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148 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are myeloid tissues?
bone marrow and cells derived from it

RBCs, PLTs, granulocytes, monocytes
what are lymphoid tissues?
thymus, LNs, spleen
which stages in hematopoesis are capable of self-renewal?
the first (stem cell) stage only
what stimulates the differentiation of hematopoetic stem cells?
stem cell factor (SCF aka cKIT ligand)
IL-6
FLT3 ligand
what stimulates the differentiation myeloid progenitor cells into CFU-GM?
GM-CSF
what stimulates the differentiation of myeloid progenitor cells to CFU-b/Mg and BFU-E?
Thrombopoietin, IL-11
what mediates the differentiation of CFU-GM?
G-CSF --> CFU-G (myeloblast --> neutrophil)

M-CSF --> CFU-M (monoblast --> monocyte)
what stimulates production of eosinophils?

from what progenitor are they derived?
IL-5

common myeloid progenitor --> CFU-eo --> eosinophiloblast
where in bone marrow are normal megakaryocytes located?
next to sinusoids, extend cytoplasmic processes that bud off into blood as plts
where in bone marrow are RBC precursors located?
surround macrophages (nurse cells) that provide iron for Hb synthesis
what generalized changes in bone marrow are seen in disease states?
Increased fat: aplastic anemia

Decreased fat: hematopoietic tumors, dzs w/ compensatory hyperplasia, and leukemias

Local marrow fibrosis: metastatic cancers and granulomatous dzs
MCC of agranulocytosis?
drug toxicity
Drugs implicated in agranulocytosis?
aminopyrine
chloramphenicol
sulfonamides
chlorpromazine
thiouracil
phenylbutazone
which drugs cause neutropenia thru a toxic effect on granulocytic precursors in marrow?
chlorpromazine and thenothiazines
what is the most common sign of agranulocytosis?
ulcerating necrotizing lesions of the gingiva and oral cavity
MCC of neutrophilic leukocytosis?
infection
which growth factor induces neutrophilia?

what are causes of its release?
G-CSF

acute bact infxn (esp pyogenic bact); sterile inflammation (eg tissue necrosis)
causes of eosinophilia?
allergy (hay fever, asthma)
skin diseases
parasitic infxns
drug rxns
some malignancies (hodgkin & non-hodgkin lymphomas)
collagen vascular dzs and vasculitides
atheroembolic dz
causes of basophilia?
(Rare) myeloproliferative dzs (eg CML)
causes of monocytosis?
chronic infxn, bact endocarditis, rickettsiosis, malaria
collagen vascular dzs (eg SLE)
inflamm bowel dzs (eg UC)
causes of lymphocytosis?
comes w/ monocytosis in chronic immunological stimulation disorders (tb, brucellosis)
viral infxns
B. pertussis infxn
difference between neutropenia from peripheral destruction and neutropenia from destruction of granulocytic precursors?
bone marrow is hypercellular

bone marrow is hypocellular
morphologic neutrophil chgs in sepsis or severe inflammatory disorders?
toxic granules (abnormally coarse, dark granules)

Dohle bodies (blue cytoplasmic patches of dilated ER)

cytoplasmic vacuoles
MCC of acute cervical lymphadenitis?
infections of teeth or tonsils
MCC of acute axillary or inguinal lymphadenitis?
infections in extremities
MCC of acute generalized lymphadenopathy?
systemic viral infxns (esp in children), bacteremia
when does scarring of LNs occur?
after suppurative rxns to pyogenic organisms
activation of humoral immune response results in what type of LN rxn?
follicular hyperplasia
activation of T cell mediated immune response results in what type of LN rxn?
Paracortical hyperplasia
How to differentiate between follicular hyperplasia and follicular lymphoma?
Hyperplasia:
-maintains LN architecture
-has marked variation in shape/size of nodules
-has frequent mitotic figures, phagocytic macrophages, and recognizable light and dark zones
MCCs of paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia?
immunologic rxns induced by drugs (esp phenytoin)

acute viral infxn (esp EBV)
LN changes seen especially in LNs draining cancers such as carcinoma of the breast?
sinus histiocytosis (aka reticular hyperplasia):
increase in # and size of cells that line lymphatic sinusoids
what are histiocytoses?
uncommon proliferative lesions of macrophages and dendritic cells, esp Langerhans cells
from what normal mechanism do most lymphoid neoplasms derive?
B cell class switching and somatic hypermutations to generate Ab diversity; most commonly translocations
t(9,22) is associated with what disease(s)?
ALL, AML, CML
what inherited genetic factors predispose to WBC neoplasias?
Bloom syndrome, Fanconi anemia, ataxia telangiectasia = Acute leukemias

+21, NF-1 = childhood leukemias
Which viruses predispose to WBC neoplasias?
HTLV-1 = adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

EBV = Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, other B cell lymphomas in setting of T-cell immunodeficiency and NK-cell lymphomas

KSHV = Kaposi sarcoma
what environmental agent is associated with gastric B-cell lymphomas?
H. pylori infection
chronic immune stimulation in what disease is associated with intestinal T-cell lymphomas?
gluten-sensitive enteropathy
term used for neoplasms with widespread BM involvement and usually peripheral blood
leukemia
term used for WBC proliferations that arise as discrete tissue masses
lymphoma
2/3 of NHLs and almost all Hodgkin's lymphomas present with what symptom?
enlarged, nontender LNs
which plasma cell neoplasm often presents as pain d/t pathologic fractures?
multiple myeloma
which WBC neoplasms cause symptoms through the secretion of circulating factors?
plasma cell tumors (secretion of antibodies or fragments)

Hodgkin lymphoma (fever d/t release of inflammatory cytokines)
most common origin of lymphoid neoplasm?
B-cell origin
MCC of cancer in children?
ALL
which subset of ALL presents as childhood leukemia?
B-ALL
which lymphoid neoplasm presents in adolescent males as thymic lymphomas (mediastinal mass)?
T-ALL
characteristic cells of this neoplasm are positive for TdT, PAS and acid phosphatase
ALL
lymphoblasts express CD19 and karyotype shows hyperdiploidy and t(12,21)?
B ALL
lymphoblasts often express CD1a and gain-of-fxn mutations in NOTCH1?
T ALL
clinical features of ALLs?
- abrupt, stormy onset
- sxs related to BMS (fatigue, fever, bleeding)
- mass effect (bone pain, organomegaly, lymphadenopathy, testicular enlargement)
- CNS (HA, vomiting, nerve palsies)
which WBC neoplasm causes compression of large vessels and airways in the mediastinum?
T-ALL
what factors are associated with poorer prognosis in ALL?
- age < 2 or > 10
- blast counts > 100,000
- t(9,22)
what factors are associated with better prognosis in ALL?
- age 2-10
- low WBC
- hyperploidy
- trisomy 4,7,10
- t(12,21)
which drug is used in t(9,22)+ ALLs and inhibits BCR-ABL kinase?
Imatinib (Gleevec)
ALL responsiveness to aggressive chemo (including CNS prophylaxis)?
CR in 90% of children, 2/3 cured
MCC of leukemia of adults in Western world?
CLL
difference between CLL and SLL?
degree of peripheral blood lymphocytosis
WBC neoplasm in which abnml cells gather in LNs in proliferation centers; PBS contains smudge cells?
CLL/SLL
Neoplastic cells are positive for CD19, CD20, CD23, and CD5;
deletions in 13q, 11q, 17p, trisomy 12q?
CLL/SLL
poor prognosis in CLL/SLL is associated with what progression of disease?
prolymphocytic transformation (worsening cytopenias, inc splenomegaly, inc # prolymphocytes)

Richter syndrome - transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (rapidly enlarging mass in LN or spleen)
tumor that arises from germinal center B cells and is strongly assoc'd w/ translocations involving BCL2 [t(14,18)]?
Follicular lymphoma
LN findings in follicular lymphoma?
centrocytes - small, cleaved cells
centroblasts - larger cells w/ open chromatin, several nucleoli, modest amts of cytoplasm
what are the results of t(14,18) mutation?
BCL2 and Ig heavy chain loci switch, BCL2 is overexpressed, promotes survival of follicular lymphoma cells by blocking bax channel
MCC of NHL in United States?
follicular lymphoma
response of follicular lymphomas to chemo/rad?
survival is not improved by aggressive therapy
mature B-cell tumors that express CD19, CD20 and sometimes translocation of BCL6; typically present at extranodal sites (GI, skin, bone, brain); aggressive, rapidly proliferating; may respond to therapy?
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
what are special subsets of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma?
- may occur in setting of severe T-cell immunodeficiency; cells are usually infected with EBV

- may present as malignant pleural or ascitic effusion; mostly in advanced HIV or elderly; always infected with KSHV/HHV-8
neoplasm with medium sized lymphocytes, "starry-sky" appearance, c-MYC t(8,14)?
Burkitt lymphoma
B-cell neoplasm assoc'd with EBV, presents in maxilla or mandible, involves kidneys, ovaries, adrenal glands?
African (endemic) Burkitt lymphoma
B-cell neoplasm with high incidence in AIDS, presents as mass involving ileocecum or peritoneum?
American (sporadic) Burkitt lymphoma
neoplasm of older adults presenting with hypercalcemia, bone pain, pathologic fxrs; inc gamma proteins, Bence-Jones proteins, and "punched-out" lesions of skull?
Multiple myeloma (plasma cell myeloma)
what causes lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma?
inc osteoclast activating factor (OAF, IL-6)
MIP1a induces expression of RANKL which activates osteoclasts
Modulators of Wnt pathway inhibit osteoblasts
Disorder in which protein casts in DCT and collecting ducts are surrounded by multinucleated giant cells?
myeloma kidney
MCC of death in multiple myeloma?
infection (inc susceptibility d/t dec production of serum Ig's)
most common plasma cell dyscrasia?
monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS)
MCC of elevated serum M protein level (< 3gm/dL) in asymptomatic older patient?
MGUS
B-cell neoplasm that infiltrates many organs, has M spike (IgM), but no hypercalcemia, and no lytic bone lesions present?
Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
what are Russell bodies and Dutcher bodies?
Russell bodies - cytoplasmic immunoglobulin
Dutcher bodies - intranuclear immunoglobulin

characteristic of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
hyperviscosity syndrome, associated with lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma, causes what complications?
vascular dilations and retinal hemorrhages --> visual problems
neuro sxs (HA, confusion)
abnml globulins cause bleeding and cryoglobulinemia (precipitate at low temp and cause Raynaud phenomenon)
lymphoid neoplasm of older males consisting of small, cleaved lymphocytes, but no proliferation centers, no large centroblasts; t(11,14), high levels of cyclin D, CD5+, CD23-?
Mantle cell lymphoma
B-cell tumor that commonly occurs at sites of chronic immune or inflammatory reactions?
marginal zone lymphomas (MALTomas)
Disease of middle-aged white males, may cause "dry tap" BM aspirate, presents with red beefy splenomegaly d/t infiltration of red pulp; stains positive for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
Hairy cell leukemia
neoplasm of CD4+ T-cells in adults infected with HTLV-1, esp. in Japan, W Africa, Caribbean; presents w/ skin lesions, hypercalcemia, enlarged LN, liver, and spleen; cloverleaf nuclei?
Adult T-cell Leukemia/Lymphoma (ATLL)
tumor of CD4+ T-cells that causes generalized pruritic erythematous rash (w/o hypercalcemia); abnml cells have cerebriform nuclei?
Mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome
difference btwn MF and Sezary syndrome?
skin lesions of sezary syndrome rarely become tumors

sezary cells (cerebriform nuclei) are found in peripheral blood in sezary syndrome, only found in epidermis/dermis in MF
rare neoplasm of CD8 T-cells, lymphocytes have abundant cytoplasm with coarse azurophilic granules?
Large granular lymphocytic leukemia
neoplasm presenting as descructive midline mass involving nasopharynx, skin, or testes; highly associated with EBV?
extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma
how is HD different from NHL?
- presents with fever
- spread is to contiguous (adjacent) nodal groups
- characterization based on inflammatory response instead of malignant cell
- no leukemic state
- extranodal spread uncommon
neoplastic cell of this disease has "owl eye" bilobed nucleus w/ central nucleoli surrounded by clear space
Hodgkin lymphoma
(Reed-Sternberg cells)
HL variant that has L&H "popcorn" cells and are negative for CD15 and CD30, but positive for B-cell markers CD20 and BCL6?
lymphocyte predominance type
most common type of HL; has lacunar variant Reed-Sternberg cells that are positive for PAX5, CD15 and CD30; nuclear deposition of collagen in bands?
Nodular sclerosis type
type of HL with infiltrate of T-cells, eosinophils, plasma cells, benign macrophages with Reed-Sternberg cells; RS cells often infected with EBV?
Mixed-cellularity type
type of HL with few lymphocytes, many RS cells?
lymphocyte depleted type
stereotyped progression of spread of HL?
nodal dz --> splenic dz --> hepatic dz --> marrow and other tissues
clinical presentations of HL?
usually painless lymphadenopathy

disseminated dz, mixed-cellularity or LD types may have B-cell symptoms: waxing/waning fever, wt loss, night sweats
population at risk for AML?
adults
dx of AML is based on what?
>= 20% myeloid blasts in bone marrow
many myeloblasts on PBS, auer rods, peroxidase+ azurophilic cytoplasmic granules - Dx?
AML
auer rods are especially pronounced in what neoplasia (specific translocation)?
t(15,17) - acute promyelocytic leukemia
treatment of M3 subtype AML?
all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) - induces differentiation of myeloblasts
difference between acute leukemias and chronic leukemias?
mostly blasts (acute), more mature cells (chronic)

children or elderly (acute), midlife (chronic)

short and drastic (acute), longer, less devastating (chronic)
karyotypic abnormalities associated with AML?
de novo: t(8;21), inv(16), t(15;17)

following MDS or exposure to DNA-damaging agents: del or monosomies of 5 & 7

after tx w/ topoisomerase II inhibitors: MLL chromosome (11q23)
disorder associated with t(8;14)?
burkitt lymphoma (c-myc activation)
disorder associated with t(14;18)?
follicular lymphomas (bcl-2 activation)
disorder associated with t(15;17)?
M3 type AML
disorder associated with t(11;22)?
Ewing's sarcoma
disorder associated with t(11;14)?
Mantle cell lymphoma
most common presentation of AML?
sxs related to anemia, neutropenia, TCpenia (fatigue, fever, spontaneous mucosal and cutaneous bleeding)
what factors contribute to bleeding diathesis in AML?
thrombocytopenia

procoagulants and fibrinolytic factors released by leukemic cells (esp in t[15;17])
which types of AML are high-risk?
those that follow MDS or genotoxic therapy or that occur in elderly
primary and t-MDS are associated with what karyotypic abnormalities?
monosomy 5 and 7
del 5q, 7q, 20q
trisomy 8
most common finding in MDS?
dysplastic differentiation affecting all three myeloid lineages (erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic)
morphological changes seen in MDS?
erythroid: ringed sideroblasts, megaloblastoid maturation, nuclear budding abnormalities

granulocytic; neutrophils with dec or abnml/toxic granules, pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells

Megakaryocytic: pawn ball meg.cytes
what are pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells?
neutrophils with only two lobes (seen in MDS)
primary MDS affects what age group?
> 60 y
what are the chronic myeloproliferative disorders?
- CML
- polycythemia vera
- essential thrombocytosis
- myelofibrosis w/ myleoid metaplasia
what features are common to all MPDs?
- neoplastic stem cells home in to secondary hematopoietic organs, esp spleen, leading to splenomegaly

- terminal spent phase: marrow fibrosis and peripheral cytopenias

- progression to acute leukemia
what is the biomechanical change that occurs in CML?
BCR gene (22) fuses with ABL gene (9) and synthesizes a constitutively active tyr-kinase, stimulating proliferation and survival of marrow progenitors

does not interfere with differentiation --> increase in mature cells in blood, esp granulocytes and plts
what lab finding helps differentiate between CML and other leukemoid reactions?
absence of leukocyte alk phos in CML
cell counts in CML - RBCs, WBCs, Plts?
dec RBCs
inc WBCs
inc Plts
pharm tx of CML?
Imatinib (anti-bcr-abl antibody)
disease characterized by increased marrow production of RBCs, granulocytes, and plts?
polycythemia vera
mutation implicated in polycythemia vera?
activating point mutations in tyr-kinase JAK2
difference between polycythemia vera and secondary absoulte polycythemia?
PCV = low EPO

secondary polycythemias = high EPO
symptoms of PCV?
plethora and cyanosis (d/t stagnation and deox of blood in peripheral vessels),

HA, dizziness, HTN, GI sxs,

DVT, MI, stroke
why do some pts w/ PCV have HCT within normal range?
chronic bleeding leads to iron deficiency which suppresses erythropoiesis
extended survival with PCV leads to what?
"spent phase" clinically resembling myelofibrosis
pathogenesis of essential thrombocytosis?
same JAK2 point mutation as in PCV - receptor tyr-kinase activation makes progenitors thrombopoeitin-independent
major manifestations of ET?
thrombosis and hemorrhage

DVT, portal and hepatic vein thrombosis, MI, erythromelalgia
what is erythromelalgia?
throbbing and burning of hands and feet caused by occlusion of small arterioles by plt aggregates

seen in ET and PCV
pathogenesis of primary myelofibrosis?
inappropriate release of PDGF and TGF-beta from neoplastic megakaryocytes (fibrogenic factors)
in what disease are large platelets and dacryocytes found?
myelofibrosis

(dacryocytes = teardrop shaped RBCs damaged during birthing process in fibrotic marrow)
cause of splenomegaly in primary myelofibrosis?
circulating hematopoeitic stem cells home to secondary hematopoietic organs esp spleen, liver, LNs
secondary disorder that can complicate the picture of MPDs?
hyperuricemia and gout (from high cell turnover rate)
infant develops cutaneous seborrheic-like eruption on chest, back, and scalp; also has hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, pulmonary lesions. Dx?
Letterer-Siwe disease
(Multifocal multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis)
pathogenesis of primary myelofibrosis?
inappropriate release of PDGF and TGF-beta from neoplastic megakaryocytes (fibrogenic factors)
in what disease are large platelets and dacryocytes found?
myelofibrosis

(dacryocytes = teardrop shaped RBCs damaged during birthing process in fibrotic marrow)
cause of splenomegaly in primary myelofibrosis?
circulating hematopoeitic stem cells home to secondary hematopoietic organs esp spleen, liver, LNs
secondary disorder that can complicate the picture of MPDs?
hyperuricemia and gout (from high cell turnover rate)
infant develops cutaneous seborrheic-like eruption on chest, back, and scalp; also has hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, pulmonary lesions. Dx?
Letterer-Siwe disease
(Multifocal multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis)
What is the Hand-Schuller-Christian triad?
calvarial bone defects, diabetes insipidus, and exophthalmos

(multifocal unisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis that involves the posterior pituitary stalk)
causes of congestive splenomegaly?
venous obstruction d/t intrahepatic disorders (esp. cirrhosis) that slow portal venous drainage or extrahepatic disorders that impinge upon portal or plenic veins (pylephlebitis, portal vein thrombosis)
MCC of splenic infarctions?
emboli arising from the heart
MCC of thymic hypoplasia?
DiGeorge syndrome
MCC of thymic hyperplasia?
myasthenia gravis

(also seen in other AI dz: Graves, SLE, scleroderma, RA)
difference between invasive thymoma and thymic carcinoma?
invasive thymoma is cytologically benign but locally invasive

thymic carcinoma is invasive, somtimes accompanied by metastases, usually squamous cell carcinoma