused by : (4)
1 = increased transport of TGs and FAs into cells
2 = decreased mobilization of fat from cells
3 = decreased use of fat by cells
4 = overproduction of fat in cells
hemosiderin
iron containing pigment
aggregates of ferritin
golden brown amorphous aggregates
definition of hyaline change
homogenous, glassy, eosinophillic appearance in H&E stains
what causes hyaline change
nonspecific accumulations of proteinaceous material
hemosiderin has positive staining reaction with (1)
Prussian blue dye
hemochromatosis
extensive accumulation of hemosiderin within parenchymal cells with tissue damage, scarring and organ dysfunction
hereditary hemochromatosis caused by mutation in (1)
Hfe gene on Xm 6
triad found in hereditary hemochromatosis (3) aka (4)
1 = micronodular cirrhosis
2 = diabetes
3 = skin pigmentation
4 = bronze diabetes
what is brown atrophy?
lipofuscin accumulation with subsequent organ atrophy
lab abnormalities in hereditary hemachromatosis (2)
1 = increased serum iron
2 = decreased total iron binding capacity
--> results in marked elevation of serum transferring conc.
what is the main cause of secondary hemochromatosis?
multiple blood transfusions
What is lipofuscin?
end product of lipid peroxidation (yellow, fat soluble pigment)
What causes metastatic calcification?
hypercalcemia
Hypercalcemia most often results from? (4)
1 = hyperparathyroidism
2 = osteolytic tumors
3 = too much vit D
4 = excess calcium intake
What is dystrophic calcification?
defined as calcification in previously damaged tissues
Examples where dystrophic calcification occurs...
areas of old trauma
tuberculosis lesions
scarred heart valves
atherosclerotic lesions
the serum calcium level is (1) in dystrophic calcification
normal
5 Cardinal Signs of Inflammation
rubor (Redness)
dolor (pain)
calor (heat)
tumor (swelling)
loss of function
What is rubor caused by?
dilation of arterioles
--> caused by HISTAMINE
What is dolor (pain) caused by?
increased pressure exerted by accumulation of interstitial fluid
--> caused by BRADYKININ and PGE2
What is calor (heat) caused by?
increased blood flow, due to vasodilation ---> caused by HISTAMINE
What is tumor (Swelling) caused by?
swelling due to extravascular accumulation of fluid --> HISTAMINE causes increase in permeability of venules
What are selectins? (1)
- they are induced by (2) and (3)
1 = adhesion molecules important in acute inflammation
2 = IL1
3 = TNFa
L-selectins
- expressed on (1)
- bind to (2)
1 - neutrophils
2 - endothelial mucin-like molecules ex. GlyCam1
E and P selectins
- expressed on (1)
- bind to (2)
1 - endothelial cells
2 - oligosaccharides such as sialyl Lewis X on surface of leukocytes
P selectins
stored in endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies AND platelet alpha granules
--> relocate to PM after HISTAMINE and THROMBIN
immunoglobulin family adhesion proteins
ex: ICAM1/2, VCAM
- expressed on endothelial cells
- bind to leukocyte integrins
integrins
ex: LFA1, MAC1, VLA4
- present on leukocyte
- bind to ICAMs/VCAMs
neutrophils
- present in inflammation when? (1)
- released from ? (2)
- causes of neutrophilia? (3) and (4)
1 = first 24 hours of acute inflammation
2 = postmitotic reserve pool in bone marrow
3 = bacterial infection
4 = inflammation
when are monocytes/macrophages present in acute inflammation?
after 2-3 daysw
causes of monocytosis (4)
tuberculosis
brucellosis
typhus
salmonella infection
lymphocytes
- prominent during (1)
- most prominent cells in (2)
1 = viral infections
2 = chronic inflammation
Causes of lymphocytosis
- viral (4)
- bacterial (2)
viral:
influenza
mumps
rubella
mononucleosis

bacterial:
whooping cough
tuberculosis
eosinophils
- predominant during (1) and (2)
1 = allergic reactions
2 = parasitic infections
causes of eosinophilia (3)
allergies --> asthma, hay fever, hives, parasitic infections

polyarteritis nodosa
Hodgkin lymphoma
mast cells/basophils
- release (1)
- causes of basophilia (2)
1 = histamine
2 = chronic myelogenous leukemia and other myeloproliferative diseases
steps in emigration of leukocytes (5)
margination
pavementation
rolling
adhesion
transmigration
margination and pavementing
leukocytes line endothelial surface
-> adhesion molecule synthesis
rolling
endothelial selectins loosely bind leukocytes -> bind, then blood flow pushes them further, bind again etc
adhesion
leukocytes firmly adhere to surface
--> via ICAMs/VCAMS binding to integrins
transmigration
movement of leukocytes across endothelium
-- mediated by platelet endothelial cell adhesion
- neutrophils secrete type IV collagenase
chemotaxis
movement of leukocytes occurs along a chemical gradient -> toward factors produced at site of injury
chemotactic factors for neutrophils (5)
formylated peptides - E.coli bacteria products
C5a
LTB4/HETE = leukotrienes
kallikrein
fibrinogen - plasma protein
what is opsonization?
coating of particulate material by substances called opsonins, which immobilize the particles on surface of phagocyte
what are the most important opsonins? (2)
IgG
C3a
Bruton's agammaglobinemia
- XR disorder
- all immunoglobulins missing, incl. IgG
- no IgG = cannot opsonize bacteria
- die from infection
what is the most potent bactericidal mechanism?
myeloperoxidase-halide system of bacterial killing
- O2 dependent
Major action of histamine in acute inflammation
increase in capillary permeability by contraction of endothelial cells in post-capillary venules
Histamine is released by ? (3)
basophils
mast cells
platelets
What causes release of histamine from basophils/mast cells? (5)
1. binding of antigen to IgE
2. binding of C3a and C5a to specific cell surface R. on cells
3. physical stimuli (heat/cold)
4. IL1
5. substances released from neutrophils, monocytes and platelets
What causes release of histamine from platelets? (1)
- which can be triggered by (3)
1 - platelet aggregation

1. endothelial injury
2. thrombosis
3. platelet activating factor
PAF aka (1)
- derived from granules of (6)
1. acetyl-glyceryl-ether-phosphorylcholine (AGEPC)

1. basophils
2. mast cells
3. endothelial cells
4. macrophages
5. neutrophils
6. eosinophils
5HT
- released from (1)
- actions (2) and (3)
1 - platelets
2 - vasodilation
3 - increased vascular permeability
Platelet TXA2
vasoconstrictor
platelet aggregation
endothelial PGI2 (prostacyclin)
vasodilator
inhibitor of platelet aggregation
5-HPETE gives rise to (4)
1 - HETE = chemotactic factor for neutrophils
2 - LTB4 = chemotactic factor
3 - slow reacting susbtance of anaphylaxis (LTC4, LTD4, LTE4) = vasoconstriction, broncoconstriction, increased capillary permeability
4 - lipoxins (LXA4, LXB4) = inhibit neutrophils/eosinophils, activate monocyte/macrophages
steps in emigration of leukocytes (5)
margination
pavementation
rolling
adhesion
transmigration
margination and pavementing
leukocytes line endothelial surface
-> adhesion molecule synthesis
rolling
endothelial selectins loosely bind leukocytes -> bind, then blood flow pushes them further, bind again etc
adhesion
leukocytes firmly adhere to surface
--> via ICAMs/VCAMS binding to integrins
transmigration
movement of leukocytes across endothelium
-- mediated by platelet endothelial cell adhesion
- neutrophils secrete type IV collagenase
chemotaxis
movement of leukocytes occurs along a chemical gradient -> toward factors produced at site of injury
chemotactic factors for neutrophils (5)
formylated peptides - E.coli bacteria products
C5a
LTB4/HETE = leukotrienes
kallikrein
fibrinogen - plasma protein
what is opsonization?
coating of particulate material by substances called opsonins, which immobilize the particles on surface of phagocyte
what are the most important opsonins? (2)
IgG
C3a
Bruton's agammaglobinemia
- XR disorder
- all immunoglobulins missing, incl. IgG
- no IgG = cannot opsonize bacteria
- die from infection
IL1 and TNF induce acute phase responses such as: (5)
1 - systemic effects i.e. fever, luekocytosis
2 - hepatic synthesis of acute phase proteins i.e. CRP
3 - synthesis of adhesion molecules
4 - neutrophil degranulation
5 - promote thrombosis
kinin system
- activated by (1)
- (1) also activates (2), (3) and (4)
1 - Hageman factor XIIa
2 - intrinsic pathway of coagulation
3= plasminogen (fibrinolytic) pathway
4 = complement pathway
functions of C3a and C5a (3)
1 - release of histamine from mast cells and basophils and platelets
2 - expression of adhesion molecules
3 - activates lipoxygenase pathway
C3b is an (1)

C5b-9 is (2)
1 = opsonin

2 - membrane attack complex --> lytic agent for bacterial cells
NO stimulates (1) and inhibits (2)
1 = relaxation of smooth mm -> vasodilation

2 = inhibits platelet aggregation
Chronic Granulomatous disease of childhood
- mechanism? (1)
- deficient (2)
- can kill (3) but not (4)
1 = x-linked recessive
2 = deficient NADPH oxidase -> no peroxide made
3 = catalase negative i.e. strep
4 = catalase positive i.e. staph
myeloperoxidase deficiency increases susceptibility to what infections?
candida albicans
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
- mechanism (1)
- characterized by: (2), (3), (4) and (5)
1 - autosomal recessive
2 - neutropenia
3 - albinism
4 - cranial and peripheral neuropathy
5 - repeated infections
abnormal WBCs in Chediak-Higashi syndrome are characterized by (2)
1 = abnormal MT formation affecting movement
2 = large cytoplasmic granules in granulocytes, lymphocytes and monocytes
LAD type 1 deficiency
recurrent bacterial infections

deficiency in B2-integrins
LAD type 2 deficiency
recurrent bacterial infections

mutation in gene coding for lucosyltransferase, which is required for synthesis of sialyl-Lewis X on neutrophils
What is aneuploidy?
Xm number that is not 23
Nondisjunction
failure of Xm's to seperate during meiosis or mitosis
meiotic nondisjunction is
most common cause of aneuploidy
anaphase lag (1)
- can result in (2)
1 - loss of a Xm during meiotic or mitotic division

2- mosaicism
mosaicism
individual develops 2 lines of cells, one w/ normal Xm complement and another w/ monosomy i.e. a single residual Xm
p is the (1) arm

q is the (2) arm
p = short arm

q = long arm
inversion
reunion of a Xm broken at two points, in which the internal fragment is reinserted in an inverted position
translocation
exchange of Xmal segments b/w non homologous Xms (denoted by a t)
reciprocal or balanced translocation
break in two Xms leading to an exchange of Xmal material

no genetic material is lost = clinically silent
robertsonian translocation
long arms of 2 acrocentric Xms are joined w/ a common centromere and short arms are lost
isochrome formation
result of transverse rather than longitudinal division of Xm --> each consists of either two long arms or two short arms

the short armed Xm is usually lost
lyonization
X inactivation
barr bodies, aka (1), represent (2)
what are they made of? (3)
number of barr bodies is always (4)
1 = sex chromatin
2 = inactivated X chromosome
3 = clumps of chromatin in interphase nuclei of all somatic cells in females
4 = one less than number of X chromosomes
X inactivation
all X chromosomes except one are randomly inactivated at an early embryonic stage --> maternal X or paternal X may be active
XIST
X inactive specific transcript

--> large untranslated RNA molecule that is associated w/ coating and inactivating one of the two X chromosomes
Causes of Down's syndrome
a. (1) = (2) % = maternal age? (3)

b. (4) = (5) % = maternal age? (6)
1 = maternal meiotic nondisjunction
2 = 95 %
3 = risk increases w/ maternal age
4 = translocation
5 = 5%
6 = no relation to maternal age BUT if a familial form, w/ sig risk in next children
Characteristics of Down's Syndrome (5)
1. mental retardation
2. epicanthal folds and wide spaced eyes
3. Brushfield spots
4. simian crease
5. wide space b/w first and second toes
Brushfield spots
- characteristic in Down's

- small white spots on periphery of iris
Complications of Down's Syndrome (4)
1 - congenital heart disease i.e. endocardial cushion defect
2 - increased risk of acute lymphoblastic leukemia
3 - increased susceptibility to infection
4 - changes in brain similar to Alzheimers
Maternal Screening for Down's
triple screen
1. low a-fetoprotein
2. high hCG
3. low unconjugated estriol
Cri du Chat syndrome
deletion of short arm of chromosoma 5
Characteristics of Cri du Chat syndrome
1. severe mental retardation
2. microcephaly
3. unusual cat like cry
DiGeorge Syndrome aka. (1) and (2) caused by (3)
1. velocardiofacial syndrome
2. CATCH 22 syndrome

3. microdeletion of 22q11
CATCH 22
C - cardiac abnormalities
A - abnormal facies
T - T cell deficit bc of thymic hypoplasia
C - cleft palate
H - hypocalcemia
CATCH 22 syndrome may also be related to...
behavior disorders and psychosis (bipolar disorder and schizophrenia)
Klinefelter's Syndrome
47, XXY

male hypogonadism
Characteristics of Klinefelter's (5)
1. male phenotype w/ atrophic testes
2. tall stature
3. gynecomastia
4. decreased T, increased LH/FSH
5. male infertility
Klinfelter's is caused by....
maternal meiotic non-disjunction
XYY syndrome is increased in frequency among...
criminals w/ violent behavior
Turner Syndrome
45, XO

female hypogonadism
auto-antibody mediated hypothyroidism
Characteristics of Turner Syndrome (7)
1. fibrous streaks in ovaries
2. decreased E, increased LH/FSH
3. infantile genitalia, poor breast dev
4. short stature/webbed neck
5. lymphedema of extremities and neck
6. coarctation of aorta
7. primary amenorrhea
Fragile X is caused by....
cytogenetically demonstrable defect on long arm of X chromosome that leads to its breakage
Fragile X is associated with...
increased number of CGG tandem repeats in 5' UTR of FMR1 gene
Fragile X effects in ....
sons (1)
daughters (2)
1. bilaateral marco-orchidism
mental retardation
--> passes it to all of daughters

2. mental retardation only in 50%
explanation of genomic imprinting
differential expression of genes based on whether they are maternal or paternal in origin

--> due to differing levels of DNA methylation in female/male gonads
deletion in Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome
del (15)(q11q13)
Prader-Willi syndrome
microdeletion on paternal Xm
Angelman syndrome
microdeleltion on maternal Xm
characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome (4)
1. hypogonadism
2. hypotonia
3. mental retardation
4. uncontrolled appetite = obesity/diabetes
characteristics of Angelman syndrome
1. mental retardation
2. ataxia
3. seizures
4. inappropriate laughter
adult polycystic kidney disease
autosomal dominant disorder

--> numerous bilateral cysts that ultimately destroy renal parenchyma
familial hypercholesterolemia
AD defect in LDL-R

--> decreased transport of LDL cholesterol into cells
characteristics of familial hypercholesterolemia (2)
1. high cholesterol = atherosclerosis
2. xanthomas - in skin /tendons
hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasia is a (1) disorder; aka (2) w/ increased frequency in (3); characterized by (4)
1 = AD
2 = Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
3 = mormons in utah
4 = telangiectases of skin/mucous membranes
hereditary spherocytosis
AD disorder

--> inherited defects of RBC mb-associated skeletal proteins
--> result = hemolytic anemia
Marfan Syndrome
- inheritnce? (1)
- defect? (2)
1 = autosomal dominant
2 = defect in CT characterized by faulty scaffolding --> deficiency in fibrillin
Characteristics of Marfan syndrome (5)
1. tall, thin stature w/ long limbs
2. arachnodactyly
3. hyperextensible joints
4. dislocation of ocular lens (ectopia lentis)
5. aneurysm of proximal aorta
aortic valvular deficiency
DISSECTING AORTA
mitral valve prolapse
Neurofibromatosis Type 1
aka. (1)
- inheritance ? (2)
- mutations in ?(3)
1 = von Recklinghausen disease
2 = AD
3 = NF1 gene which encodes a GAP which inactivates Ras
Characteristics of Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (5)
1. multiple neurofibromas
2. cafe au lait spots
3. Lisch nodules - pigmented iris hamartomas
4. scoliosis / bone cysts
5. increased incidence of pheochromocytoma
Tuberous Sclerosis
- inheritance? (1)
AD
Characteristics of Tuberous Sclerosis (6)
1. glial nodules and distorted neurons in cortex
2. seizures
3. mental retardation
4. adenoma sebaceum
5. rhabdomyomas of heart
6. renal angiomyolipomas
Von Hippel-Lindau disease
- inheritance ? (1)
- characteristics (3)
1 = autosomal dominant

characteristics:
1 = hemangioblastoma/cavernous hemangioma in cerebellum, brain stem or retina
2 = cysts of liver, kideney, pancreas
3 = renal cell carcinoma
Tay Sachs
- type of disease? (1)
- deficiency of (2) results in accumulation of (3)
- common in (4)
1 = lysosomal storage disorder
2 = hexoaminidase A
3 = Gm2 ganglioside in neurons
4 = Ashkenazi jews
Characteristics of Tay Sach's (5)
1. CNS degeneration
2. severe mental/motor deterioration
3. blindness
4. cherry red spot on macula
5. death before 4 y/o
Gaucher Disease
- type of disease (1)
- deficiency of (2) results in accumulation of (3)
- identified by presence of (4)
1 =lysosomal storage disease
2 = glucosylceramidase (glucocerebrosidase)
3 = glucocereboside in cells of mononuclear phagocyte system
4 = Gaucher cells = enlarged histiocytes w/ distinct cigarette paper appearance
Type 1 Gaucher's disease is characterized by... (3)
1. hepatosplenamegaly
2. erosion of femoral head and long bones
3. mild anemia
Niemann-Pick Disease
- type of disease? (1)
- deficiency of (2) results in accumulation of (3)
1 - lysosomal storage disease
2 - sphingomyelinase
3 - sphingomyelin in phagocytes
Characteristics of Niemann-Pick Disease (4)
1. foamy histiocytes in liver, spleen, lymph and skin
2. hepatosplenamegaly
3. cherry red spot on macula (50%)
4. death by 3 y/o
Hurler Syndrome
- type of disease? (1)
- deficiency of (2) results in accumulation of (3)
1 - mucopolysaccaridoses - type 1
2 - a-L-iduronidase
3 - dermatin and heparin sulfate
Characteristics of Hurler Syndrome (6)
1. progressive deterioration
2. hepatosplenomegaly
3. dwarfism
4. gargoyle like face
5. corneal clouding
6. death by 10 y/o
Von Gierke Disease
- type of disease ? (1)
- deficiency of (2) results in accumulation of (3)
- main characteristics: (4), (5)
1 - glycogen storage disease - type 1
2- glucose-6-phosphatase
3 - glycogen in liver and kidney
4 - hepatomegaly
5 - hypoglycemia
Pomp Disease
- type ? (1)
- deficiency (2)
- accumulation of (3)
- characteristics : (4), (5), (6), (7)
1 - glycogen storage type 2
2 - a-1,4-glucosidase
3 = glycogen in liver, heart and skeletal mm
4 - cardiomegaly
5 - muscle hypotonia
6 - splenomegaly
7 - death before 3 y/o due to cardiorespiratory failure
McArdle Syndrome
- type (1)
- deficiency (2)
- accumulation of (3)
- effects --> (4)
1 - glycogen storage type V
2 - muscle phosphorylase
3 - glycogen in skeletal mm
4 - muscle cramps and weakness during exercise
classic galactosemia
deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase w/ resultant accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate in tissues
characteristics of galactosemia (4)
1. failure to thrive
2. infantile cataracts
3. mental retardation
4. hepatic failure/cirrhosis
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- mutation in (1)
- accumulation of (2)
- build up of metabolites (3) and (4)
1. phenylalanine hydroxylase
2. phenylalanine (lack of tyrosine)
3. phenylpyruvic acid
4. phenylacetic acid
Characteristics of PKU (5)
1. progressive mental deterioration
2. seizures
3. hyperactivity
4. lack of pigmentation - blue eyed, blonde hair
5. mousy/musty body odor
aklaptonuria
deficiency of homogentisic oxidase leading to accumulation and urinary excretion of homogentisic acid
characteristics of alkaptonuria (3)
1. urine turns dark/black on standing
2. ochronosis = dark pigmentation of fibrous tissues and cartilage
3. ochronotic arthritis
Maple Syrup Urine disease
defects in branched chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase complex
characteristics of maple syrup urine (4)
1. mental/physical retardation
2. feeding problems
3. maple syrup odor of urine
4. high urinary levels of leucine, isoleucine and valine
Cystic fibrosis
- mutation in (1)
- deletion (2)
- leads to (3) and (4)
1 - CFTR gene on Xm 7
2 - phenylalanine at position 508
3. malfunction of exocrine glands w/ increased viscosity of mucous
4 . increased Cl- conc in sweat and tears
3 main complications of Cystic Fibrosis
1. chronic pulmonary disease
- infection w/ pseudomonas aeruginosa common cause of death

2. pancreatic insufficiency
- malabsorption and steatorrhea

3. meconium ileus
- small bowel obstruction caused by thickened meconium
Hunter Syndrome
- type of inheritance (1)
- deficiency of (2)
- accumulation of (3)
1 - XLR
2 - L-iduronosulfate sulfatase
3. heparin and dermatin sulfate
characteristcs of Hunter syndrome (6)
1. hepatosplenomegaly
2. micrognathia
3. retinal degeneration
4. joint stiffness
5. mild mental retardation
6. cardiac lesions
Fabry disease
- aka (1)
- inheritance (2)
- deficiency of (3)
- accumulation of (4)
1. angiokeratoma corporis diffusum universale
2. XLR - lysosomal storage
3. a-galactosidase A
4. ceramide trihexoside in body tissues
Characteristics of Fabry Disease (4)
1. angiokeratoma skin lesions
2. febrile episodes
3. severe burning pain in extremities
4. death by renal failure
Classic Hemophillia A
- inheritance (1)
- mutation in (2)
- characterized by (3)
1 - XLR, relatively common
2 - factor VIII gene
3 - hemorrhage from minor wounds, bleeding in oral mucosa, hematuria and hemarthroses
Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome
- inheritance (1)
- deficiency of (2)
- result (3)
1 - XLR
2 - HGPRT
3 - impaired purine metabolism and excess production of uric acid
characteristics of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (4)
1. gout
2. mental retardation
3. choreoathetosis
4. self mutilation and aggression
Heterozygotes of HbS are resistant to (1) but homozygotes have (2)
1 - malaria
2 - sickle cell anemia
unaffected heterozygotes w/ PKU have (1)
lower incidence of spontaneous abortions
Tay Sach's has a protective effect against...
tuberculosis
Cystic Fibrosis has a protective effect against...
cholera
granuloma
nodular collection of macrophages known as "epitheloid cells"
granulomatous inflammation is characterized by (1) surrounded by (2)
1 = granuloma
2 = rim of lymphocytes
Mechanism of formation of granuloma
macrophages present antigen to CD4+ Th1 cells

--> T cell receptor activation triggers release of cytokines esp. IFNy

--> IFNy mediates transformation of macrophages into epitheloid cells and giant cells
Langhans giant cell
nuclei arranged in horseshoe pattern around periphery of cell

--> characteristic of granulomatous inflammation in tuberculosis
foreign body giant cell
scattered nuclei
Infectious agents that cause granulomatous inflammation (7)
1. mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. M. leprae
3. blastomyces dermatitidis
4. histoplasma capsulatum
5. coccidiodes immitis
6. treponema pallidum
7. cat scratch disease
labile cells - definition
divide actively throughout life to replace lost cells --> capable of regeneration after injury
labile cells - examples (4)
epidermis
GI mucosa
cells lining genitourinary tract
hematopoietic cells of bone marrow
stable cells - definition
undergo few divisions, but capable of division when activated --> capable of regeneration after injury
stable cells - examples (4)
1. hepatocytes
2. renal tubular cells
3. parenchymal cells of glands
4. mesenchymal cells i.e. sm. mm, cartilage, CT, endothelium and osteoblasts
permanent cells - definition
incapable of division or regeneration --> replaced by scar tissue (fibrosis) after irreversible injury and cell loss
permanent cells -examples (2)
myocardial cells
neurons
PDGF
- synthesized by (1)
- chemotactic for.. (2), (3), (4)
- function (5)
1 = platelets
2 = fibroblasts
3 = smooth mm cells
4 = monocytes

5 = promotes proliferative response of fibroblasts and smooth mm cells as well as synthesis of collagen
EGF
progression factor that promotes the growth of endothelial cells and fibroblasts as well as epithelial cells
FGF
promotes synthesis of ECM protein incl. fibronectin
FGF is produced by ... (3)
1. fibroblasts
2. endothelial cells
3. monocytes
Characteristics of fibronectin (3)
1. chemotactic for fibroblasts and endothelial cells
2. promotes angiogenesis
3. links other ECM components and macromolecules to cell surface integrins
TGFa
functions similarly to EGF
TGFb
growth inhibitor

chemotactic factor for macrophages and fibroblasts
IL-1 and TNF promote proliferation of ... (3)
fibroblasts
smooth muscle cells
endothelial cells
What is granulation tissue?
high vascular, newly formed CT consisting of capillaries and fibroblasts

--> fills defects created by liquefaction of cellular debris
as the amount of collagen increases in granulation tissue....
the tissue gradually becomes less vascular and less cellular
Factors that delay/impede repair (5)
1. retention of debris
2. impaired circulation
3. persistent infection
4. metabolic disorders
5. dietary deficiency of Vit C or protein
hematoma
localized hemorrhage within a tissue or organ
hemothorax
hemorrhage into pleural cavity
hemopericardium
hemorrhage into pericardiac sac
hemoperitoneum
hemorrhage into peritoneal cavity
hemiarthrosis
hemorrhage into synovial space
petechial hemorrhages, petechaie and purpura
small, punctate hemorrhages

occur in:
skin
mucous membranes
serosal surfaces
ecchymosis
diffuse hemorrhage usually in skin or subcutaneous tissue
aka. bruise
hyperemia
localized increase in volume of blood in capillaries and small vessels
active hyperemia
localized arteriolar dilation
- results in blushing/inflammation
passive congestion (hyperemia)
caused by obstructed venous return.. OR... increased back pressure (CHF)
acute passive congestion occurs in ... (3)
1. shock
2. acute inflammation
3. sudden RHF
chronic passive congestion of LUNG is caused most often by.. (2)
1. Left sided congestive HF
2. mitral stenosis
heart failure cells
hemosiderin laden macrophages

--> located intra-alveolarly
--> congestion causes distention/rupture of alveolar capillaries and passage of RBCs into alveoli
chronic passive congestion of LIVER and LOWER extremities is most often caused by....
right sided heart failure
nutmeg liver
dilated, congestive central veins in liver w/ surrounding brownish-yellow, often fatty, liver cells

--> seen in chronic passive congestion
infarction
necrosis resulting from ischemia (occlusion of blood supply)
anemic infarcts
- color? (1)
- where do they occur? (2)
- caused by? (3)
1 = white or pale

2 = heart, spleen or kidney

3 = arterial occlusions
hemorrhagic infarcts
- color ? (1)
- caused by? (2)
- occur characteristically in.. (3)
1 - red (red cells ooze into necrotic area)
2 - arterial occlusion or venous occlusion
3 - lungs and GI tracts (have collateral circulation)
venous occlusion, leading to hemorrhagic infarct contributes to .. (3)
1. volvulus
2. incarcerated hernias
3. postoperative adhesions
thrombosis
- definition? (1)
- interplay of what 3 things ? (2)
1 = intravascular coagulation of blood
2 = platelets, damaged endothelial cells and coagulation cascade
conditions that predispose to thrombosis... (7)
1. venous stasis
2. CHF
3. polycythemia
4. sickle cell disease
5. visceral malignancies
6. OCP
7. smoking
4 main functions of platelets
1. physical integrity of vasc. endo
2. endo repair through PDGF
3. platelet plugs
4. coagulation cascade via platelet phospholipid complex
mechanism of platelet adhesion to endothelium
injury exposes subendothelial collagen --> this binds to vWF

vWF binds glycoprotein receptors on platelets
TxA2
formed from AA which is activated by platelet mb phospholipase

--> potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregant
mechanism of platelet aggregation
mediated by glycoprotein IIb-IIIa complex on the surface of platelets that is required to ling platelets to fibrinogen
which mediator limits platelet plug formation?
PgI2
--> antagonistic to TxA2

fibrin degradation products are also inhibitory
functions of endothelial include... (8)
1. produce endothelial proteoglycans that activates anti-thrombin III
2. secrete tissue plasminogen activator
3. degrade ADP
4. inactivate thrombin
5. synthesize thrombomodulin
6. synthesize protein S = cofactor for activated Protein C
7. synthesize PGI2
8. synthesize/release NO
thrombomodulin
cell surface protein that binds thrombin and activates protein C
fibrinolysis is medaited by... (1)
plasmin
--> splits fibrin
hereditary thrombophilia
- occurs in (1)
- characterized by (2) and (3)
- deficiency in (4), (5) and (6)
1 = adolescent young women
2 = recurrent venous thrombosis
3 = thrombo-embolism
4 = antithrombin III
5 = protein C
6 = protein S
factor V leiden
most frequent case of hereditary thrombophillia
--> resistant to cleavage by activated protein C
methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase mutation
moderate increase in serum homocysteine --> arterial and venous thrombosis
you can decrease levels of homocysteine by....
intake of folic acid, vit B6 and vit B12
arterial thrombi
- formed in areas of (1)
- when mature, they possess (2)
1 = active blood flow
2 = lines of Zahn
lines of Zahn
alternating dark gray layers of platelets interspersed w/ lighter layers of fibrin
venous thrombi
- aka (1)
- formed in areas of (2)
- most common in (3)
- color (4)
1 - phlebothrombosis
2 - less active blood flow
3 - veins of lower extremities
4 - dark red w/ higher conc of red cells
thrombophlebitis
inflammation of veins w/ thrombus formation
postmortem clots
not attached to vessel wall

currant jelly appearance in red cell rich layer and chicken fat appearance in cell-poor upper layer
arterial emboli usually arise from.... (1)
mural thrombi
mural thrombi in LA associated w/ (1)
mural thrombi in LV associated w/ (2)
1 = mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation

2 = myocardial infarction
main sites of arrest of arterial emboli ... (3)
1 = middle cerebral artery = cerebral infarct
2 = mesenteric artery = hemorrhagic infarction of intestine
3 = renal artery = pale infarcts of renal cortex
paradoxical emboli
left sided emboli that originate in venous circulation but gain access via R-L shunt, most often patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect
fat emboli
particles of bone marrow and fatty intraosseus tissue

--> from severe/multiple fractures
where do fat emboli lodge?
lungs
brain
kidneys
fat embolism syndrome
pulmonary distress
cutaneous petichae
neurologic manifestations
decompression sickness
deep sea divers who return to surface too rapidly
--> bubbles of insoluble nitrogen come out of solution and obstruction circulation
the bends
mucsculoskeletal pain due to air emboli
caisson disease
small infarcts in CNS, bones and other tissues due to chronic presence of air emboli
--> fat ppl have increased risk bc nitrogen has increased affinity for adipose
transudate
low protein content
specific gravity < 1.012

--> result of increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased osmotic pressure
exudate
high protein content
specific gravity > 1.012
contains lots of leukocytes

--> result of increased vascular permeability (inflammation)
shock
circulatory collapse w/ resultant hypoperfusion and decreased oxygenation of tissues
causes of shock (2)
1 = decreased CO (hemorrhage, LVF)

2 = peripheral vasodilation (sepsis, trauma) --> hypotension
hypovolemic shock -- causes.. (3)
1. severe hemorrhage
2. loss of fluid from skin - burns
3. severe vomiting/diarrhea
cardiogenic shock
pump failure of LV

--> caused by massive MI
septic shock
- usually gram negative bacteria
- cause direct injury to vessels resulting in peripheral pooling of blood and vasodilation
--> impaired perfusion and DIC
systemic infammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
generalized immune and inflammatory reaction that may complicate septic shock
neurogenic shock
associated w/ severe trauma and reactive peripheral vasodilation
stages of shock (3)
1. compensation = increased HR and increased TPR
2. progression = tissue hypoperfusion, metabolic acidosis
3. irreversible = survival not possible
most important morphologic manifestation of shock....
acute tubular necrosis in kidney
--> reversible potentially
other findings in shock...(6)
1. areas of necrosis in brain
2. centrilobular necrosis in liver
3. fatty change in heart/liver
4. patchy mucosal hemorrhage in colon
5. depletion of lipid in adrenal cortex
6. pulmonary edema
systemic infammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
generalized immune and inflammatory reaction that may complicate septic shock
neurogenic shock
associated w/ severe trauma and reactive peripheral vasodilation
stages of shock (3)
1. compensation = increased HR and increased TPR
2. progression = tissue hypoperfusion, metabolic acidosis
3. irreversible = survival not possible
most important morphologic manifestation of shock....
acute tubular necrosis in kidney
--> reversible potentially
other findings in shock...(6)
1. areas of necrosis in brain
2. centrilobular necrosis in liver
3. fatty change in heart/liver
4. patchy mucosal hemorrhage in colon
5. depletion of lipid in adrenal cortex
6. pulmonary edema
features of dysplasia (4)
1. reversible
2. disorderly maturation and spatial arrangement of cells
3. marked variability in nuclear size and shape
4. increased mitoses
the most important defining characteristic of malignancy
metastasis
characteristics of anaplasia (7)
1. poorly differentiated
2. pleomorphism
3. hyperchromatism
4. increased nuclear-cytoplasm ratio
5. abnormal mitoses
6. cellular dyspolarity
7. prominent nucleoli
most aggressive tumors usually respond to what kind of treatment? (1) and why? (2)
1 = chemo / radiation
2 = bc they are rapidly dividing
carcinoma is a malignant tumor of .... origin
epithelial
squamous cell carcinoma
- originates from ? (1)
- places (2)
- characterized by (3)
1. stratified squamous epithelium

2. skin, mouth, esophagus, vagina, bronchi, cervix

3. keratin pearls
adenocarcinoma
carcinoma of glandular epithelium
locations where adenocarcinoma can occur (3)
GI mucosa
endometrium
pancreas
adenocarcinoma is associated w/ (1) esp. in (2), (3) and (4) tumors
1. desmoplasia
2. breast
3. pancreas
4. prostate
desmoplasia
tumor induced proliferation of non-neoplastic fibrous CT
sarcoma
tumor of mesenchymal origin
teratoma
neoplasm derived from three germ cell layers
where do teratomas usually form?
ovaries and testes
papilloma
fingerlike epithelial processes overlying a core of CT stroma that contains blood vessels
where do papillomas form?
on surface epithelium

--> squamous epithelium of skin, larynx or tongue
adenoma
benign neoplasm of glandular epithelium
papillary cystadenoma
adenomatous papillary processes that extend into cystic space


ex. cystadenoma of ovary
fibroadenoma
proliferation of CT surrounding glandular epithelium; either the CT or the stroma may be neoplastic
choristoma
small, non neoplastic area of normal tissue misplaced within another organ

ex. pancreatic nodule in wall of stomach
hamartoma
non-neoplastic, disorganized, tumor-like overgrowth of cell types regularly found in the affected organ

ex. hemangioma = irregular accumulation of BV
the classic indicators of monoclonality of tumors
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

--> as well as other X linked markers
human androgen receptor gene (HUMARA)
now the most common marker used to assess clonality
HUMARA method involves...
studying methylation patterns adjacent to high frequency polymorphisms in multiple populations
invasion
aggressive infiltration of adjacent tissues by malignant tumor
--> extends to lymphatics and blood vessels forming tumor emboli
metastasis
implantation of tumor in distant sites from origin
multistep process of metastasis (6)
1. growth and vascularization of primary tumor
2. invasiveness and penetration of BM
3. transport and survival of tumor cells in bloodstream
4. arrest of tumor emboli in target
5. overcome target tissue defense mechanisms
6. metastatic implants
carcinomas metastasize via...
lymphatics
sarcomas metastasize via..
blood-borne (hematogenous) dissemination
which two carcinomas spread by hematogenous dissemination?
1. renal cell carcinoma
2. hepatocellular carcinoma
Most common target organs for metastasis....
liver
lungs
brain
adrenal glands
lymph nodes
bone marrow
cachexia and wasting (clinical manifestations of malignancy) are mediated by...
TNFa i.e. cachectin
paraneoplastic Cushing's syndrome
increased ACTH

--> small cell lung carcinoma
paraneoplastic increase in ADH
small cell lung carcinoma
paraneoplastic hypercalcemia (3)
1. metastatic disease in bone
2. bronchogenic carcinoma - secretion of PTHrP
3. multiple myeloma - osteoclast activating factor
paraneoplastic hypoglycemia
secretion of insulin-like factor by:
hepatocellular carcinoma
mesotheliomas
sarcomas
paraneoplastic polycythemia
elaboration of erythropoetin by renal tumors
paraneoplastic hyperthyroidism
increased TSH production

--> by hydatidiform moles, choriocarcinomas and lung tumors
paraneoplastic skin lesions (2)
1. acanthosis nigricans
2. dermatomyositis
paraneoplastic neurologic abnormalities (3)
1. degenerative cerebral changes w/ dementia
2. cerebellar changes w/ resultant gait dysfunction
3. peripheral neuropathies
paraneoplastic coagulation abnormalities (2)
1. migratory thrombophlebitis associated w/ carcinoma of pancreas = Trousseau phenomenon

2. DIC
carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
associated w/ colon cancer
a-fetoprotein (AFP)
associated w/ hepatocellular carcinoma and many germ cell tumors
cigarette smoking is associated w/ which cancers?
1. carcinoma of lung
2. carcinoma of larynx
excess sun exposure associated w/ ?
1. squamous cell carcinoma
2. basal cell carcinoma
3. melanoma
akylating agents are associated w/ which cancer?
acute leukemia
asbestos is associated w/ which cancers? (3)
1. lung carcinoma
2. pleural and peritoneal mesothelioma
3. GI tract cancers
smoked foods rich in nitrosamines associated w/ which cancer?
adenocarcinoma of stomach
alcohol is associated w/ which cancer? (2)
1. carcinoma of mouth/esophagus
2. hepatocellular carcinoma (from cirrhosis)
arsenic is associated w/ which cancer? (2)
1. squamous cell carc. of skin
2. basal cell carc. of skin
low fiber diet is associated w/ which cancer?
adenocarcinoma of colon
high fat diet is associated w/ which cancer?
breast cancer
aniline dyes, aromatic amines and B-naphthylamine are associated w/ which cancer?
transitional cell carcinoma of bladder
aflatoxin B1 is associated w/ which cancer?
hepatocellular carcinoma
benzene is associated w/ which cancer?
acute leukemia
polyvinyl chloride is associated w/ which cancer?
hepatic hemangiosarcoma
thorotrast is associated w/ which cancer?
hepatic hemangiosarcoma
diethylstilbestrol is associated w/ which cancer?
clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina
--> occurs in daughters
nickel, chromium and uranium are associated w/ which cancer?
carcinoma of lung
initiation of carcinogenesis
reaction b/w carcinogen and DNA
promotion of carcinogenesis
induced by stimulator of carcinogenesis and enhances the carcinogenic process
mechanism of UV radiation carcinogenesis
forms thymine dimers in DNA
xeroderma pigmentosum
AR
--> failure of DNA excision repair
--> cannot repair thymine dimers due to UV light
ionizing radiation is responsible for the following cancers..(5)
1. skin cancer and myeloid leukemias in radiologists
2. lung cancer in uranium miners
3. thyroid cancer in pts who have received head and neck radiation therapy
4. acute and chronic myeloid leukemias in survivors of atomic blasts
5. osteosarcoma in radium watch-dial workers
HTLV-1 virus is associated w/ which cancer?
adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma
HPV is associated w/ which cancer? (2)
premalignant lesions and cancers of cervix/vagina

laryngeal papillomas
EBV virus is associated w/ which cancer? (2)
1. Burkitt lymphoma
2. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hepatits B virus (HBV) is associated w/ which cancer?
hepatocellular carcinoma
HHV8 virus is associated w/ which cancer?
Kaposi's sarcoma
H.pylori is associated w/ which cancer? (2)
1. adenocarcinoma of stomach
2. B cell lymphomas of stomach (MALTomas)
t(8:14) translocation
Burkitt Lymphoma
--> increases expression of c-myc
t(14:18) translocation
follicular lymphoma
--> enhanced expression of bcl2 (inhibits apoptosis)
t(9:22) translocation
chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
--> bcr-abl fusion gene = increased TK activity
Philadelphia Xm
carries bcr-abl gene
t(15:17) translocation
acute promyelocytic leukemia
--> PML gene on Xm15 and retinoic acid receptor-alpha gene on XM17
two hit hypothesis of Knudson
regarding tumor suppressor genes

--> two mutagenic events are necessary to induce alterations on both chromosomes
Li-Fraumeni syndrome predisposes to which cancers? (4)
1. breast tumors
2. soft tissue sarcomas
3. brain tumors
4 leukemias
Wilm's tumor
most common renal neoplasm of children
--> inactivation/deletion of WT1 and WT2
BRCA1
inactivation is associated w/ familial propensity to breast and ovarian carcinoma
von Recklinghouse neurofibromatosus type 1
multiple benign neurofibromas
cafe au lait spots
iris hamartomas
increased risk of fibrosarcoma

--> mutations in TSG called NF1
multiple endocrine neoplasia
familial occurence of:
medullary thyroid carcinoma
bilateral pheochromocytoma
hyperparathyroidism

--> mutation in ret proto-oncogene