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200 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The chemical symbol for sodium is:
Na
Bone is an example of which type of tissue?
connective
________ is an anatomical term meaning "toward an attached base."
Proximal
The viscous material that supports all internal cellular structures is called:
protoplasm
You are assigned to a paramedic unit and receive a call to an elderly housing unit for the report of a 76-year-old man who fell. You find the man on the floor of his room, in pain, and you immediately notice that his right foot and knee are pointing outward. You do an assessment and obtain vital signs before calling medical control for an order to give pain medication. Which of the following terms should you use when describing the position of the leg to medical control?
Externally rotated
You arrive at the scene of a bar fight. Your patient has a penetrating stab wound on his left anterior chest about 2 inches above the nipple line. Which of the following conditions is your greatest concern?
developing tension pneumothorax
Maintenance of a relatively stable internal physiologic environment in which the cells live is called:
homeostasis.
What is the movement of water out of plasma across the capillary membrane into interstitial space due to hydrostatic pressure called?
Filtration
Small, rod-like organelles that function as the metabolic center of the cell are called
mitochondria
You arrive on the scene of a stabbing. A 23-year-old man has a knife wound approximately 10 cm inferior to armpit. Which of the following anatomical terms best describes the location of the wound?
Midaxillary
Which of the following types of epithelium consists of single layer of cells of varying heights?
Pseudostratified
The function a protein in the human body is fundamentally determined by the protein's:
shape
What is the diffusion of water called
Osmosis
Amino acids are formed by joining an "R" group to a central carbon atom already bonded to a H, an amino group, and a(n):
carboxyllic acid group
Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue?

Nerve, Squamous, Connective, Epithelial.
Squamous
A patient is having trouble breathing and showing signs of a heart attack. The patient is placed on a stretcher, seated, with the back of the stretcher about halfway up. This position is called _______ position.
semi-Fowler's
Your ambulance is dispatched to a 6-month-old patient who is reported to have been sick for two days with diarrhea and vomiting. After performing the assessment you suspect dehydration. One of the signs you should check is the head, where you would expect to find what landmark sunken?
Fontanelle
A fracture to the humerus is best described as having what anatomical location in relationship to the elbow?
Proximal
The motion associated with the return of a body part to the anatomic position is called:
extension.
A 55-year-old man has signs and symptoms consistent with an infection after a colonectomy to treat his colon cancer. Which of the following is the most likely?
peritonitus
Your patient was the restrained driver in a high energy MVC where another vehicle struck his vehicle at the driver's door. He is showing signs of hypovolemic shock. However, there is no obvious evidence of trauma other than a faint large bruise over his LUQ. Which of the following internal organs would you suspect to be injured?

spleen, right kidney, liver, esophagus
spleen
You respond to a call for a 3-year-old in the care of a babysitter, who reports that the child fell from the top of a sliding board. Upon arrival you find the child lying on the ground in a supine position and not moving. You immediately start to hold in-line stabilization and check the ABCs. As you position your hands, you notice the child's head is tucked forward with the chin touching the chest. Which term best describes this position?
Hyperflexion
When placing a patient on a long board for spinal immobilization, what body surface of the patient is in contact with the board?
Dorsal
A motor vehicle accident has resulted in a patient with a traumatic closed head injury. Upon arrival at the hospital you are informed that the patient has an internal hemorrhage. The bleeding is most likely in which cavity?
Cranial
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of mitosis?

Metaphase, Nucleophase, Anaphase, Telophase
Nucleophase
Which of the following patients do you think would be the best candidate for administration of IV sodium bicarbonate?

A. A hyperventillating 17 year old with ETCO2 of 17 torr
B. A full arrest patient with a pH of 7.47
C. A hypoventillating CHF patient with ETCO2 of 49 mmHg
D. A trauma arrest patient with a pH of 7.10
A trauma arrest patient with a pH of 7.10
The movement of a substance accross the cell membrane against a concentration gradient is called:
Active transport
A man is lying on his back with his legs elevated approximately 12 inches and his head down. What is this position called?
Trendelenburg's
Which of the following classes of compounds would you expect to be formed by ionic bonding?
salts
A solution that has equal osmotic pressure to cells and body fluid, such as normal saline, is said to be:
isotonic.
Which projection from the neuron conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body?
Axon
Your patient has a penetrating injury 2" superior and 4" laterally to the left of his umbilicus. The associated exit wound is in the sacral midsagittal region. Which of the following MUST be perforated?

A. pleura
B. left kidney
C. peritoneum
D. descending abdominal aorta
left kidney
What is the uptake of solid particles through the cell membrane called?
Phagocytosis
Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle?

A. Stratified
B. Skeletal
C. Cardiac
D. Smooth
Stratified
The term caudad means:
lower, toward the feet.
When too much water enters a cell and the cell swells and bursts, this process is called:
lysis.
You contact medical control and receive an order for 0.45% sodium chloride in water (1/2 NS). Knowing that 0.9% sodium chloride is isotonic to whole blood, what type of solution is 1/2 NS?
Hypotonic
The division of one cell into two genetically identical and equal daughter cells is called:
mitosis.
The pleural cavity surrounds what organ?
lung
The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the ________ pericardium.
parietal
The major source of energy for all chemical reactions of the body is/are:
adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
While doing a physical assessment you have rebound tenderness in the quadrant where the gall bladder is located. Which of the following best describes that anatomical location of the abdomen?
Right upper quadrant (RUQ)
What is the movement of solutes from an area of higher concentration to one of lower
concentration called?
Diffusion
You have treated a motorcyclist for a right tibia/fibula fracture. The deformity is below the knee. When making the radio report to the hospital, which of the following terms most correctly describes the location of the injury?

A. Proximal to the knee
B. Inferior to the knee
C. Distal to the knee
D. Superior to the knee
Inferior to the knee
Organelles that contain RNA and protein and that interact with RNA from other parts of the cells to join amino acids together to form proteins are called:
ribosomes.
Which of the following does not significantly contribute to the mass of an atom?
Electron
The frontal plane divides the body into the ________ and ________ portions.
anterior, posterior
The pericardium lies within the:
mediastinum.
Which term describes the turning of an extremity toward the midline?
Internal rotation
A person lying face down is in the ________ position.
prone
What chemical does the action potential cause to be released from the sacroplasmic reticulum?
Calcium
How many pairs of ribs, called true ribs, attach directly to the sternum?
7
A minute cavity in bone or cartilage is called a(n):
lacuna
Which enzyme regulates the reaction between ADP and creatine phosphate? High levels usually indicate serious cardiac or skeletal muscle damage.

A. Creatine
B. Sodium
C. Creatine phosphokinase
D. None of these
None of these
You are dispatched to a skating rink for a possible fracture. Your patient is an adult female who fell backwards and extended her right hand to break her fall. She is complaining of right wrist pain. When you examine her wrist, you note deformation resembling the curve of a dinner fork when viewed laterally. You suspect:
Colles' fracture
In smooth muscle, calcium binds to an intracellular protein called:
calmodulin
When cardiac muscle no longer contracts in a coordinated manner and each cardiac muscle cell fires independantly, the resulting dysrhythmia is called:
ventricular fibrillation
The pituitary gland resides in a saddle-shaped depression in the middle of the sphenoid bone that is called the:
sella turcica
The vertebrae that fuse into a plate-like bone that forms the posterior portion of the pelvis is called the:
sacrum.
The sternum is divided into bodies; which is the top portion?
Manubrium
What causes an increase in the muscle membrane's permeability, allowing sodium (Na+) ions to diffuse into the cell via special protein ion channels, producing an electrical charge?
Acetylcholine
Which muscle group provides the greatest muscle mass and strength in the back?
Longissimus
What kind of fibers act like reinforcement to bone tissue to provide tensile strength?
collagen
The large muscle on the lateral aspect of the quadriceps group that is a common site for IM
injections is called:
vastus lateralis
Bell's palsey is a condition that results from:
dysfunction of the facial nerve
Which bone of the skull is found on the sides of the head?
Temporal
A partial displacement of a bone end from its position within a joint capsule is a what?
Dislocation
Which of the following is the longest muscle in the body?
Sartorius
You are assessing a 34-year-old woman who reports that she is suffering from temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome, and she has ringing in her ears. The appropriate medical terminology for this symptom is:
tinnitus.
A 27-year-old patient with an isolated long bone fracture as the result of a fall starts to develop
breathing difficulty and acute chest pain while being transported to the hospital. What do you
suspect is the most likely underlying cause?
Fat emboli traveled to the lung
Your patient was released from the hospital after an overnight admission following an MVA. The
hospital found no fractures or internal injuries. However, the patient has massive bruising on both
thighs, back, and his left arm. Now, he complains of intense muscle pain all over his body and
discolored urine. You suspect:
Rhabdomyolysis
The growth plate of a bone is also referred to as the _______ plate.
epiphyseal
Myofilaments have more than one type. Which of the following types is active in muscle
contractions and cellular movement?
Actin myofilaments
During breathing, the major movement is produced by what type of movement of the diaphragm?
Contraction
Your paramedic squad is dispatched to a reported motor vehicle crash in a rural section of your
response area. Upon arrival you find an older-model truck has run into a tree, and the driver, who
was not wearing a seat belt, has sustained a head injury. It is unknown how much time elapsed
between the crash and the discovery of the crash. Your partner does the rapid trauma assessment
and reports Battle's sign. Where would this sign be visible?
Under the occipital region
A resting muscle breaks down fatty acids to make:
adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Which of the following is NOT an immoveable joint?
Movement between radius and ulna
What are cells that produce bone tissue called?
Osteoblasts
Which type of muscle has the property of intrinsic automaticity?
Cardiac
What are the large, diamond-shaped muscles that cover the back and portions of the neck, whose
specific regions can contract independently?
Trapezius
A fracture at an angle to the shaft of the bone is called a/an _______ fracture.
oblique
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull known as
the:
foramen magnum.
Which of the following types of muscle cells are spindle-shaped and have a single nucleus?

A. Skeletal
B. Smooth
C. Striated
D. Cardiac
Smooth
The spine is divided into how many sections?
5
Bicipital tendinitis can be determined clinically by palpation of the bicipital groove revealing
tenderness and pain from the:
Yergason's test
Which of the following is an enzyme that breaks down the chemical released by a motor neuron?
Acetylcholinesterase
What is the shiny connective tissue that is lubricated by synovial fluid?
Cartilage
Smooth muscle carries out much of the automatic work of the body without conscious control of
the brain; thus, smooth muscle is what kind of muscle?
Involuntary
The prominent bony ridge that is the point of attachment for the meninges is the:
crista galli.
What are the specialized tough cords or bands of dense white connective tissue that are
continuous with the periosteum?
Tendon
Formation of new bone on the surface of the bone is called _______ bone growth.
appositional
Diltiazem and nifedipine are examples of:
calcium channel blockers
You are dispatched to a construction site to care for a fall victim. Your patient has fallen
approximately 14 feet off of a ladder onto asphalt. Your patient states that he landed on his right
foot in an upright position. He is complaining of lower right leg pain. You note some swelling in
the patient's right lower leg without gross deformation or any broken skin. Of the following, you
suspect:
closed impacted fracture
What is the layer of fibrous connective tissue that separates individual muscles called?
Fascia
Many nerve agents cause spastic paralysis by inhibiting:
acetylcholinesterase
The resting tension in a skeletal muscle is called:
muscle tone.
The junction between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber is called the:
neuromuscular junction.
Iron-containing pigment found in red blood cells that carries oxygen in the body is called:
hemoglobin.
A bursa is a fluid-filled sac situated between:
tendon and bone.
Muscles that work together to accomplish a particular movement are called:
synergists.
If fertilization does not occur during a menstrual cycle, a series of hormonal changes causes the remnants of the follicle to be sloughed. This sloughed material is now referred to as the:
corpus luteum
Which of the following does NOT help to hold the ovaries in place?
Endometrial wall
Intravascular fluid and interstitial fluid make up approximately how much of the total body fluid?
25%
Spermatozoa undergo a final maturation process in the:
seminal vesicles
The micturition reflex happens when what occurs to the urinary bladder?
Stretching
The number of chromosomes in each sex cell is called the _______ number
haploid
A thin mucous membrane that covers the vaginal opening is called the:
hymen.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?
Regulate temperature
Audible fetal heart tones are noted on Doppler ultrasound in which trimester?
First
What hormone is produced by cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus when the blood pressure is
low?
Renin
In the kidneys, how does an increased level of antidiuretic hormone affect water?
Moves into blood
Which of the following has nephrons that are NOT selectively permeable in order to help maintain
homeostasis:
Fats
The female urethra is fused with which wall of the vagina?
Anterior
The expanded area of the peritoneal cavity into which each fallopian tube opens is called the:
infundibulum.
During what process does an immature diploid oocyte undergo a series of cell divisions to form a
final haploid ovum?
Meiosis
What is contained in chromosomes and carries the so-called genetic code?
DNA
What salivary enzyme hydrolyzes starch into maltose?
Ptyalin
The opening between the right and left atria of the fetal heart is called the:
foramen ovale.
Electrolytes, chlorine, and sodium are transported actively, requiring:
energy
The average duration of labor for the first pregnancy is how many hours?
13
How is water affected in the kidney when the level of aldosterone is decreased?
Excreted
Which part of the brain triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone as a result of decreased body
fluid?
Pituitary gland
Heat is dissipated from the body via a number of mechanisms. Which of the following is NOT one
of the mechanisms?
Thermolysis
Regulation of body temperature is under the primary control of what part of the brain?
Hypothalamus
Lactic acid waste products are produced during what process?
Anaerobic metabolism
What is the building or constructive phrase, in which smaller molecules are converted to larger
molecules?
Anabolism
What is the middle layer of the uterine wall called?
Myometrium
Some glucose is stored as glycogen in what organ?
Liver
Each sex cell (sperm and ovum) contains a haploid number of chromosomes, which is how many
chromosomes each?
23
What is the normal human gestation period following implantation of the fertilized egg into the
uterine wall?
266 days
The narrowest portion of the entire urethra in the male is the:
external urethral orifice.
What is the outer portion of the kidney called?
Renal cortex
Within the Bowman's capsule is a ball of capillaries called a:
glomerulus.
A lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) results in production of which of the following?
Large volume of dilute urine
The placenta is expelled during what stage of labor?
Third
Where does fertilization of an ovum by a sperm usually occur?
Fallopian tube
As the ambient temperature approaches body temperature, which mechanism of heat dissipation is no longer effective:
Radiation
The blood is filtered in the filtration membrane. Which of the following is NOT reclaimed from or excreted into the urine as part of that process?

A. Fats
B. Salts
C. Glucose
D. Amino acids
Fats
The innermost layer of the uterus is divided into how many layers?
Two
Blood vessels and nerves of the penis run along the:
dorsal side.
Small sugars attach to carrier molecules and pass through the intestinal mucosal cell membrane
via:
facilitated diffusion
The zygote usually implants into the uterine wall how many days after fertilization?
7
The placenta is attached to what surface?
Endometrium
Lungs of a fetus become capable of respiration and produce surfactant in which trimester?
Second
What is the top segment of the uterus called?
Fundus
Which of the following is NOT a ligament that holds the uterus in place?

A. Broad ligament
B. Round ligament
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Peritoneal ligament
Peritoneal ligament
What shape is the uterus?
Pear
The functional unit of the kidney is called the
nephron
The thick-walled, hollow tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder are called:
ureters.
The process of fetal development is stimulated by production of what hormone?
Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
In which of the following will the QRS complex have higher amplitude?

A. the elderly
B. in women
C. the precordial leads
D. when there is fluid in the pericardial sac
the precordial leads
Low voltage or abnormally small complexes are seen in
Obese patients
Characteristics of normal P waves include
Upright round and one P wave preceding each QRS complex.
Tall and symmetrically peaked P waves may be seen with
impulses that originate outside the SA node.
The PR intervals are not measurable in
atrial flutter
The point at which the QRS complex meets the ST segment is called the
J point
A double negative impulse immediately following the S wave is called
double S prime.
With atrial fibrillation the PR intervals are
absent
The PR intervals get progressively longer in
2nd-degree AV heart block, Type I.
Normal P waves are those that
are rounded and upright.
In leads I, II, aVF, and V2 through V6, the deflection of the P wave is characteristically
upright
With 3rd-degree AV heart block the PR intervals are
absent
If the ectopic impulse arises from the middle of the right atrium the P' wave is
less positive than one that originates from the upper-right atrium
Shorter than normal PR intervals may be seen in
premature atrial complexes that arise in the upper or middle right atrium.
P' waves that continuously change in appearance indicate that the
impulses are arising from different locations in the atria
Premature beats that arise from the atria or internodal pathways produce P' waves that
may be obscured or buried in the T wave of the preceding beat
The normal QRS complex has a duration of
0.06 to 0.12 seconds.
When there are more P waves than QRS complexes it indicates that
the atria are firing so fast that not all the impulses can pass through the AV node and some are blocked.
An ECG tracing that is regular with an R to R interval of 15mm would have what rate?
100
Inverted P' waves occur when the
electrical impulse originates in or near the AV junction and travels upward into the atria causing retrograde depolarization.
A PR interval of less than 0.12 seconds indicates
a pacemaker site which is either in or close to the AV junction.
A normal PR interval consists of
the P wave and a flat line.
Which of the following dysrhythmias arise from the ventricles?
Idioventicular rhythm
Which of the following dysrhythmias arise from the AV junction?
AV heart block
With 2nd-degree AV heart block, Type II, the PR intervals associated with the P waves which are followed by a QRS complex will be
constant
A positive impulse immediately following the R wave is called
R prime
The first step of analyzing an ECG rhythm is to
determine the heart rate.
Impulses that arise from the ventricles produce QRS complexes that
appear wide and bizarre-looking.
The PR interval is normally ____ to ____ seconds in duration.
0.12, 0.20
The R wave
is the first positive deflection in the QRS complex.
The S wave in the QRS complex is
the negative deflection that follows the R wave and extends below the baseline
A PR interval of greater than 0.20 seconds indicates
a delay in conduction of the impulse between the SA node and the ventricles.
Normal QRS complexes are those that
are upright and narrow.
When the P waves seem to "march through" the QRS complexes it indicates
a complete blockage of the AV node.
The PR interval is the distance from the beginning of the ________ to the beginning of the__________.
P wave, Q wave
A complex that comes early in the rhythm that appears to be initiated from outside of the SA node:
Could be caused by escape or ectopy
The most common cause of longer than normal PR intervals is
1st-degree AV heart block.
When a P' wave follows the QRS complex the PR interval is referred to as the
RP' interval.
occurs when an impulse arises from a supraventricular site and travels through the AV node to the ventricles more quickly than normal.
Preexcitation
The P'R intervals may vary from beat to beat in
wandering atrial pacemaker.
On the top or bottom (and sometimes both) of the ECG tracing printout there are often vertical slashes or markings that can help you quickly determine the
approximate heart rate.
Very tall QRS complexes are usually caused by
hypertrophy of one or both ventricles.
When the atria fire faster than 350 beats per minute
it produces a chaotic-looking baseline with no discernable P waves.
PR intervals are considered normal if they are
consistently the same duration.
When the atrial waveforms appear in a saw-toothed pattern it reflects
that the atria are firing at a rate of between 250 and 350 beats per minute.
The P' waves in atrial tachycardia
have a different morphology than normal P waves.
In leads I, II, III, aVL, aVF, and V4 to V6, the deflection of the QRS complex is characteristically
upright
Impulses that arise from outside the SA node
depolarize the atria in a retrograde direction.
The QRS complexes appear normal if
the rhythm is initiated from the SA node, atria, or AV junction.
The Q wave is
the first negative deflection following the P wave.