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216 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Controllers who encounter situations that are NOT covered in JO 7110.65 are expected to ___.
a. Use their best judgment b. Consult their supervisor c. Consult their training specialist d. Report the situations to FAA Headquaters |
A. Use their best judgment |
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2. Procedural Letters of Agreement are _____ to JO 7110.65
a. Appended b. Added c. Supplemental d. Attached
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C. Supplemental
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3. Procedural Letters of Agreement require the concurrence of ____ A. One facility B. More than one facility C. The Administrator D. The Flight Standards District Office
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B. More than one facility |
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4. The word “shall” means a procedure is ___ |
C . Mandatory |
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5. The word that means a procedure is recommended is “_____” |
B. Should |
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6. The word that means futurity, but does NOT imply that a procedure or action is required is “____” |
D. Will |
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7. The term “aircraft” includes both the ___ |
C. Crew members and airframe |
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8. The word “altitude” refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, ___ or both. |
A. Flight level |
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9. When used in conjunction with visibility, “miles” refers to ___miles; otherwise, “miles” means ___miles |
C. Statue; nautical |
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10. When time is used in the context of a clock reading, hours and minutes are expressed in ___ |
A. UTC |
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11. When reading the time, the change to the next minute is made at the minute plus ___ seconds |
B. 30 |
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12. A time check is given to the nearest _____ |
D. Quarter minute |
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13. The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is to separate aircraft and issue ____ |
B. Safety alerts |
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14. When determining priority of duties, a controller should exercise ___ |
D. Good judgment |
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15. Give first priority to issuing safety alerts and ____ |
A. Separating aircraft |
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16. When establishing priority of duties, you should consider the |
C. Situation at hand |
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D. Automation |
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18. The use of nonradar separation is preferred over radar separation when a(n) ___ will be gained |
A. Operational advantage |
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19. A safety alert is issued when a controller recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity to terrain, obstacles, or ___ |
B. Other aircraft |
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20. Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a(n) ___ basis as circumstances permit |
B. “first come, first served” |
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21. Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over ___ air traffic |
D. All other |
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22. Military air evacuation flights are afforded priority when requested by ___ |
A. The pilot |
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C. Civilian air ambulance flight |
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24. Provide special handling, as required, to expedite __flights |
B. Flight check |
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25. Search and Rescue (SAR) flights performing SAR missions should be provided __ assistance |
C. Maximum |
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26. In an operational priority situation, IFR aircraft have priority over __ aircraft |
B. SVFR |
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27. USA/USAF/USN controllers shall remind a military aircraft to check wheels down unless the pilot ___ for the approach |
C. Has previously reported wheels down |
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28. When prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation, use the word ___ |
C. EXPEDITE” |
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29. When expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation, use the word __ |
D. IMMEDIATELY |
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30. What term do pilots use to inform ATC that they CANNOT accept undue delay at their destination because of low fuel? |
A. “minimum fuel” |
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31. A formation flight shall be controlled as a(n) ___ |
B. Single aircraft |
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32. Transfer control responsibility of an aircraft only after eliminating any potential ___ |
B. Conflicts |
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33. Unless specifically coordinated, assume control of an aircraft on after ___ |
D. It is in your area of jurisdiction |
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34. Before allowing an aircraft to enter airspace under another controller’s jurisdiction, a controller must first __ with the receiving controller |
D. Coordinate |
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35. When must transfer of radio communications for an en route aircraft be accomplished? |
B. Before entering the receiving controller’s area |
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36. Respond to another controller’s operational request by restating the incomplete or abbreviated terms |
C. “APPROVED” |
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37. Air Traffic control service is provided based only upon observed or ___ traffic |
A. Known |
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38. The operating position having primary responsibility for operations on the active runway is ___ |
A. Local control |
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39. When a local controller authorizes a vehicle or aircraft under another controller’s jurisdiction to cross an active runway, the local controller shall specify the runway preceded by the word(s) ___ |
B. “CROSS” |
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40. Known ground vehicles, equipment, and personnel must be clear of a runway before a departing aircraft starts takeoff or a landing aircraft crosses the ____ |
D. Runway threshold |
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41. Vehicles on or near a movement area should be described in a manner that will assist pilots in ___ |
D. Recognizing them |
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42. An aircraft position may be determined visually by the controller, by the pilots, or through the use of the ____ |
A. ASDE |
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43. Local controllers may use certified radar displays to provide a direction or suggested heading to a VFR aircraft as an advisory aid to ___ |
B. Navigation |
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44. Pilots wishing to exceed the prescribed speed limit in Class C or Class D airspace must___ |
D. Receive ATC authorization |
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45. The minimum age requirement to be eligible for a CTO certificate is ___ years |
C. 18 |
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46. Separation responsibility between aircraft within a formation during transition to individual control rests with the ____ |
C. Pilots concerned |
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47. A practical test on Notice to Airmen procedures is a prerequisite to act as an traffic control operator at any ___ D. Facility |
A. Operating position |
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48. A practical test on a surface area includes terrain features, visual checkpoints, and ___ |
B. Obstructions |
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49. To operate at any operating position, a control tower operator must pass a(n) _____ test on weather reporting procedures and the use of reports |
C. Practical |
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A. 24 |
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51. An air traffic controller is limited to ___ consecutive hours of duty. |
B. 10 |
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A. Readily available |
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53. To meet currency requirements, air traffic control tower operators must have served for at least ___ of the preceding 6 months at the facility for which their facility rating applies |
B. 3 |
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54. applicants for a facility rating at any air traffic control tower must have satisfactorily served as an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower without a facility rating for at least ___ months |
C. 6 |
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55. to meet the application requirements for a facility rating, a military applicant must have satisfactorily served as an air traffic control operator for at least __months |
C. 6 |
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56. What airspace extends from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower? |
D. Class D |
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57. 14 CFR, Part ___ , specifies the required certificates and rating or qualifications for air traffic control tower operations |
B. 65 |
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58. When distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, the separation minima between a Category II aircraft departing behind a Category I departure is ____ feet. |
C. 4,500 |
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59. the minimum separation required for an aircraft taking off on the same runway behind a preceding heavy jet/B757 departure is ___ minute(s). |
B. 2 |
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60. The minimum separation for an aircraft departing behind a heavy jet departure on parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet is ___ minute(s). |
B. 2 |
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61. Intersection departures may be initiated or authorized by a controller if the ____ |
C. Pilot request |
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62. The controller action required for an aircraft executing an instrument approach to a closed runway is to ____ |
D. Restate the landing runway |
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63. The approval or disapproval of a pilot request to remain in closed traffic is based on ___ |
A. Local traffic conditions |
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64. An aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver is on VFR and the IFR flight plan is canceled when the aircraft reaches the ___ on the initial approach portion of the maneuver |
B. Initial point |
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65. Restricted low approaches are NOT authorized over an aircraft in takeoff position or a _____ |
D. Departing aircraft |
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66. Issue the position, altitude (if known), and ____ of a heavy jet/B757 when issuing wake turbulence cautionary advisories |
D. Direction of flight |
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67. Controllers may clear an arriving aircraft to land if they observe a preceding arrival’s position and determine that the prescribed runway separation will exist when the succeeding aircraft crossed the ____ |
B. Landing threshold |
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68. During daylight hours when distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, an arriving Category I aircraft must NOT cross the landing threshold until a departing Category I aircraft is airborne and at least ___ feet from the landing threshold |
C. 3,000 |
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69. Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories to aircraft landing behind a departing/arriving heavy jet/B757 on a parallel runway separated by less than ___feet. |
D. 2,500 |
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70. Simultaneous takeoff and landing operations may be conducted on intersecting runways provided that they are approved by the facility manager, authorized by a facility directive, and conducted ____ |
C. In VFR conditions |
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71. A Boeing 737 is departing on an 8,000-foot runway. A twin-engine Piper Aztec is ready for takeoff from an intersection on the same runway. The earliest the controller may clear the Piper Aztec for takeoff is ___ minute(s) after the Boeing 737 has taken off. |
C. 3 |
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72. The minimum separation required when an arriving aircraft will fly through the airborne flight path of a departing heavy jet/B757 on a crossing runway is ____ minute(s) |
B. 2 |
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A. Left |
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74. Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ___ knots |
B. 5 |
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75. During taxi and ground movement operations, larger and heavier helicopters show a significant increase in ______ |
A. Downwash turbulence |
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76. When holding instructions are issued for more than one VFR aircraft at the same visual holding point, the controller must issue ___ |
C. Traffic information |
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77. Operations on the active runway are a primary responsibility of ___ |
C. Local control |
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78. When cleared to air-taxi, a helicopter is expected to remain below ____ feet AGL unless otherwise requested or instructed |
A. 100 |
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79. At locations that have a Letter of Agreement for Special VFR helicopter operations, the minimum separation between a special VFR helicopter and an arriving or departing IFR aircraft 1 mile or more from the airport is ___ mile(s). |
B. 1 |
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80. Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoff points if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and ___ |
C. The courses to be flown do not conflict |
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81. What phraseology will permit a pilot to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, or stop-and-go? |
D. “CLEARED FOR THE OPTION.” |
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82. An aircraft cleared for a low approach is considered to be an arrival until the aircraft crosses the ___ |
C. Landing threshold |
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83. To achieve proper spacing between helicopters, ___ may be more practical than course changes |
D. Speed adjustments |
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84. Simultaneous same direction aircraft operations on parallel runways are authorized only during VFR conditions unless ___ separation is applied |
A. Visual |
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85. Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of ___ feet. |
D. 2,800 |
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86. Before takeoff, inform departing IFR, SVFR, and VFR aircraft receiving radar service and TRSA VFR aircraft of the appropriate departure control frequency and ___ |
B. Beacon code |
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87. A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) ___ area. |
C. Surface |
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88. Nonapproach control towers may be authorized to provide visual separation between aircraft within a surface area provided that other separation is assured ___ the application of visual separation |
D. Before and after |
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89. Separation of IFR aircraft before and after the application of visual separation is a(n) ___ function |
A. IFR control |
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90. Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about ___mile(s) beyond the end of the runway |
A. ½ |
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91. The departure control frequency may be omitted from a departure clearance if the aircraft is assigned a standard instrument departure and the frequency is published on the ____ |
B. Departure procedure |
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92. When radio communications CANNOT be employed, aircraft and movement of vehicles on the movement area are controlled by ___ |
B. Light signals |
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93. An aircraft receiving a flashing white signal light while holding short of an active runway should |
A. Return to the starting point |
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94. A flashing green light to an aircraft in flight means “______.” |
B. Return for landing (followed by a green light at proper time) |
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95. To obtain acknowledgement from an airborne fixed-wing aircraft equipped with receiver only between sunrise and sunset, request the aircraft to ___ |
C. Rock the wings |
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96. Between sunset and sunrise, a helicopter equipped with receiver only should be requested to acknowledge instructions by flashing the landing light or ___ |
D. Flashing the search light |
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97. The appropriate light signal to use when aircraft are converging and a collision hazard exists is ____ |
A. Alternating red and green |
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98. Wake turbulence separation minima must continue to touchdown for all aircraft NOT marking a visual approach or ____ |
A. Maintaining visual separation |
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99. Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories to IFR aircraft that accept a visual approach or ___ when operating behind heavy jet/B757s |
A. Visual separation |
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100. Provide preventive airport traffic control service only to aircraft operating in accordance with a ___ |
D. Letter of Agreement |
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101. When a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the Airport Wind (direction and velocity) and the ___ |
B. Display field boundary wind |
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102. LLWA is designed to detect conditions only around the periphery of a(n) ____ |
C. airport |
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103. When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement “LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT” must be included on the ATIS broadcast for ____ minutes. |
C. 20 |
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104. Even though the Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is NOT in alert status, issue specific field boundary wind information if ____ |
D. Requested by the pilot |
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105. If a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the ___ and the displayed field boundary wind. |
B. Airport Wind |
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106. The certificate issued by the FAA that authorizes the holder to act as an air traffic control tower operator is called a(n) ____ certificate |
C. CTO |
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107. An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ___ |
A. Facility rating |
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108. Before a CTO certificate can be issued, each applicant must pass a(n) ____ examination |
C. Written |
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109. A persona acting as an air traffic control tower operator involving civil aircraft, who does NOT hold a valid CTO certificate or facility rating at that location, must be under the supervision of a holder of a(n) ____ for that control tower |
B. Facility rating |
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110. General eligibility requirements for non-FAA employees and active duty military personnel to hold a CTO certificate include a minimum age of 18 years, good moral character, command of the English language, and possession of a(n) ___ |
C. Appropriate current medical certificate |
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111. Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ___ test |
B. Practical |
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112. An air traffic control tower operator may NOT issue an IFR clearance without approval of the facility having ___ that location |
C. IFR control at |
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113. NO person may perform the duties of an air traffic controller, even if holding a CTO certificate, unless that person holds a current ______ |
D. Medical certificate |
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114. Aircraft A, a Category II, is on final approach. Aircraft B, a Category III, is departing on the same runway. The minimum distance required for separation between the two aircraft using suitable landmarks as a reference is ____ feet. A. 2,500 |
D. 6,000 |
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115. Aircraft A has landed and aircraft B is on final approach to the same runway. Both aircraft are Category III. Ensure that aircraft B does NOT cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has ____ |
Taxied off the runway |
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116. Aircraft A is departing Runway 10. Aircraft B is on final approach to Runway 16. Ensure that aircraft B does NOT cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has departed and passed the ___ |
A. Intersection |
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117. Aircraft A and aircraft B are on final approach to the same runway. When anticipating separation, landing clearance for aircraft B need NOT be withheld if aircraft A _____ |
C. Will clear the runway |
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118. The reduced runway separation minimum between a Category III departure followed by a Category I arrival is ____ feet. |
D. 6,000 |
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119. Separate an arriving aircraft using one runway from another aircraft on an intersecting runway by ensuring that the arriving aircraft does NOT cross the landing threshold or flight path until the other aircraft has ____ |
B. Passed the intersection or is airborne and turning to avoid conflict |
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120. Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted ___ |
A. In VFR conditions |
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121. During Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways, issue the measured distance from the landing down to the nearest ___ feet if requested by either aircraft |
B. 50 |
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D. Good |
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123. A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ___ |
D. Traffic information |
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124. The term “high key” relates to a(n) ___ approach |
D. Simulated flameout |
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125. On an overhead approach, the initial approach is ___ nautical miles in length |
C. 3 to 5 |
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126. Do NOT authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at an intersection between sunset and sunrise, or at any time when the intersection is _____ |
A. Not visible from the tower |
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127. While conducting simultaneous landings on intersecting runways, the maximum allowable tailwind for a landing aircraft that has been instructed to hold short of an intersection is ___ knots |
A. 0 |
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128. What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as “active” runways? |
C. Severe weather activity |
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129. ATC service is provided in accordance with procedures and minima contained in FAA order JO 7110.65 except when pilots are required to abide by ________ |
C. ICAO documents or rules of the air |
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130. Reporting essential flight information includes any flight conditions that may have an adverse effect on ____ |
A. Air safety |
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131. Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility’s surface area, coordinate with the appropriate _____ |
A. Nonapproach control tower |
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132. After an aircraft has been issued a clearance to line up and wait on a runway, what is the phraseology used to prevent the aircraft from inadvertently taking off? |
C. “HOLD IN POSITION” |
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133. A pilot encountering an urgency situation should broadcast ___ three times. |
D. “PAN-PAN” |
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134. Inform an aircraft of any observed abnormal aircraft condition when requested by a pilot or _____ |
D. When you deem it necessary |
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135. When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the ___ |
C. Direction of flight |
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136. Local controllers may use certified tower radar display to determine an aircraft’s exact location, spatial relationship to other aircraft, or _____ |
D. Identification |
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137. Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ___ degrees or more |
C. 30 |
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138. what term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred? |
B. Point out |
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139. Transfer radar identification from one controller to another provide ___ radar service |
B. Continuous |
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140. What procedure permits one controller to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller, request approval for an aircraft to enter another controller’s airspace, and radio communications with the aircraft? |
C. Point out |
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141. Radar separation shall be applied between the ___ of the beacon control slashes |
D. Ends |
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142. Radar separation shall be applied between the ___ of the beacon control slashes and the ____ of primary targets |
A. Ends, centers |
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143. What phraseology term is used to inform the controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace? |
C. “RADAR CONTACT” |
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144. The transferring controller must complete ___ prior to transferring control of an aircraft entering airspace delegated to the receiving controller |
A. Radar handoff |
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145. Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of ___ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance |
C. Radar identification |
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146. Do NOT approve a pilot’s request to conduct aerobatic practice activities within surface areas of Class B, C or D airspace unless operating in accordance with a ____ |
B. Letter of Agreement |
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147. When Special VFR operations are being conducted, authorize an aircraft to climb to VFR upon request if the only weather limitation is ___ |
B. Restricted visibility |
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148. Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the ___ |
C. Clearance-from-clouds requirement |
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149. Special VFR minimums are prescribed in Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part ___ |
B. 91 |
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150. Local controllers must visually scan runways ____ |
D. To the maximum extent possible |
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151. Fixed-wing Special VFR flights may be approved only if arriving and departing IFR aircraft are NOT _____ |
A. Delayed |
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152. When ground visibility is officially reported at an airport as less than 1 mile, inform pilots of arriving fixed-wing aircraft that ground visibility is less than 1 mile CANNOT be issued unless ____ |
D. An emergency exists |
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153. The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least ____ any conflicting IFR traffic |
D. 500 feet below |
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154. Special VFR operations may be authorized for aircraft transiting the surface area when the primary airport is reporting VFR but the pilot is unable to _____ |
A. Maintain VFR |
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155. The objective of gate hold procedures is to achieve departure delays of ____ minutes or less after engine starts and taxi time. |
C. 15 |
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156. When gate hold procedures are in effect, advise departing aircraft of the time at which the pilot can expect to receive a(n) __ time and/or taxi advisory |
C. Engine start |
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157. The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with ___ unless modified by flow control restrictions |
D. The initial call |
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158. Gate hold procedures shall be implemented whenever departure delays exceed or are expected to exceed ___ minutes. |
C. 15 |
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159. Describe the quality of braking action by using the terms “GOOD,” “FAIR,” “POOR,” ___ or a combination of these terms |
D. “NIL” |
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160. Where available, ___ is used to provide advanced noncontrol airport/terminal area and meteorological information to aircraft |
B. ATIS |
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161. If the reported ceiling/sky condition is above 5,000 feet and visibility is more than ____ miles, ceiling, visibility, and obstruction to vision are optional in the ATIS message |
B. 5 |
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162. Unless required for massage content, the duration of an ATIS should NOT exceed __ seconds |
B. 30 |
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163. During the recording of an ATIS message, the speech rate should NOT exceed ___ words per minute |
C. 100 |
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B. “BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES ARE IN EFFECT” |
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165. The radar equipment used to augment visual observation of aircraft and/or vehicular movement on runways and taxiways is ___ |
A. ASDE |
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166. What system is used to augment visual observation of aircraft landing or departing as well as aircraft or vehicular movements on runways, taxiways, or other areas of the movement area? |
A. ASDE |
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167. The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ___ |
B. VASI |
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168. Who is responsible for operating airport lights during the hours when the tower is closed? |
D. Airport management/operator |
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169. Approach lights shall be operated between sunrise and sunset when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet or the prevailing visibility is ___ mile(s) or less and approaches are being made to a landing runway served by the lights |
D. 5 |
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170. Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than ___ mile(s) and instrument approached are being made to the runway served by the associated ASL |
C. 3 |
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171. The current touchdown RVR/RVV for the runway(s)-in-use shall be issued when prevailing visibility is ___ mile(s) or less, regardless of the value indicated. |
A. 1 |
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172. Between sunrise and sunset ceiling or visibility below basic VFR minima is indicated by turning on the _____ |
C. Rotating beacon |
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173. Reportable values are ____ feet or less for RVR and 1 ½ miles or less for RVV |
D. 6,000 |
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174. What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information? |
C. “RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED” |
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175. issue current touchdown RVR/RVV for the runway(s)-in-use when RVR/RVV indicates a reportable value regardless of the ______ |
A. prevailing visibility |
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176. The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on whenever the associated ___ lights are on |
B. Approach |
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177. Except where a “runway use” program is in effect, use the “calm wind” runway when the wind is less than ___ knots |
B. 5 |
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178. Determining which runways are to be designated as “active” is a primary responsibility of the _____ |
B. Tower supervisor/CIC |
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179. The types of radar services designed to enhance safety by providing air traffic services to VFR aircraft are basic radar, TRSA, Class B, and Class ____ services |
B. C |
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180. The physical dimensions of Class C airspace will normally be a _____ -NM radius capped at 4,000 feet above the primary airport |
B. 10 |
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181. Class C airspace shall extend down to ___ feet above the surface, except that an inner core with a 5-NM radius shall extend down to the surface |
C. 1,200 |
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182. What terminal VFR radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport? |
B. Class B |
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183. What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR aircraft? |
D. TRSA |
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184. Pilot participation in the Terminal Radar Program is ____ |
C. Urged |
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185. The appropriate VFR altitude for direction of flight rules does NOT apply until the aircraft is above __ feet AGL |
C. 3,000 |
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186. Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which ____ service will be provided |
D. Separation |
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187. What airspace extends from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower? |
D. Class D |
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188. The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon ____ |
D. Operational requirements |
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189. Minimum vertical separation between VFR aircraft and IFR aircraft within Class C airspace is ___ feet |
A. 500 |
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190. when applying basic radar services, the ____ ordinarily establishes the landing sequence |
B. tower |
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191. The radius of the outer area encompassing Class C airspace will normally be ____ NM, with some site-specific variations |
D. 20 |
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192. When applying Stage III procedures within a TRSA, the ___ must specify the approach interval |
A. Tower |
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193. When basic radar service is being provided, and aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after ___ |
B. Coordination with approach control |
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194. The specialist being relieved and the relieving specialist must share equal responsibility for the completeness and ___ of the position relief briefing |
A. Accuracy |
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195. The position relief briefing process involves ____ separate and distinct steps |
C. 4 |
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196. “Assumption of position responsibility” is the step number ___of the position relief briefing process |
C. 3 |
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197. The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the ____ |
A. Checklist |
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198. In position relief, the manual or automatic display of the current status of position-related equipment and operational conditions or procedures is the ____ |
B. Status information area |
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199. FAA flight inspection aircraft are identified by the call sign ___ |
A. “FLIGHT CHECK” |
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200. Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot’s planned action except to preclude a(n) ___ situation |
B. Emergency |
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201. Issue radar advisories to flight inspection aircraft where adequate coverage exists and to the extend permitted by ____ |
C. Workload |
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202. When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known) direction of flight, and ___ |
A. Altitude |
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203. Bird activity information advisories are issued for at least ___ minutes after receipt of such information |
B. 15 |
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204. When appropriate procedure requirements are met, separation ___ between aircraft may be reduced to ___ mile(s) within 10NM of the runway |
D. 2 ½ |
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205. A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a ____ |
B. Letter of Agreement with the aircraft operator |
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206. When requested by a pilot or when you deem it necessary, inform an aircraft of any observed abnormal aircraft condition by using the phraseology, “(Item) ____ (observed condition).” |
C. APPEARS |
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207. Surface wind shall be described as “calm” when wind velocity is ___ knots |
B. less than 3 |
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208. Determining whether or NOT conditions are adequate for the use of ARTS data on the DBRITE shall be the responsibility of the ____ |
C. Local controller |
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209. Which terminal controller is responsible for operations conducted on the active runways? |
D. Local |
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210. A primary function of an ATCT is to provide ___ |
B. Safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic on and in the vicinity of an airport |
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211. Which position in the ATCT issues control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating in the airport movement area? |
A. Ground control |
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212. Which terminal controller is responsible for sequencing IFR arriving aircraft? |
A. Approach |
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213. Which controller is normally responsible for aircraft and vehicular movement around the airport? |
B. Ground |
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214. The active runway is controlled by the __ controller |
A. Local |
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215. The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is separating aircraft and ___ |
A. Issuing safety alert |
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216. What term describes the position that is in direct communication with aircraft and ensures the separation of aircraft in the area of jurisdiction? |
A. Tower position |
