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410 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the three major components of acute inflammation?
1) alterations in vascular caliber that lead to increased blood flow
2) structural changes in microvasculature that permit plasma proteins and leukocytes to leave circulation
3) emigration of leukocytes from microcirculation, their accumulation in the focus of injury, and their activation
what are toll-like receptors?
receptors that detect bacteria, viruses, and fungi
what molecules, released from necrotic cells elicit inflammation?
uric acid (purine metabolite)
ATP
HMGB-1 (DNA binding protein of unknown function)
DNA (when released into cytoplasm)
what is the effect of hypoxia on inflammation?
is an inducer of the inflammatory response
how does hypoxia induce the inflammatory response?
hypoxia-induced factor-1alpha (HIF-1alpha)
what cells produce HIF-1alpha?
what is its effect?
cells deprived of oxygen

activates transcription of many genes involved in inflammation, including VEGF
why do foreign bodies elicit inflammation?
cause traumatic injury

carry microbes
what is exudation?
the escape of fluid, proteins, and blood cells from the vascular system into the interstitial tissue or body cavities
what is an exudate?
extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration, contains cellular debris, and has a high specific gravity
what is implied by the presence of exudate?
increase in the normal permeability of small blood vessels in an area of injury, and therefore an inflammatory reaction
what is a transudate?
extravascular fluid with low protein content (most of which is albumin), little or no cellular material, and low specific gravity
what causes a transudate?
osmotic or hydrostatic imbalance across the vessel wall without an increase in vascular permeability
what is edema?
excess of fluid in the interstitial tissue or serous cavities

can be either transudate or exudate
what is pus?
a purulent exudate

inflammatory exudate rich in leukocytes (mostly neutrophils), the debris of dead cells, and in many cases, microbes
what vasculature is involved in vasodilation?
first the arterioles

then leads to opening of new capillary beds in the area
what is erythema?
heat and redness caused by increased blood flow at the site of inflammation
what two mediators are notable for causing vasodilation by their actions at vascular smooth muscle?
histamine

nitric oxide (NO)
what is the result of loss of fluid and increased vessel diameter in vasculature during inflammation?
slower blood flow

concentration of red cells in small vessels

increased viscosity of blood
what is stasis?
dilation of small vessels that are packed with slowly moving red cells

seen as vascular congestion upon examination of the involved tissue
what happens as stasis develops?
red blood cells accumulate in the middle of the blood flow

leukocytes, principally neutrophils, accumulate along the vascular endothelium

endothelial cells are activated by mediators produced at sites of infection and tissue damage, and express increased levels of adhesion molecules
what mechanisms are responsible for increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation?
1) contraction of endothelial cells resulting in increased interendothelial spaces
2) endothelial injury, resulting in endothelial cell necrosis and detachment
3) increased transport of fluids and proteins through the endothelial cell (transcytosis)
what is transcytosis?
transport of fluids and proteins through the endothelial cells

occurs in venules
induced by VEGF
what chemical mediators cause contraction of endothelial cells resulting in increased interendothelial spaces?
histamine
bradykinin
leukotrienes
neuropeptide substance P
what is the immediate transient response in vascular permeability? why?
contraction of endothelial cells resulting in increased interendothelial spaces

it occurs rapidly after exposure to the mediator and is usually short-lived (15-30 minutes)
when is direct damage to vascular endothelium encountered?
severe injuries

- burns
- actions of microbes that target endothelial cells
what is lymphangitis?
inflammation of lymphatics
what is lymphadenitis?
inflammation of lymph nodes
why are inflamed lymph nodes often enlarged?
hyperplasia of the lymphoid follicles

increased number of lymphocytes and macrophages
of what are red streaks near a skin wound a tell tale sign?
infection in the wound

follows lymphatic channels and is diagnostic of lymphangitis
what are the most important leukocytes in typical inflammatory reactions?
phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages)
what steps must a leukocyte undergo in the lumen of a blood vessel before extravasation?
margination
rolling
adhesion to endothelium
how are blood cells oriented in normally flowing blood in venules?
red cells are confined to a central axial column displacing leukocytes toward the wall of the vessel
what is the effect, on white blood cells, of stasis in inflammation?
wall shear stress decreases and more white cells assume a peripheral position along the endothelial surface
what is margination?
leukocyte redistribution to a peripheral position along the endothelial surface as an effect of stasis
what is rolling, as it refers to extravasation?
leukocytes (first individually, and then in rows) adhere transiently to the endothelium, detach and bind again as they travel along the vessel wall
by what family of proteins are the initial rolling interactions of leukocytes mediated?
selectins
what are the three types of selectins? on what cells are they expressed?
L-selectin on leukocytes
E-selectin on endothelial cells
P-selectin on platelets and endothelial cells
what are the ligands for selectins?
sialylated oligosaccharides bound to mucin-like glycoprotein backbones
what regulates the expression of selectins and their ligands?
cytokines produced in response to infection and injury
what is the effect of TNF on endothelial cells?
in the post-capillary venules, TNF induces the endothelial cells to express numerous adhesion molecules
what is the effect of IL-1 on endothelial cells?
in the post-capillary venules, it induces the expression of adhesion molecules
what adhesion molecules are expressed by endothelial cells when they are stimulated with TNF?
E-selectin
ligands for L-selectin (GlyCam-1, CD34)

VCAM-I
ICAM-I
what adhesion molecules are expressed by endothelial cells when they are stimulated with IL-1?
E-selectin
ligands for L-selectin (GlyCam-1, CD34)

VCAM-I
ICAM-I
what chemical mediators induce the redistribution of P-selectin from Weibel-Palade bods to he cell surface?
histamine
thrombin
platelet-activating factor (PAF)
at are the endothelial cell granules called where P-selectin is normally stored intracellularly?
Weibel-Palade bodies
where do leukocytes express L-selectin?
tips of their microvilli
what adhesion molecules are expressed on leukocytes to bind when they are rolling?
L-selectin

ligands for E- and P-selectins (sialyl-lewis X-modified proteins)
why do selectins mediate rolling and not strong adhesion of leukocytes?
they are low affinity interactions with their complementary molecules and have fast off-rates

the interactions are easily disrupted by the flowing blood
what family of heterodimeric leukocyte surface proteinsmediates firm adhesion?
integrins
what is VCAM-I?
vascular cell adhesion molecule-I

ligand for VLA-4 integrin

important in firm adhesion of eosinophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes
what is ICAM-I?
intercellular adhesion molecule-I

ligand for LFA-I and Mac-I integrins

important in firm adhesion, arrest, and transmigration of neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes
what is the endothelial ligand for the VLA-4 integrin on leukocytes?
VCAM-I
what is the endothelial ligand for the LFA-1 integrin on leukocytes?
ICAM-1
what is the endothelial ligand for the Mac-1 integrin on leukocytes?
ICAM-1
what selectin molecules are expressed on endothelial cells?
E-selectin

P-selectin
what selectin molecules are expressed on platelets?
P-selectin
what selectin molecules are expressed on leukocytes?
L-selectin
in what state are integrins normally expressed on leukocytes?
low affinity state

activation of leukocytes with chemokines leads to a conversion of VLA-4 and LFA-1 to a high-affinity state
what is transmigration?
aka diapedesis

migration of the leukocytes through the endothelium
where does transmigration of leukocytes mainly occur?
post-capillary venules
what is CD31?
aka PECAM-1 (platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1)

adhesion molecule present in the intercellular junctions between endothelial cells, that is involved in migration of leukocytes
how do leukocytes pierce the basement membrane after traversing endothelium?
by secreting collagenases
how are leukocytes able to adhere to extracellular matrix in connective tissue?
integrins
CD44

retains leukocytes at the site where they are needed
what is the defect in leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1?
defect in biosynthesis of the beta2 chain shared by the LFA-1 and Mac-1 integrins
what is the defect in leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2?
defect in fucosyl transferase

causes absence of sialyl-lewis x antigen, ligand for E- and P-selectins
what is the function of fucosyl transferase?
enzyme that attaches fucose moieties to protein backbones

important for synthesizing sialyl-lewis x antigen, the ligand for E- and P- selectins
what is chemotaxis?
locomotion along a chemical gradient
what are the most common exogenous chemoattractants?
bacterial products, including peptdes that possess an N-formylmethionine terminal amino acid
what are endogenous chemoattractants?
cytokines (e.g. IL-8)

components of complement system (e.g. C5a)

arachidonic acid metabolites (e.g. LTB4)
how does chemotaxis occur?
chemotactic molecule binds receptor -> activation of second messengers -> inc. cytosolic calcium -> activated guanosine triphosphatases of the Rac/Rho/cdc42 family -> polymerization of actin at leading edge; myosin filaments localized in back

filopodia pull the back of the cell in the direction of extension
what types of leukocytes predominate the infiltrate of acute inflammation?
neutrophils during first 6-24 hours

monocytes in 24-48 hours
why are neutrophils quicker to respond than other leukocytes?
more numerous in the blood

respond more rapidly to chemokines

attach more firmly to rapidly induced adhesion molecules (E- and P- selectins)
what happens to neutrophils 24-48 hours after they enter the tissues?
undergo apoptosis and disappear
why do monocytes become the dominant population of leukocytes in chronic inflammatory reactions?
neutrophils undergo apoptosis and disappear after 24 to 48 hours

monocytes survive longer and may proliferate in the tissues
by what type of leukocyte is the infiltrate in a pseudomonas infection dominated?
continuously recruited neutrophils for several days
what type of leukocyte is the first in the infiltrate in viral infections?
lymphocytes
what are the main leukocytes to arrive at a hypersensitivity reaction?
eosinophils
what type of receptors recognize short bacterial peptides containing N-formylmethionyl residues? on what cells?
G protein-coupled receptors

on neutrophils, macrophages, and most other leukocytes
what receptor, expressed by phagocytes, recognizes breakdown products of C3?
type 1 complement receptor (CR1)
what is the major macrophage-activating cytokine?
interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
what cells secrete IFN-gamma?
natural killer cells reacting to microbes

antigen-activated T lymphocytes during adaptive immune responses
leukocyte activation results from signaling pathways that are triggered in leukocytes, resulting in...
increases in cytosolic calcium

activation of enzymes such as protein kinase C and phospholipase A2
what are the functional responses that are most important for destruction of microbes?
phagocytosis

intracellular killing
what is the macrophage mannose receptor?
a lectin that binds terminal mannose and fucose residues of glycoproteins and glycolipids
how do the terminal sugars of microbial cell walls differ from that of mammals?
microbes have mannose and fucose residues on glycoproteins and glycolipids

mammals have sialic acid or N-acetylgalactosamine
what are bound by macrophage scavenger receptors?
variety of microbes in addition to modified LDL particles
what is the function of macrophage integrins, other than adhesion to endothelium?
notably Mac-1 (CD11b/CD18)

binds microbes for phagocytosis
what are the major opsonins for microbes?
IgG antibodies

C3b breakdown product of complement

mannan-binding lectin
why is it a reasonable assertion to say that many of the same signals that trigger phagocytosis are many of the same that are involved in chemotaxis?
both are dependent on polymerization of actin filaments
by what types of molecules is microbial killing largely accomplished?
reactive oxygen species

reactive nitrogen species
what causes the generation of reactive oxygen species?
rapid assembly and activation of NADPH oxidase (aka phagocyte oxidase) which oxidizes NADPH and in the process, reduces oxygen to superoxide anion
what is the respiratory burst?
rapid oxidative reaction that produces superoxide anion from oxygen
where are the different components of NADPH oxidase located in resting neutrophils?
some are located in the plasma membrane and others are located in the cytoplasm

cytosolic components relocate to the phagosomal membrane in response to activating stimuli
how are the components of NADPH oxidase brought together?
activating stimuli cause the cytosolic portions of the protein to migrate to the phagosome membrane where they assemble and form the functional enzyme complex
how is superoxide mostly converted to hydrogen peroxide?
mostly by spontaneous dismutation
what is the function of myeloperoxidase?
in the presence of a halide such as chloride, converts H2O2 to hypochlorite
where is myeloperoxidase found?
azurophilic granules of neutrophils
why is it myeloperoxidase an important enzyme?
H2O2 is not able to efficiently kill microbes by itself, but hypochlorite (end product of myeloperoxidase) is a potent antimicrobial agent
what is halogenation?
halide is bound covalently to cellular constituents
what is the most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils?
H2O2-MPO-halide system

converts H2O2 and Cl to hypochlorite and water
from where is nitric oxide derived?
NO is produced from arginine by the action of nitric oxide synthats (NOS)
what are defensins?
cationic arginine-rich granule peptides that are toxic to microbes
what are cathelicidins?
antimicrobial proteins found in neutrophils and other cells
what is lysozyme?
enzyme which hydrolyzes the muramic acid-N-acetylglucosamine bond, found in the glycopeptide coat of all bacteria
what is major basic protein?
a cationic protein of eosinophils, which has limited bactericidal activity but is cytotoxic to many parasites
what are the two different methods by which macrophages can be activated?
"classically activated" - strong microbicidal activity

"alternatively activated" - involved in tissue repair and fibrosis
what cytokines cause macrophages to be "alternatively activated"?
IL-4
IL-13

(products of TH2 cells)
why are leukocytes dangerous to host as well as microbes?
once leukocytes are activated, their effector mechanisms do not distinguish between offender and host
w is frustrated phagocytosis?
when phagocytes encounter materials that cannot be easily ingested (i.e. immune complexes deposited on immovable flat surfaces) causing strong activation
what is chediak-higashi syndrome?
autosomal recessive disease characterized by defective fusion of phagosomes and lysosomes, and abnormalities in melanocytes, abnormalities in the cells of the nervous system, and abnormalities in platelets
what are the symptoms of chediak-higashi syndrome?
susceptibility to infections
albinism
nerve defects
bleeding disorders
neutropenia
what are the main leukocyte deffects in Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
neutropenia (decreased number of neutrophils)
defective degranulation
delayed microbial killing
presence of giant granules (thought to result from aberrant phagolysosome fusion)
what is neutropenia?
decreased number of neutrophils
the defect in Chediak-Higashi syndrome is in the gene that encodes...
LYST, a large cytosolic protein, thought to regulate lysosomal trafficking
from what does chronic granulomatous disease result?
inherited defects in the genes encoding components of phagocyte oxidase, which generates superoxide
what are the most common variants of chronic granulomatous disease?
x-linked defect in one of the membrane-bound components (gp91phox)

autosomal recessive defects in the genes encoding two of the cytoplasmic components (p47phox and p67phox)
what gives chronic granulomatous disease its name?
macrophage-rich chronic inflammatory reaction tries to control the infection when the initial initial neutrophil defense is inadequate

this leads to collections of activated macrophages that wall off the microbes, forming aggregates called granulomas
what two types of cells are resident in tissues and serve important functions in initiating acute inflammation?
mast cells

macrophages
what are sentinel cells?
cells resident in tissues that rapidly recognize potentially injurious stimuli and initiate host defense reaction
to what do mast cells react?
physical trauma
breakdown products of complement
microbial products
neuropeptides
what is released by mast cells?
histamine
leukotrienes
enzymes
TNF
IL-1
chemokines
why does inflammation decline?
mediators of inflammation are produced in rapid bursts, only as long as the stimulus persists, have short half-lives, and are degraded after their release
what are the four stop signals triggered by the development of inflammation?
switch in type of arachidonic acid metabolite produced

liberation of anti-inflammatory cytokines

production of anti-inflammatory lipid mediators

neural impulses (cholinergic discharge)
what arachidonic acid metabolites are proinflammatory and which are antiinflammatory?
proinflammatory - leukotrienes

antiinflammatory - lipoxins
what are the antiinflammatory cytokines?
transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)
IL-10
what are the anti-inflammatory lipid mediators?
resolvings

protectins
what is the effect of neural impulses on the acuteinflammatory response?
neural impulses = cholinergic discharge

inhibits production of TNF in macrophages
where are plasma proteins produced?
mainly in the liver

present in circulation as inactive precursors that must be activated
what are the vasoactive amines?
histamine

serotonin
how are vasoactive amines stored?
includes histamine and serotonin

stored as preformed molecules in cells, and are therefore among the first mediators to be released during inflammation
what is the richest sources of histamine?
mast cells in connective tissue adjacent to blood vessels
in what cells is histamine found?
mast cells
blood basophils
platelets
histamine is present in mast cell granules and is released in response to what?
1) physical injury (trauma/heat/cold)
2) binding of IgE antibodies to mast cells
3) fragments of complement called anaphylatoxins (C3a and C5a)
4) histamine releasing proteins derived from leukocytes
5) neuropeptides (substance P)
6) cytokines (IL-1, IL-8)
what is considered to be the principle mediator of the immediate transient phase of increased vascular permeability?
histamine
what are the effects of histamine?
vasodilation
increased vascular permeability
endothelial activation
what are the principal cell-derived mediators of inflammation?
histamine
serotonin
prostaglandins
leukotrienes
platelet activating factor
reactive oxygen species
nitric oxide
cytokines (TNF, IL-1)
chemokines
what are the principal plasma protein-derived mediators of inflammation?
complement products (C5a, C3a, C4a)

kinins

proteases activated during coagulation
what are the principal sources of histamine?
mast cells
basophils
platelets
what are the principal sources of serotonin?
platelets
what are the principal sources of prostaglandins?
mast cells
leukocytes
what are the principal sources of leukotrienes?
mast cells
leukocytes
what are the principal sources of platelet-activating factor?
leukocytes
mast cells
what are the principal sources of reactive oxygen species?
leukocytes
what are the principal sources of nitric oxide?
endothelium
macrophages
what are the principal sources of TNF and IL-1?
macrophages
endothelial cells
mast cells
what are the principal sources of chemokines?
leukocytes
activated macrophages
what are the principal sources of complement products?
plasma (produced in liver)
what are the principal sources of kinins?
plasma (produced in liver)
what are the principal sources of proteases activated during coagulation?
plasma (produced in liver)
what are the actions of histamine?
vasodilation
increased vascular permeability
endothelial activation
what are the actions of serotonin?
vasodilation
increased vascular permeability
what are the actions of prostaglandins?
vasodilation
pain
fever
what are the actions of leukotrienes?
increased vascular permeability
chemotaxis
leukocyte activation
leukocyte adhesion
what are the actions of platelet-activating factor?
vasodilation
increased vascular permeability
leukocyte adhesion
chemotaxis
degranulation
oxidative burst
what are the actions of reactive oxygen species?
killing of microbes
tissue damage
what are the actions of nitric oxide?
vascular smooth muscle relaxation
killing of microbes
what are the actions of cytokines (TNF, IL-1)?
local endothelial activation (expression of adhesion molecules)
fever/painanorexia/hypotension
decreased vascular resistance (shock)
what are the actions of chemokines?
chemotaxis
leukocyte activation
what are the actions of complement products (C5a, C3a, C4a)?
leukocyte chemotaxis and activation
vasodilation (mast cell stimulation)
what are the actions of kinins?
increased vascular permeability
smooth muscle contraction
vasodilation
pain
what are the actions of proteases activated during coagulation?
endothelial activation
leukocyte recruitment
by what receptors are the vasoactive effects of histamine mediated?
H1 receptors on microvascular endothelial cells
what is another name for serotonin?
5-hydroxytryptamine
in what cells is serotonin found?
platelets
certain neuroendocrine cells (GI tract)
when is release of serotonin from platelets stimulated?
when platelets aggregate after contact with collagen, thrombin, adenosine diphosphate, and antigen-antibody complexes
what type of fatty acid is arachidonic acid?
20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid

5,8,11,14-eicosatetraenoic acid
from what sources is arachidonic acid derived?
dietary sources
or
conversion from the essential fatty acid, linoleic acid
how is arachidonic acid usually found in the cell
esterified in membrane phospholipids (not free in the cell)
what enzyme releases arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids?
phospholipase A2
what signals activate phospholipase A2?
increase in cytoplasmic calcium and activation of various kinases
what are eicosanoids?
arachidonic acid-derived mediators
what are the two classes of enzymes that synthesize eicosanoids?
cyclooxygenases (generate prostaglandins)

lipoxygenases (leukotrienes and lipoxins)
which class of enzymes creates prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?
cyclooxygenases
which class of enzymes creates leukotrienes from arachidonic acid?
lipoxygenases
which class of enzyme creates lipoxins from arachidonic acid?
lipoxygenases
to what type of receptors do eicosanoids bind?
G protein-coupled receptor
what two enzymes produce cyclooxygenases?
COX-1 (constitutively expressed)
COX-2 (inducible)
which cyclooxygenase enzyme is constitutively expressed in tissues?
COX-1
which cyclooxygenase enzyme is inducibly expressed in tissues?
COX-2
what are the most important prostaglandins in inflammation?
PGE2
PGD2
PGF2alpha
PGI2 (prostacyclin)
TXA2
what cells contain the enzyme, thromboxane synthetase?
platelets

TxA2 is a major product of these cells
what is the inactive form of TxA2?
TxB2

since TxA2 is unstable, it is rapidly converted into TxB2
what are the effects of TxA2?
TxA2 is a potent platelet aggregating and vasoconstricting agent
what cells contain prostacyclin synthetase?
vascular endothelium

PGI2 is a major product of vascular endothelium
why does vascular endothelium produce prostacyclin, but not thromboxane?
vascular endothelium produces prostacyclin, because it expresses the enzyme, prostacyclin synthetase

it does not produce TxA2 because it does not express the enzyme, thromboxane synthetase
what is the major prostaglandin produced by platelets?
TxA2
what is the major prostaglandin produced by vascular endothelium?
PGI2 (prostacyclin)
what are the effects of prostacyclin?
vasodilation

potent inhibition of platelet aggregation

markedly potentiates the permeability-increasing and chemotactic effects of other mediators
what is the stable end product of prostacyclin?
PGF1alpha
what are the main prostaglandins produced by mast cells?
PGD2
PGE2 (more widely distributed)
what are the effects of PGD2?
vasodilates and increases permeability of post-capillary venules, thereby potentiating edema formation

chemoattractant for neutrophils
what are the effects of PGE2?
vasodilates and increases permeability of post-capillary venules, thereby potentiating edema formation

hyperalgesic - makes skin hypersensitive to painful stimuli
what are the effects of PGF2alpha?
stimulates contraction of uterine and bronchial smooth muscle and small arterioles
what is the predominant lipoxygenase enzyme in neutrophils?
5-lipoxygenase

therefore LTB4 is the major leukotriene from neutrophils
what reaction is catalyzed by 5-lipoxygenase?
arachidonic acid -> LTB4

as this is the major lipoxygenase enzyme in neutrophils, this is the major leukotriene produced by neutrophils
what are the effects of LTB4?
potent chemotactic agent for neutrophils

potent activator of neutrophils (causing aggregation and adhesion to venular endothelium, generation of ROS, and release of lysosomal enzymes)
what leukotrienes are cysteinyl-containing?
LTC4
LTD4
LTE4
what are the effects of LTC4?
intense vasoconstriction

bronchospasm

increased vascular permeability
what are the effects of LTD4?
intense vasoconstriction

bronchospasm

increased vascular permeability
what are the effects of LTE4?
intense vasoconstriction

bronchospasm

increased vascular permeability
where is the vascular leakage, caused by LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4, located?
restricted to venules
where is the vascular leakage, caused by histamine, located?
restricted to venules
which is more potent, leukotrienes or histamine?
leukotrienes are much more potent than is histamine in increasing vascular permeability and causing bronchospasm
what arachidonic acid products are inhibitors of inflammation?
lipoxins
how are lipoxins different from the other products of arachidonic acid metabolism (protaglandins and leukotrienes)?
1) lipoxins are inhibitors of inflammation, while the others are activators

2) two cell types are required for the biosynthesis of lipoxins, where only one is required for each of the others
what two cell types are necessary to generate lipoxins from arachidonic acid?
leukocytes (particularly neutrophils)

platelets
what is the process by which lipoxins are generated?
leukocytes (neutrophils) generate intermediates in lipoxin synthesis

platelets, interacting with the leukocytes convert these intermediates into lipoxins
what are the principal actions of lipoxins?
inhibit leukocyte recruitment and the cellular components of inflammation

(inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis and adhesion to endothelium)
how does aspirin inhibit cyclooxygenase enzymes?
irreversibly acetylates and inactivates them
why is COX-2 interesting as a therapeutic target?
it is induced by a variety of inflammatory stimuli

it is absent from most tissues under normal "resting" conditions
what cyclooxygenase enzyme is responsible for the production of protaglandins that are involved in both inflammation and homeostatic functions?
COX-1

expressed contitutively in most tissues

(this is not an absolute distinction; COX-2 does play a role in homeostasis)
why is fish oil good for decreasing inflammatory status?
polyunsaturated fats in fish oil are poor substrates for conversion to active metabolites by the COX or the LOX pathways, but are excellent substrates for the production of resolvins and protectins
from what is platelet-activating factor derived?
phospholipid
in what cell types is platelet-activating factor (PAF) produced?
platelets
basophils
mast cells
neutrophils
macrophages
endothelial cells
what are the effects of platelet-activating factor (PAF)?
platelet aggregation
vasoconstriction
bronchoconstriction
increased leukocyte adhesion to endothelium
chemotaxis
degranulation
oxidative burst

at extremely low concentrations:
vasodilation
increased venular permeability
(100-10,000 times more potent than histamine)
how does PAF cause increased leukocyte adhesion to endothelium?
enhances integrin-mediated leukocyte binding
what damaging responses in inflammation are caused by ROSs?
endothelial cell damage, with resultant increase in vascular permeability

injury to other cell types

inactivation of antiproteases (allowing unopposed protease activity)
how does nitric oxide elicit its effects?
paracrine hormone

induces cyclic guanosine monophosphate
what are the three different types of nitric oxide synthase?
endothelial (eNOS)
neuronal (nNOS)
inducible (iNOS)
when is eNOS expressed?
constitutively at low levels and can be rapidly activated by increase in cytoplasmic calcium
when is nNOS expressed?
constitutively at low levels and can be rapidly activated by increase in cytoplasmic calcium
how is eNOS activated?
increased cytoplasmic calcium
how is nNOS activated?
increased cytoplasmic calcium
when is iNOS expressed?
induced when macrophages and other cells are activated by cytokines (TNF, IFN-gamma) or microbial products
what are the dual inflammatory actions of nitric oxide?
relaxes vascular smooth muscle and promotes vasodilation

inhibits cellular component of inflammatory response (reduces platelet aggregation and adhesion, inhibits leukocyte recruitment, inhibits mast cell-induced inflammation)
by what cells is TNF mainly produced?
activated macrophages
by what cells is IL-1 mainly produced?
activated macrophages
what are the actions of TNF on endothelium?
induce expression of endothelial adhesion molecules

induce synthesis of chemical mediators (cytokines, chemokines, growth factors, eicosanoids, NO)

increases surface thrombogenicity of endothelium
what are the important cytokines in acute inflammation?
TNF
IL-1
IL-6
chemokines
what are the important cytokines in chronic inflammation?
IL-12
IFN-gamma
IL-17
what are the principal sources of TNF?
macrophages
mast cells
T lymphocytes
what are the principal sources of IL-1?
macrophages
endothelial cells
some epithelial cells
what are the principal sources of IL-6?
macrophages
what are the principal sources of chemokines?
macrophages
endothelial cells
T lymphocytes
mast cells
what are the principal sources of IL-12?
dendritic cells
macrophages
what are the principal sources of IFN-gamma?
T lymphocytes
NK cells
what are the principal sources of IL-17?
T lymphocytes
what are the principal actions of TNF in inflammation?
stimulates expression of endothelial adhesion molecules

stimulates secretion of other cytokines

systemic effects
what are the principal actions of IL-1 in inflammation?
stimulates expression of endothelial adhesion molecules

stimulates secretion of other cytokines

systemic effects (greater role in fever than TNF)
what are the principal actions of IL-6 in inflammation?
systemic effects (acute-phase response)
what are the principal actions of chemokines in inflammation?
recruitment of leukocytes to sites of inflammation

migration of cells to normal tissues
what are the principal actions of IL-12 in inflammation?
increased production of IFN-gamma
what are the principal actions of IFN-gamma in inflammation?
activation of macrophages

(increased ability to kill microbes and tumor cells)
what are the principal actions of IL-17 in inflammation?
recruitment of neutrophils and monocytes
what is amyloidosis?
a disease of protein deposition that is often the result of persistent inflammation
how does TNF contribute to cancer cachexia?
regulates energy balance by promoting lipid and protein mobilization and by suppressing appetite
what are alpha chemokines?
aka C-X-C chemokines

have one amino acid residues separating the first two conserved cysteine residues
on what cell type do alpha chemokines primarily work?
neutrophils
what is a typical alpha chemokine?
IL-8

secreted by macrophages and endothelial cells

activates and chemoattracts neutrophils

limited activity on monocytes and eosinophils
by what cells is IL-8 secreted?
secreted by macrophages and endothelial cells
what are the effects of IL-8?
activates and chemoattracts neutrophils

limited activity on monocytes and eosinophils
what are the most important inducers of IL-8?
IL-1
TNF
what are beta chemokines?
aka C-C chemokines

first two conserved cysteine residues adjacent

attract monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and lymphocytes, but NOT neutrophils
what types of cells do beta chemokines attract?
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocytes

NOT neutrophils
what are the C-C chemokines?
monocyte chemoattractant protein (MCP-1)

eotaxin

macrophage inflammatory protein-1alpha (MIP-1alpha)

RANTES (regulated and normal T-cell expressed and secreted)
what types of cells are recruited by eotaxin?
selectively eosinophils
what are gamma chemokines?
aka C chemokines

lack the first and third of the four conserved cysteines

relatively specific for lymphocytes
what cells are attracted by gamma chemokines?
relatively specific for lymphocytes
give an example of the gamma chemokines
lymphotactin
what are CX3C chemokines?
contain three amino acids between the two cysteines

fractalkine
what is the only known CX3C chemokine?
fractalkine
what receptors act as coreceptors for a viral envelope glycoprotein of HIV and are involved in binding and entry of the virus into cells?
CXCR-4
CCR-5
what are the two main types of granules in neutrophils?
specific granules (secondary granules)

azurophil granules (primary granules)
what is contained in specific (secondary granules) of neutrophils?
lysozyme
collagenase
gelatinase
lactoferrin
plasminogen activator
histaminase
alkaline phosphatase
what is contained in azurophil (primary granules) of neutrophils?
myeloperoxidase
lysozyme
defensins
acid hydrolases
elastase
cathepsin G
nonspecific collagenases
proteinase 3
what is the function of acid proteases?
degrade bacteria and debris within phagolysosomes, which easily reach acid pH
what is the function of neutral proteases?
degrading various extracellular components (collagen, basement membrane, fibrin, elastin, cartilage)

can cleave C3 and C5 complement proteins directly
what enxymes hold the destructive effects of lysosomal enzymes in check?
antiproteases in the serum and tissue fluids
what is the most important antiprotease?
alpha1-antitrypsin

major inhibitor of neutrophil elastase
what is the major inhibitor of neutrophil elastase?
alpha1-antitrypsin
what is the function of alpha1-antitrypsin?
inhibits neutrophil elastase

antiprotease that holds destructive effects of lysosomal enzymes in check
what is the function of alpha2-macroglobulin?
antiprotease that holds destructive effects of lysosomal enzymes in check
to what family does substance P belong?
tachykinin neuropeptides
to what family does neurokinin A belong?
tachykinin neuropeptides
where are nerve fibers containing substance P prominent?
lung
gastrointestinal tract
what are the functions of substance P?
- transmission of pain signals
- regulation of blood pressure
- stimulation of secretion by endocrine cells
- increase vascular permeability
what is the critical step in complement activation?
proteolysis of component C3
what is the most abundant complement component in circulation?
C3
what are the three pathways by which C3 can be cleaved?
classical pathway
alternative pathway
lectin pathway
what is C3 convertase?
active enzyme formed in the early steps of complement activation, which splits C3 into C3a and C3b
which fragment of C3 binds to the cell or molecule where complement is being activated?
C3b
what is C5 convertase?
enzyme formed in the late stages of complement by the binding of C3b fragments to the C3 convertase; it is responsible for cleaving C5 to C5a and C5b
what complement component binds to the late complement components?
C5

binds C6, C7, C8, and C9 culminating in the formation of the membrane attack complex
what complement component forms the pore in the membrane attack complex?
multiple C9 molecules
what are anaphylatoxins?
molecules that have effects similar to those of mast cell mediators in anaphylaxis

increase vascular permeability
cause vasodilation
to what types of cells is C5a a chemotactic agent?
neutrophils
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils
what arachidonic acid pathway is activated by C5a?
lipoxygenase pathway
what proteolytic enzymes within the inflammatory exudate can cleave C3 and C5?
plasmin

neutrophil lysosomal enzymes (neutral proteases)
by what protein is the intrinsic clotting pathway activated?
Hageman factor (factor XII)
what activates factor XII (Hageman factor)?
contact with negatively charged surfaces
what are PARs?
protease-activated receptors

bind multiple trypsin-like serine proteases in addition to thrombin, and as a result induce inflammation
what ttriggers type 1 PAR to induce inflammation?
engagement by proteases, particularly thrombin
what are the responses of cells to PAR-1 activation by thrombin?
- mobilization of P-selectin
- production of chemokines and other cytokines
- expression of endothelial adhesion molecules for leukocyte integrins
- induction of COX-2 and production of prostaglandins
- production of PAF and NO
- changes in endothelial shape
what are kinins?
vasoactive peptides derived from plasma proteins, called kininogens, by the action of specific proteases called kallikreins
what enzyme converts plasma prekallikrein into kallikrein?
active form of factor XII (XIIa)
what is the function of kallikrein?
cleave high-molecular-weight kininogen into bradykinin
what enzyme cleaves high-molecular-weight kininogen into bradykinin?
kallikrein
from what plasma protein is the active enzyme kallikrein converted?
prekallikrein
from what plasma glycopotein precursor is bradykinin derived?
high-molecular-weight kininogen
what are the effects of bradykinin when it is injected into the skin?
increased vascular permeability
contraction of smooth muscle
dilation of blood vessels
pain
why are the actions of bradykinin short-lived?
bradykinin is quickly inactivated by kininase
what enzyme quickly inactivates bradykinin?
kininase
what enzyme inactivates kinins which are not inactivated by kininase?
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
where is angiotensin-converting enzyme located?
lung
what two enzymes inactivate kinins?
kininase (quick)

angiotensin-converting enzyme (slower)
how can the initial stimulus of the coagulation system be autocatalytically amplified?
kallikrein (formed from prekallikrein by factor XIIa) is a potent activator of Hageman factor (factor XIIa)
what enzymes can cleave plasminogen?
kallikrein

plasminogen activator
from where is plasminogen activator released?
endothelium
leukocytes
what is plasminogen?
plasma protein that binds to an evolving fibrin clot to generate plasmin
what is plasmin?
a multifunctional protease that lyses fibrin clots, cleaves C3, and degrades fibrin to form fibrin split products
what are the most important mediators of increased vascular permeability in the complement, kinin, and clotting cascades?
bradykinin
C3a
C5a
what is the most important mediator of chemotaxis in the complement, kinin and clotting cascades?
C5a
what is the most important effector on endothelial cells and other cell types in the complement, kinin, and clotting cascades?
thrombin
what is the primary function of plasmin?
lyse fibrin clots
what are the ways C3a and C5a can be generated?
1) immunologic reactions, involving antibodies and complement
2) activation of the alternative and lectin complement pathways
3) plasmin, kallikrein, serine proteases
what four systems involved in the inflammatory response are initiated by activated Hageman factor?
1) kinin system (produces vasoactive kinins)
2) clotting system (induces formation of thrombin)
3) fibrinolytic system (produces plasmin and degrades fibrin)
4) complement system (opsonizes and produces anaphylatoxins)
what are the mediators for vasodilation in inflammation?
prostaglandins
nitric oxide
histamine
what are the mediators for increased vascular permeability in inflammation?
histamine and serotonin
C3a and C5a (indirectly)
bradykinin
leukotrienes C4, D4, E4
PAF
substance P
what are the mediators for chemotaxis, leukocyte recruitment and leukocyte activation in inflammation?
TNF, IL-1
chemokines
C3a, C5a
LTB4
what are the mediators for fever in inflammation?
IL-1, TNF
prostaglandins
what are the mediators for pain in inflammation?
prostaglandins
bradykinin
what are the mediators for tissue damage in inflammation?
lysosomal enzymes of leukocytes
reactive oxygen species
nitric oxide
what are the three possible outcomes for acute inflammation?
1) complete resolution
2) healing by connective tissue replacement
3) progression to chronic inflammation
what is considered complete resolution of acute inflammation?
restoration of the site of acute inflammation to normal
when might resolution occur in acute inflammation?
if the injury is limited or short-lived or when there has been little tissue damage
what is fibrosis?
healing by connective tissue replacement
when would you see fibrosis as the result of acute inflammation?
after substantial tissue destruction, when the inflammatory injury involves tissues that are incapable of regeneration, or when there is abundant fibrin exudation in tissue or serous cavities that cannot adequately be cleared
what is the process called organization in acute inflammation?
connective tissue grows into an area of damage or exudate, converting it into a mass of fibrous tissue
what are the morphologic hallmarks of acute inflammatory reactions?
- dilation of small blood vessels
- slowing of blood flow
- accumulation of leukocytes and fluid in the extravascular tissue
what is serous inflammation?
outpouring of a thin fluid that may be derived from the plasma or from the secretions of mesothelial cells lining the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities
what is an effusion?
accumulation of fluid in peritoneal, pleural, or pericardial cavities
what does the skin blister resulting from a burn or viral infection represent?
large accumulation of serous fluid, either within or immediately beneath the epidermis
when does a fibrinous exudate develop?
when vascular leaks are large or there is a local procoagulant stimulus
fibrinous exudate is characteristic of inflammation where?
the lining of body cavities

meninges
pericardium
pleura
how does fibrin appear histologically?
eosinophilic meshwork of threads or sometimes an amorphous coagulum
how can fibrinous exudates be removed?
fibrinolysis and clearing of other debris by macrophages
what is the result of conversion of fibrinous exudate to scar tissue within the pericardial sac?
leads to opaque fibrous thickening of the pericardium and epicardium in the area of exudation and, if the fibrosis is extensive, obliteration of the pericardial space
what are the four morphologic patterns of acute inflammation?
serous inflammation
fibrinous inflammation
suppurative or purulent inflammation; abscess
ulcers
what is suppurative inflammation characterized by?
production of large amounts of pus or purulent exudate consisting of neutrophils, liquefactive necrosis, and edema fluid
what are pyogenic bacteria?
pus-producing bacteria

those that produce localized suppuration (e.g. staphylococci)
what are abscesses?
localized collections of purulent inflammatory tissues caused by suppuration buried in a tissue, an organ, or a confined space
how are abscesses produced?
deep seeding of pyogenic bacteria into a tissue
describe abscesses
central region that appears as a mass of necrotic leukocytes and tissue cells

zone of preserved neutrophils around the necrotic focus

vascular dilation and parenchymal and fibroblastic proliferation occur outside the necrotic focus
what is an ulcer?
a local defect, or excavation, of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by the sloughing (shedding) of inflamed necrotic tissue
summarize the sequence of events in a typical acute inflammation scenario
injurious agent -> resident phagocytes try to eliminate agent -> phagocytes & other cells release inflammatory mediators -> mediators act on blood vessels and circulating leukocytes -> leukocytes come to location of offending agent -> leukocytes activated by injurious agent -> leukocytes try to remove offending agent by phagocytosis -> process subsideswhen agent is removed
what is chronic inflammation?
inflammation of prolonged duration (weeks or months) in which inflammation, tissue injury, and attempts at repair coexist, in varying combinations
what type of immune reaction is evoked by persistent infections by microorganisms?
delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions

sometimes takes a specific pattern called granulomatous reaction
what are the morphological features that characterize chronic inflammation?
infiltration with nononuclear cells (macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells)

tissue destruction

attempts at healing by connective tissue replacement of damaged tissue
what is the dominant cellular player in chronic inflammation?
macrophage
what is the reticuloendothelial system?
mononuclear phagocyte system

consists of closely related cells of bone marow origin, including blood monocytes and tissue macrophages
where are tissue macrophages found?
diffusely scattered in the connective tissue or located in organs such as liver (Kupffer cells), spleen and lymph nodes (sinus histiocytes), lungs (alveolar macrophages) , and central nervous system (microglia)
what is another name for liver macrophages?
Kupffer cells
what is another name for macrophages of the spleen and lymph nodes?
sinus histiocytes
what is another name for lung macrophages?
alveolar macrophages
what is another name for central nervous system macrophages?
microglia
what is the common precursor for macrophages?
blood monocytes
what is the half-life of a blood monocyte? how does that compare to the life span of a tissue macrophage?
blood monocyte - about one day

tissue macrophges - several months or years
when do monocytes constitiute the predominant cell type in inflamation?
within 48 hours
by what stimuli are macrophages activated?
microbial products
cytokines (IFN-gamma)
what is the result of activation of macrophages?
increased levels of lysosomal enzymes and reactive oxygen and nitrogn species and production of cytokines, growth factors, and other inflammatory mediators
how does macrophage population differ between short-lived and chronic inflammation?
short-lived - disappear when irritant is eliminated

chronic - macrophage accumulation persists
what causes macrophage accumulation to persist in chronic inflammation?
continuous recruitment from circulation

local proliferation at the site of inflammation
what cell types are involved in chronic inflammation?
macrophages
lymphocytes
plasma cells
eosinophils
mast cells
what cytokines promote lymphocyte recruitment?
TNF
IL-1
chemokines
in what situations are eosinophils important?
immune reactions mediated by IgE

parasitic infections
what chemokine is especially important for eosinophil recruitment?
eotaxin
what is major basic protein?
highly cationic protein that is toxic to parasites

also causes lysis of mammalian cells
what receptor is expressed on the surface of mast cells that binds the Fc portion of IgE?
FcepsilonRI
on what cells is FcepsilonRI found?
what does it bind?
mast cells

Fc portion of IgE antibody
what happens in immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
IgE antibodies bound to mast cells' FcepsilonRI receptors specifically recognize antigen, the cells degranulate and release mediators (histamine and prostaglandins)
what is seen prominently in chronic inflammatory reactions?
cellular infiltrates
growth of blood vessels
growth of lymphatic vessels
what growth factor stimulates the growth of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels in inflammation?
vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
what cells produce VEGF?
macrophages
endothelial cells
what is a granuloma?
a cellular attempt to contain an offending agent that is difficult to eradicate

focus of chronic inflammation consisting of a microscopic aggregation of macrophages that are transformed into epithelium-like cells, surrounded by a collar of mononuclear leukocytes, principally lymphocytes and occasionally plasma cells
how do granulomas appear in H&E-stained tissue sections?
epitheloid cells have a pale pink granular cytoplasm with indistinct cell boundaries, often appearing to merge into one another
what develops in older granulomas?
enclosing rim of fibroblasts and connective tissue
what are giant cells in granulomas?
large cells formed from the fusion of multiple epitheloid cells in the periphery or in the center of granulomas
what are the two types of granulomas?
foreign body granulomas

immune granulomas
what is the pathogenesis of foreign body granulomas?
relatively inert foreign bodies incite granuloma formation around them

usually large fibers or molecules that are too big to be phagocytosed by a single macrophage and don't activate any specific inflammatory/immune response
what is the pathogenesis of immune granulomas?
macrophages engulf poorly degradable protein antigens, process it, and present peptides to antigen specific T cells causing their activation, which then perpetuate the response and secrete IFN-gamma which is important in transforming the macrophage into an epitheloid cell
what is acute-phase response?
collection of systemic changes associated with acute inflammation
what are pyrogens?
substances that induce fever

act by stimulating prostaglandin synthesis in the vascular and perivascular cells of the hypothalamus
how do pyrogens effect a body temperature elevation of 1-4 degrees celcius?
stimulate prostaglandin synthesis in the vascular and perivascular cells of the hypothalamus

prostaglandins, esp. PGE2, stimulated production of NTs like cAMP which function to reset/elevate the temperature set point
what are the two types of pyrogens?
endogenous (IL-1 and TNF)

exogenous (LPS)
how do NSAIDs reduce fever?
inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
where are acute phase proteins synthesized?
liver
what are the three best-known acute-phase proteins?
C-reactive protein
fibrinogen
serum amyloid A
what chemical mediators upregulate the synthesis of acute-phase proteins by hepatocytes?
IL-6 (CRP and fibrinogen)
IL-1 (serum amyloid A/SAA)
TNF (serum amyloid A/SAA)
what is the effect of CRP and SAA on microbes?
bind to microbial cell walls and act as opsonins (fix complement)
how do acute phase proteins help clear necrotic cell nuclei?
bind chromatin, opsonizing it
why does serum amyloid A replace apolipoprotein A in HDL particles?
allows HDL particles to be targeted by macrophages, which can use them as a source of energy-producing lipids
what replaces apolipoprotein A in HDL particles during the acute-phase response?
serum amyloid A (SAA), an acute-phase protein

allows HDL particles to be targeted by macrophages, which can use them as a source of energy-producing lipids
what is the basis for measuring the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
during the acute-phase response, fibrinogen (an acute-phase protein) binds to red cells and causes them to form stacks (rouleaux) that sediment more rapidly at unit gravity than do individual red cells
what are rouleaux?
stacks of red blood cells formed by their binding to fibrinogen

causes them to sediment more rapidly than individual red cells at unit gravity
what is caused by prolonged production of acute-phase proteins?
secondary amyloidosis
what is the cause of anemia associated with chronic inflammation?
the production of the iron-regulating peptide, hepcidin, is increased during the acute-phase response

chronically elevated plasma concentrations of hepcidin reduce the availability of iron and are therefore responsible for the anemia
what is leukocytosis?
elevated number of leukocytes in the blood
how high do leukocyte counts usually climb in inflammatory reactions?
15,000-20,000 cell/uL
at what serum leukocyte levels is a person considered to have a leukemoid reaction?
40,000-100,000 cells/uL

these are similar white cell counts to those observed in leukemia
what is the initial cause of leukocytosis?
accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow postmitotic reserve pool
with what is leukocytosis associated?
rise in the number of more immature neutrophils in the blood (shift to the left)
what is the effect in the bone marrow of polonged infection?
proliferation of precursors caused by increased production of colony-stimulating factors
what is neutrophilia?
increase in the blood neutrophil count
what is lymphocytosis?
absolute increase in the number of lymphocytes
what is eosinophilia?
increase in the absolute number of eosinophils
what is leukopenia?
decreased number of circulating white cells
what are the manifestations of the acute phase response?
increased pulse
increased b.p.
decreased sweating
rigors (shivering)
chills (search for warmth)
anorexia
somnolence
malaise
why does the acute-phase response cause a decrease in sweating?
mainly because of redirection of blood flow from cutaneous to deep vascular beds to minimize heat loss through the skin
what is sepsis?
severe illness in which the bloodstream is overwhelmed by bacteria
what cytokines are produced in enormous quantities in sepsis? what stimulates this overproduction?
TNF and IL-1

LPS in the blood