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250 Cards in this Set
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What are the 5 bacteria causing Heart Block? |
Lyme Disease
Salmonella typhii (typhoid) Chagas Disease (Whipple’s) Legionella Diptheria Lets Stop Doing Long Contractions |
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What bacteria cause Reiter’s Syndrome?
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Shigella
IBD Crohn’s Chlamydia Yersina Reiter & Crohn Saw Yersina and got Chlamyia |
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What are the Low Complement bugs causing Cryoglobuniemia?
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Influenzae
Adenovirus Mycoplasma Hepatitis C EBV I AM HE |
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What are the drugs induced SLE?
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Hydralazine
INH Phenytoin Procainamide Penicillamine Ethosuximide H I PPPE |
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What are the drugs that Blast the BM?
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AZT
Benzene Chloramphenicol Vinblastine Vinblastine Anilate Bone Cells |
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What are the Comma Shaped bugs?
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Vibrio
Campylobacter Listeria H. pylori Campylobacter Has Very Long Comma Genes |
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What is the cresent shaped protozoa?
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Giardia lamblia
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What bacteria looks like Chinese letters?
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Corynebacter
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What are the TB Rx?
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Rifampin
Pyrazinamide INH Ethambutanol Streptomycin R E S P I |
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What are the 6 Low Complement assocs. with Nephrotic Syndrome?
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Serum Sickness
PSGN SLE SBE Cryoglobinemia MPGN II |
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What drugs Induce p450?
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Barbiturates
Alcohol Griseofulvin Carbamazapine Rifampin Quinidine Tetracycline Sulfa drugs BAG 4 CPR QTS Car Grabs Queens Tets to Rev Up Alcoholic doing drugs and stinking up car |
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What drugs Inhibit p450?
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INH
Dapsone Spirolactones Macrolides Amiodarone Cimetidine Ketoconazole Quinilones I Do SMACK Quinolones |
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What drugs are P450 Dependent?
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Warfarin
Estrogen Phenytoin Theophylline Digoxin Theo came from war & dig inside WDEPT taking Estrogen & now is Phenytoin |
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What disease is a Neutophil Deficiency?
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CGD
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What is another name for CGD?
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Chronic Granulomatous disease
NADPH Oxidase deficiency |
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What are the Side effects of Statins?
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Myositis
Hepatitis Increased liver enzymes |
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What are the painful genital Lesions?
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Chancroid
Herpes Lymphogranuloma inguinale |
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What is the painful chancroid lesion due to?
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Hemophilus ducreyi
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What are the 4 hormones with disulfide bonds?
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Prolactin
Insulin Inhibin GH I PIG on BONDS |
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What are the Hookworms?
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Necatur americanis
Enterobius vermicularis Ankylostoma duodenale Trichuris trichurium Ascaris lumbercoides Strongyloides Hooks AS NEAT |
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What are the X-Linked enzyme Deficiencies?
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Fabry's Tale: Duke the Muscular Hunter Brutally Lysed the Albino Gopher without aWAre it was a Fragile Hemophiliac
Fabry's Duchenne MD Hunter’s Bruton's agammaglobinemia Lesch-nyhan Ocular albinism G6DP Wiskott Alridge syndrome Fragile X Hemophilia A & B |
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What diseases do we screen for at birth?
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PKU
CAH(Congential Adrenal Hyperplasia) Biotinidase Galactosemia Hypothyroidism Please Check Before Going Home |
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HLA-Antigens
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HLA-DR2= Narcolepsy, Allergy, Goodpasture’s, MS
HLA-DR3= DM, Chronic Active Hepatitis, Sjogren’s, SLE, Celiac Sprue HLA-DR3 & 4= IDDM(Type I) HLA-DR4= Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pemphigus Vulgaris HLA-DR5= JRA, Pernicious Anemia HLA-DR7= Nephrotic Syndrome(Steroid induced) |
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HLA-Antigens
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HLA-DR 3 & B8=Celiac Disease
HLA-A3= Hemochromatosis(chromo. 6, point mut.-cysteine>tyrosine) HLA-B8=MG HLA-B13= Psoriasis HLA-B27= Psoriais(only if w/arthritis) Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD, Reiter’s, Postgonococcal Arthritis HLA-BW 47= 21 alpha Hydroxylas def.(Vit.D) |
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What are the actions of Steroids?
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Kills helper T-cells & eosinophils
Inhibits Macrophage migration Inhibits Mast cell degranulation Inhibits Phospholipase A Stimulates protein synthesis Stablizes endothelium |
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What are the causes of Monocytosis?
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Salmonella (typhoid)
TB EBV Listeria Syphillis |
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E. Coli is the most common cause of what?
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UTI
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis Abdominal abscess Cholecystitis Ascending cholangitis Appendicitis |
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What are the one dose treatments for Gonorrhea?
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Ceftriaxone
Cefixime Cefoxine Ciprofloxin Oflaxacin Gatifolxacin |
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What is the one dose treatment for Chlamydia?
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Azithromycin
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What are the “Big Mama” anaerobes?
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Strep bovis
Clostridium melanogosepticus Bacteriodes fragilis |
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What are the “Big Mama” Rx?
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Clindamycin
Metranidazole Cefoxitin |
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What “big mama” bugs are associated with colon cancer?
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Strep. Bovis
Clostridium melanogosepticus |
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What do you see in the serum with low volume state?
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K+?
Decreases Na+? Decreases Cl-? Decreases pH? Increases BP? Increases |
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What are psammoma bodies?
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Calcified CA’s
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In what diseases are Psammoa Bodies present?
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Papillary carcinoma of the Thyroid
Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary Meningioma Mesothelioma |
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What are the Urease (+) organism?
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UREASE PUNCH
Proteus Ureaplasma urealyticum Nocardia species Cryptococcus neoformans H. pylori the first two: PU makes struvite stones |
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What types of stones are formed from Proteus?
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Struvite (90%)
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What type of motility do Proteus have?
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swarming
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What are 5 indications of Surgery?
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Intractable pain
Hemorrhage (massive) Obstruction (from scarring) Perforation |
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What drugs cause Cardiac Fibrosis?
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Adriamycin (Doxyrubicin)
Phen-fen |
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What drug is used to tx cardiac fibrosis?
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Dozaroxsin
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What is the MCC of any ….penia?
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#1 = Virus
#2 = Drugs |
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What is seen in the Salmonella Triad?
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High Fever
Rose spots (rash) Intestinal fire |
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What drugs cause Myositis?
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Rifampin
INH Predinsone Statins |
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What are the 7 Gram -encapsulated bacteria?
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Salmonella
Strep. Pneumo (gr+) Klebsiella H. influenza Pseudomonas Neisseria Cryptococcus Some Strange Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules |
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What is the Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Fever?
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JHONES
Joints Heart: pancarditis Nodules (subq) Erythema marginatum St. Vitus's horea |
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What are the causes of Eosinophilla?
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Neoplasms
Allergies/Asthma Addison’s Dz Collagen Vascular Dz Parasites |
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What are the Risk Factors for Liver CA?
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Hep B,C,D
Aflatoxin Vinyl chloride Ethanol Carbon Tetrachloride Anyline Dyes Smoking Hemochromatosis Benzene Schistomiasis |
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What are the live attenuated vaccines?
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live! one night only! Flu here and see SMALL YELLOW CHICKENs get vaccinated with Sabin and MMR! Their eggs are flu yellow (intranasal flu and yellow fever vaccine are egg-based)
intranasal influenza smallpox chickenpox (VZV) polio (sabin) MMR |
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What are the Killed Vaccines?
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Salk (polio)
Influenza Rubella Hepatitis A SIR Hep A |
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What are the IgA Nephropathies?
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Henoch-Schoenlein P. (HSP)
Alport’s Berger’s |
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What are the Drugs that cause Autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
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PCN
α-methyldopa Cephalosporins Sulfa PTU Anti-malarials Dapsone |
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What are the drugs that cause Autoimmune thrombocytopenia?
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ASA
Heparin Quinidine |
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What are the enzymes that show after an MI?
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Troponin I
CKMB LDH |
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What is the first MI enzyme to appear?
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Troponin I
Appears Peaks Gone 2 hrs 2 days 7 days |
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What is the 2nd MI enzyme to appear?
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CK-MB
Appears Peaks Gone 6 hrs 12 hrs 24 hrs |
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What is the 3rd MI enzyme to appear?
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LDH
Appears Peaks Gone 1 day 2 days 3 days |
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What bacteria have Silver Stains?
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Legionella
Pneumocysitis carinii H. pylori Bartonella henseslae (lymph node) Candida (yeast) |
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What are the sulfa containing drugs?
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Sulfonamides
Sulfonylurea Celebrex |
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What is another name for celebrex?
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Celecoxib
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What type of inhibitor is Celebrex?
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COX 2 specific
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What COX-2 specific drug can you give to a pt with sulfa allergy?
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Vioxx (Rofecoxib)
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What drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase?
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Pyremethamin/Sulfadiazine
Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole |
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What drugs cause Pulmonary Fibrosis?
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Bleomycin
Bulsufan Amiodarone Tocainide |
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What are the macrophage deficiency diseases?
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Chediak-Higashi
NADPH-oxidase deficiency |
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What are the SE of Loops and Thiazides?
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Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia Hypovolemia Hypokalemia |
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What are the SE of Loop diuretics?
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Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia Dehydration Allergy Nephritis (interstitial) Gout OH DANG |
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What are the only 3 Pansystolic Murmurs and when are they heard?
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MR: Decrease on inspiration (^exp)
TR: Increase on inspiration VSD: Decrease on inspiration (^exp) |
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Macrophages in various organs
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Brain: microglia
Lung: Type I pneumocyte Liver: Kupffer cell Spleen: RES Kidney: Mesangial Lymph nodes: Dendritic Skin: Langerhans Bone: Osteoclasts CT: Histiocytes/Giant Cells/Epithelioid cells |
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What are the 7 Rashes of the Palms & Soles?
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TSS
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Coxsackie A (Hand/Foot & mouth dz) Kawasaki Syphillis Scarlet Fever Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome |
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What is seen in every restrictive lung dz and low volume state?
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Tachypnea
Decrease pCO2 Decrease pO2 Increase pH |
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What are the different 2nd messenger systems?
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cAMP
cGMP IP3/DAG Ca:Calmodulin Ca+ Tyrosine kinase NO |
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What is the clue for cAMP?
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It is the 90%
Sympathetic CRH (cortisol) Catabolic |
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What is the clue for cGMP?
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Parasympathetic
Anabolic |
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What are the clues for IP3/DAG?
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Neurotransmitter
GHRH All hypothalamic hormones xc cortisol Used by what and for what? Smooth muscle for contraction |
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What is the clue for Ca:Calmodulin?
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Used by smooth muscle for contraction by distention
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What is the clue for Ca+?
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Used by Gastrin only
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What is the clue for Tyrosine Kinase?
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Used by Insulins
Used by ALL growth factors |
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What is the clue for NO?
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Nitrates
Viagra ANP LPS |
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What are the T & B cell deficiencies?
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WAS
SCID CVID HIV HTLV-1 |
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What are the CLUES for WAS?
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Thrombocytopenia
IL-4 Infection Eczema Decrease IgM IgE??? |
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What are the CLUES for SCID?
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Framshift/Nonsense mutation
Adenosine deaminase deficiency T-cell>B-cell Bacterial infections Fungal infections |
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What are the CLUES for CVID?
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Late onset
Frameshift/Missense mutation Tyrosine Kinase deficiency |
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What are the CLUES for HIV & HTLV-1?
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T-cell>B-cell
CD4 rich Brain Testicles Cervix Blood vessels |
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What are the inhibitors of Complex 1 of the ETC?
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Amytal
Rotenone |
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What are the inhibitors of Complex 2 of the ETC?
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Malonate
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What are the inhibitors of Complex 3 of the ETC?
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Antimycin D
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What are the inhibitors of Complex 4 of the ETC?
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CN-
CO Chloramphenicol |
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What are the inhibitors of Complex 5 of the ETC?
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Oligomycin
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What are the ETC chemical uncouplers?
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DNP
Free Fatty acids Aspirin |
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What type of uncoupler is Aspirin?
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Physical uncoupler
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What are the 4 sources of Renal Acid?
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Plasma
Urea cycle Collecting ducts Glutaminase |
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What is the one dose tx for Hemophilus ducreyi?
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Azithromycin
1 gram po Ceftriazone 250 mg im |
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What is the one dose tx for Chlaymdia?
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Azithromycin
1 gram po |
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What is the one dose tx for Candidiasis?
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Ketoconazole
150mg |
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What is the one dose tx for Vaginal Candidiasis?
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Difluccan
1 pill |
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What is the one dose tx for Trichomonas?
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Metronidazole
2 grams |
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What is the one dose tx for Gardnerella?
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Metronidazole
2 grams |
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What are the 3 cephalosporins & doses used as one dose treatments for Gonorrhea?
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Ceftriaxone
250 mg im Cefixime 400 mg po Cefoxitin 400 mg po |
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What are the 3 Quinolones & doses used as one dose treatments for Gonorrhea?
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Ciprofloxacin
500 mg po Ofloxacin 400 mg po Gatifloxacin 400 mg im |
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What are the 4 enzymes needed to break down glycogen?
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Phosphorylase (Pi)
Debranching enzyme Alpha-1,6 –Glucosidase Phosphatase |
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What are the 2 enzymes needed to make glycogen?
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Glycogen synthase
Branching enzyme |
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What are the branching enzymes?
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Glycogen alpha-1,4 glycosyl transferase
Glycogen alpha-1,6 glycosyl transferase |
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in the break down of glycogen?
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Phosphorylase (Pi)
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What values do you see in obstructive pulmonary dz?
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pO2?
Normal pCO2? Normal or increased pH? Decreased |
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What values do you see in restrictive pulmonary dz?
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pO2?
Decreased pCO2? Decreased pH? Increased |
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What type of acidosis do you see with obstructive pulmonary dz?
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Respiratory acidosis
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What are the Lysosomal Storage Disease & what is the deficiency?
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Fabry’s: α–galactosidase
Krabbe’s : Galactosylceramide Gaucher’s: β-glucocerebrosidase Niemann – Pick: Sphingomyelinase Tay-Sachs: Hexosaminidase Metachromatic leukodystrophy: Arylsulfatase Hurler’s: α – L – iduronidase Hunter’s: Iduronidase sulfatase |
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What dz’s are associated with HLA B27?
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Psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis IBD (Ulcerative colitis) Reiter’s Syndrome |
PAIR
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What HLA is Psorisis w/RA associated with?
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HLA-13
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What are the Glycogen Storage Diseases & the deficiency?
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Von Gierke’s: Glucose – 6 – phosphate
Pompe’s: α – 1 – 4 glucosidase Cori’s: Debranching enzyme McArdle’s: Glycogen phosphorylase |
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What are 6 places of the TCA cycle where amino acids feed in/out?
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Pyruvate?
Glycine Alanine Serine Acetyl CoA ? Phenylalanine Isoleucine Threonine Tryptophan Lysine Leucine |
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What are 6 places of the TCA cycle where amino acids feed in/out?
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Alpha-KG ?
Glutamate Glutamine Succinyl CoA? Phenylalanine Tryptophan Tyrosine |
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What are 6 places of the TCA cycle where amino acids feed in/out?
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Fumerate ?
Proline Oxaloacetate? Aspartate Asparigine |
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What are the 4 steps of B-oxidation?
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Oxidation – 7 NADH – 21 ATP
Hydration Oxidation - 7FADH – 14 ATP Thiolysis – 8 AcCoA – 96ATP 131 ATP – 2 (to bring it in) |
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What are the blood gases in neuromuscular disease (= restrictive blood gases)?
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pO2?
Decreased pCO2? Decreased PCWP? Decreased (b/c it’s a pressure problem) Respiratory Rate? Increased pH? Increased SZ? Increased |
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What are 5 Hormones produced by small cell (oat cell) lung CA?
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ACTH
ADH PTH TSH ANP |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies?
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Anti-smith
Anti cardiolipin Anti-ds DNA SLE |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies?
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Anti – histone?
Drug induced SLE |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies?
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Anti-topoisomerase?
PSS (Progressive Systemic Sclerosis) |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti TSH receptors?
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Anti TSH receptors: Graves
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-centromere?
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Anti-centromere: CREST
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-GBM?
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Anti-GBM: Goodpasture’s
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What does Goodpastures have antibody to?
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Type IV collagen
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-mitochondria?
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Anti-mitochondria?
Primary biliary cirrhosis |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-hair follicle?
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Anti-hair follicle?
Alopecia areata |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-IgG?
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Anti-IgG?
Rheumatoid arthritis |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-myelin receptors?
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Anti-myelin receptors?
MS |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-gliaden?
Anti-gluten? |
Anti-gliaden?
Anti-gluten? Celiac sprue |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-islet cell receptor?
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Anti-islet cell receptor?
DM Type I |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-melanocyte?
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Anti-melanocyte?
Viteligo |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-ACh receptor?
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Anti-ACh receptor?
MG |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-ribonuclear protein?
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Anti-ribonuclear protein?
Mixed Connective Tissue dz (MCTD) |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-parietal cell receptor?
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Anti-parietal cell receptor?
Pernicious anemia |
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What does Pernicious Anemia have antibody to?
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Intrinsic factor
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-epidermal anchoring protein receptors?
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Anti-epidermal anchoring protein receptors?
Pemphigus vulgaris |
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What does Pemphigus vulgaris have antibody to?
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Intercelluar junctions of epidermal cells
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-epidermal basement membrane protein?
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Anti-epidermal basement membrane protein?
Bullous pemphigoid |
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What do you see with bullous pemphigoid?
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IgG sub-epidermal blisters
Oral blisters |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-platelet?
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Anti-platelet?
ITP |
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What does ITP have antibody to?
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Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-thyroglobulin?
Anti-microsomal? |
Anti-thyroglobulin?
Anti-microsomal? Hashimoto’s |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-smooth muscle?
Anti-scl-70? |
Anti-smooth muscle?
Anti-scl-70? Scleroderma |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-rho (SS-A)?
Anti-la? |
Anti-rho (SS-A)?
Anti-la? Sjogren’s |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-proteinase?
C-ANCA? |
Anti-proteinase?
C-ANCA? Wegener’s |
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What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? P-ANCA?
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P-ANCA?
Polyarteritis nodosa |
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What antigen & immunoglobulin is Polyarteritis nodosa associated with?
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Hepatitis B antigen
IgM |
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What are the viruses that directly cause CA and which CA do they cause?
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Papilloma virus?
Cervical CA EBV? Burkitts Nasopharyngeal CA HepB & C? Liver CA HIV? Kaposi’s Sarcoma |
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What are the 7 Nephrotic Patterns seen with every Vasculitis?
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Clot in front of renal artery?
Renal artery stenosis Clot off whole renal artery? Renal failure Inflamed glomeruli? Glumerulo nephritis Clot in papilla? Papillary necrosis Clot off medulla? Interstitial nephritis Clot off pieces of nephron? Focal segmental GN (HIV, drug use association) Clot off lots of nephrons? Rapidly Progressive GN |
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What is the most common nephrotic disease seen in kids and when does it occur?
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Min. change disease
2 wks post URI |
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What is the most common vasculitity leading to rapidly progressive glomerulonephrosis?
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Goodpasture’s
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What is the most common malignant renal tumor in children?
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Wilm’s tumor
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What is the most common malignant renal tumor in adults?
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Adenocarcinoma
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What is the most common renal mass?
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Cyst
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What is the most common renal disease in Blacks/Hispanics?
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What is the most common renal disease in Blacks/Hispanics?
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What is the most common nephrotic disease in adults?
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Membranous GN
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Thrombolytics & Inhibitors
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What does tPA, Streptokinase, Urokinase inhibit?
Aminocaproic acid What doe Warfarin inhibit? Vitamin K What does Heparin inhibit? Protamine Sulfate |
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What is the dosage of tPA?
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IV push?
20mg Drip? 40mg |
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What is the dosage for Streptokinase?
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IV push?
750K Drip? 750K |
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What is Urokinase used for?
|
Used ONLY for such things as:
Feeding tubes Central lines Fistulas |
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What is Alopecia Areata?
|
Loss of a patch of hair
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What is Alopecia Totalis?
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Loss of ALL hair on head “bald”
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What is Alopecia Universalis?
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Loss of hair on entire body “hairless”
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What is Loffler syndrome?
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Pneumonitis with endocarditis = pulmonary infiltrate with severe eosinophilia
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What is Loffler syndrome also known as?
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PIE syndrome
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What are the 5 Parasites associated with Loffler Syndrome?
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Necator americanus
Ankylostoma duodenale Shistosomiasis Strongyloides Ascaris lumbricoides |
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What happens when a patient is on prednisone for > 7 days?
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Immunocompromised
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What are 2 enzymes used by B12?
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Homocystine methyl transferase
Methyl malonyl-coA mutase |
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What does Mitochondrial inheritance mean?
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No male transmission
All females pass it on |
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Who are 4 pt’s who would be susceptable to pseudomonas and staph infxns?
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Burn patients
Cystic fibrosis DM Neutropenic patients |
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In a neutropenic patient, what do you cover for?
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cover 1x for Staph aureus during 1st week
cover 2x for Pseudo after 2nd week |
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What are the 3 main concepts causing a widened S2 splitting?
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Increased pO2
Delayed opening/closing of the pulmonary value Increased volume in the right ventricle |
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What are causes for a widened S2 splitting?
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Blood transfusion
Increased Tidal Volume Giving O2 Right sided heart failure Pregnancy due to increase volume IV fluids ASD/VSD Deep breathing Hypernateremia SIADH Pulmonary regurge Pulmonary stenosis Right bundle branch block |
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What are the 8 common cavities of blood loss?
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Pericardium
Intracranial Mediastinum Pleural cavity Thighs Retroperitoneum Abdominal cavity Pelvis PIMP TRAP |
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What is the special list for Penicillin?
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Gram +
Basement membrane suppressor Works on simple anaerobes The #1 cause of anaphylaxis Causes interstial nepritits Causes nonspecific rashes Acts as a hapten causing hemolytic anemia |
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What is the #1 cause of anaphylaxis?
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Penicillin
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What are the Chron’s Gifts?
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Granuloma
Ileum Fistula Transmural Skip Lesion |
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What are the negative-stranded RNA Clues?
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Prodromal period before symptoms = 1-3 weeks
Why is there a prodromal period? Because must switch to positive stranded before replication |
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What are the clues for positive stranded RNA?
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Symptoms within 1 week or less
EXCEPTIONS: Hanta Ebola Yellow fever They are -ve stranded = don’t have to switch to positive before replicating |
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What are the Most common cyanotic heart diseases?
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Transposition of the great arteries
Tetrology of Fallot Truncus Arteriosus Tricuspid Atresia Total anomalous pulmunary Venous Return Hypoplastic Left heart syndrome Ebstein’s anomaly Aortic atresia Pulmonary atresia |
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What cyanotic heart disease is – boot shaped?
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TOF
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What cyanotic heart disease is associated with mom taking lithium during pregnancy?
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Ebstein’s Anomaly
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What things make the membrane less likely to depolarize?
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Hypokalemia
Hypermagnesemia Hypercalcemia (except atrium) Hypernatremia |
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What things make the membrane more likely to depolarize?
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Hyperkalemia
Hypomagnasemia Hypocalcemia (except atrium) Hyponatremia |
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What is Plan F?
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TPP – Thiamin – B1
Lipoic Acid – B4 CoA – Pantothenic acid – B5 FAD – Riboflavin – B2 NAD – Niacin – B3 |
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What are the 8 x-linked inherited diseases?
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Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
CGD (NADPH def) DMD Color Blindness G6PD Hemophilia Lesch-Nyhan Vit D resist. Rickets (X-linked dominant) Fabrys Hunters |
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What are the 7 B-cell deficiencies?
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Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
CVID (Common Variant Imm. Def) Leukemias Lymphomas SCID WAS Job Buckley Syndrome |
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What is the Tyrosine kinase deficiency?
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Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
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What are the B-cell deficiencies with T-cell overlap?
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SCID
WAS Job Buckley Syndrome |
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What are the 4 itchiest rashes?
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Scabies
Lichen Planus Urticaria Dermatitis Herpetiformis |
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Tumor Markers/Oncongenes I
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L-myc?
Small cell lung Ca C-myc? Promyelocytic leukemia (Burkitt’s lymphoma) N-myc? Neuroblastoma Small cell lung CA C-able? CML ALL |
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Tumor Markers/Oncongenes II
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C-myb?
Colon CA AML C-sis ? Osteosarcoma Glioma Fibrosarcoma |
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Tumor Markers/Oncongenes III
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C-erb B2?
Epidermal growth factor receptors CSF-1 ? Breast |
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Tumor Markers/Oncongenes IV
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Erb-B2?
Breast CA Ovarian CA Gastric CA Ret? Medullary CA of thyroid Men II & III Papillary carcinoma |
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Tumor Markers/Oncongenes V
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Ki-ras?
Lung CA Colon CA Bcl-2? Burkitts Follicular lymphoma Erb? Retinoblastoma |
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What are 6 Hormones produced by the placenta?
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hCG
Inhibin Human placental lactogen (HPL) Oxytocin (drug lactation, pit gland prod it also) Progesterone Estrogen Relaxin |
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What is cancer grading?
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Severity of microscopic change
Degree of differentiation |
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What is cancer staging?
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Degree of dissemination of tumor
What the surgeon sees |
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What are the rashes associated with cancer and what cancer are they associated with? Urticaria/Hives?
Seborrheic keratosis (waxy warts)? |
Urticaria/Hives?
Any CA, especially lymphoma Pagets Ds (ulcers around nipples) Seborrheic keratosis (waxy warts)? Colon CA HIV if sudden increase in number Normal with aging |
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What are the rashes associated with cancer and what cancer are they associated with? Actinic keratosis?
Dermatomyositis? |
Actinic keratosis?
Dry scaly plaques on sun-exposed skin Squamous Cell CA of skin Dermatomyositis? violacious, heliotropic rash, malar area Colon CA |
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What are the rashes associated with Cancer and the cancer they are associated with?
Akanthosis nigricans? Erythema nodosum? |
Akanthosis nigricans?
dark lines in skin folds Any visceral CA End organ damage Erythema nodosum? ant aspect of legs, tender nodules Anything granulomatous NOT assoc. w/ bacteria |
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What is carried by HDL?
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Apo E
Apo A Apo CII L-CAT lecithin cholesterol acetyl transferase Cholesterol from periphery to liver |
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What is carried by VLDL?
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Apo B-100
Apo E Apo C II Triglcyerides (95%) Cholesterol (5%) |
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What is carried by IDL?
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Apo B-100
Apo E Apo CII Triglycerides (< VLDL) Cholesterol (>VLDL) |
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What is carried by LDL?
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Apo B-100
Cholesterol from liver to tissue NOT a good thing!!!!! |
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What do chylomicrons carry?
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Apo A
Apo B-48 Apo E Apo C II Triglycerides from: GI to liver (25% of the time) GI to endothelium (75% of the time) |
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Which lipoprotein carries the most cholesterol?
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LDL
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Where are the AVMs?
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Clue = HEAL
Heart? Machinery murmur Elbow? Fistula from dialysis in renal disease Abdomen/Brain? Von Hippel-Lindau = clot off with coils Increase incidence of Renal cell CA on chrom 3 Lungs? Osler Weber Rendu Syndrome |
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What is the Ranson’s criteria for acute pancreatitis (at admission)?
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Glucose > 200
Age > 55 LDH >350 AST > 250 WBC > 16,000 |
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What is the Ranson’s criteria for acute pancreatitis (at less than 48 hrs)?
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Calcium <8 mg/dl
HCT drop > 10% O2 < 60 (PaO2) Base deficit > 4 BUN > 5 mg/dl Sequestration > 6L |
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What 2 diseases is pilocarpine used for?
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CF
Glaucoma Painful, red, teary eye |
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What is dysgeusia?
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Problem with sense of taste
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What are 3 causes of dysgeusia?
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Metronidazole
Clarithromycin Zinc deficiency |
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What is the triad of Carcinoid syndrome?
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Flushing
Wheezing diarrhea |
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What do you measure for carcinoid syndrome?
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Serotonin
5-HIAA |
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Where are the 2 most common places a carcinoid tumor is found?
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Pancreas
Ileum |
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What are the phage mediated toxins?
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Mnemonic: BEDS
Botulinum Erythrogenic toxin from strep pyogenes Diptheria Salmonella Has O antigen |
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What is the story used to remember the segmented RNA viruses?
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I sprayed ORTHO on my BUNYA at the ARENA down in REO to kill SEGMENTED WORMS
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Name the 3 major types of adhesion molecules
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ICAMs
Integrins Selectins |
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What does IgCam do?
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Bind proteins
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What do integrins do?
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Stop the leukocytes
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What do selectins do?
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Bind carbohydrates
Mediate the rolling to slow leukocytes down |
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What are the functions of adhesion molecules?
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Homing of lymphocytes
tells lymphocytes where to go Inflammation Cell-cell interaction |
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Primary allergic response is due to what?
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Contact
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What cells are present in the first 3 days?
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Neutrophils
The next cells to show up are? B-cells What do B-cells make? IgM |
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What day does IgM show up?
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Three
IgM peaks at what day? 14 When does IgM leave? In 2 months |
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What shows up in 2 wks (14 days)?
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IgG
When does IgG peak? In 2 months When does IgG leave? In 1 year |
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What is Secondary Allergic response is due to?
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MEMORY
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What shows up at day 3?
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IgG with 5x concentration
Has the highest affinity When does IgG peak? In 5 years When does IgG leave? In 10 years |
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What Ig has the highest affinity?
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IgG
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What are the risk factors for Esophageal/Gastric CA?
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Smoking
Alcohol Nitrites Japanese |
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What are the risk factors for bladder CA?
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Smoking
Aniline dyes Benzene Aflatoxin Cyclophosphamide Schistosomiasis 2 diseases: Von Hippel-Lindau Tubular sclerosis |
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What is the NBT test?
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Nitro Blue Tetrazolium test
What is it used for? Screening CGD What does a –ve test indicate? +ve for the disease |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Howell-Jolly?
Heinz? Zebra? |
Howell-Jolly?
Sickle cell Heinz? G-6-P-D Zebra? Niemann pick |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Donovan?
Mallory? Negri? |
Donovan?
Leishmaniasis Mallory? Alcoholism Negri? Rabies |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Councilman? Call-exner?
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Councilman?
Yellow fever Call-exner? Ovarian tumors granulosa origin |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Lewy?
Pick? Barr body? |
Lewy?
Parkinsons Pick? Pick’s disease Barr body? Normal female |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Aschoff?
Cowdry type A inclusions? Auer rods? |
Aschoff?
Rheumatic fever Cowdry type A inclusions? Herpes virus Auer rods? AML |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Globoid?
Russell? |
Globoid?
Krabbe’s lysosomal storage disease Russell? Multiple myeloma |
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What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Schiller-Duvall?
Basal bodies? |
Schiller-Duvall?
Yolk sac tumor Basal bodies? Only found in smooth mm |
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What are the 4 types of hypersensitivities?
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Mnemonic?
ACID Type I Anaphylaxis/Atopic Type II Cytotoxic (Humoral) Type III Immune complex mediation Type IV Delayed hypersensitivity/Cell mediated |
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What are the Characteristics of Type I hypersensitivity?
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Atopic
IgE (Asthma) binds to mast cell IgA activates IP3 cascade degrading mast cells |
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What are the Characteristics of Type II hypersensitivity?
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Humoral
What are examples of type II? Rh disease Goodpastures Autoimmune hemolytic Anemia All Autoimmune diseases except RA and SLE |
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What are the Characteristics of Type III hypersensitivity?
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Ag-Ab complement
What are examples of Type III? RA SLE Vasculitides Some GN? |
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What are the Characteristics of Type IV hypersensitivity?
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Cell mediated
What are examples of Type IV? TB skin test Contact dermatitis Transplant rejection |
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What structures have no known function?
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Appendix
Epithalamus Palmaris longus muscle Pancreatic polypeptide hormones in F-cells |
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What diseases can progress to RPGN?
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Goodpastures
Wegeners DM HTN |
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What are causes of papillary necrosis?
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Vasculitis
AIDS |
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Cytic fibrosis Questions? Tx?
Test used to detect CF? What ion does this test measure? Definitive presence of disease has a test value of what? |
Tx?
Pilocarpine also used for glaucoma Test used to detect CF? Pilocarpine sweat test What ion does this test measure? Cl- Definitive presence of disease has a test value of what? >60 |
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Cytic fibrosis Questions? What is the value in a normal person?
What is the value in a heterozygous person? What chromosome is the CF gene on? What Second messenger is used? |
What is the value in a normal person?
<20 What is the value in a heterozygous person? 30 – 60 What chromosome is the CF gene on? Chrom 7 What Second messenger is used? IP3/DAG |
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