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197 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Three objectives of first aid
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prevent further injury
infection loss of life |
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eight main elements of first aid
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Bleeding
Burns Fractures Electric Shock obstructed airways heat injuries cold weather injuries shock |
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Four methods of controlling bleeding
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direct pressure
elevation pressure points (22/11 each side) tourniqet |
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Three Types of Burns
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first degree - produces redness
second degree - causes red, blistered skin and sever pain third - destroys skin tissue, skin and bone in sever cases, nerve endings |
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Two types of heat injuries
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Heat exhaustion- skin is cool, moist and clamy, pupils are dialated. victim is sweating perfusely.
Heat Stroke- serious breakdown of the sweating mechanism. hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation and a weak rapid puls |
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Five types of shock
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Septic- bacteria
Anaphylactic- allergic Cardigenic- heart is damaged Hypovolemic- sever blood and fluid loss Neurogenic- Spinal cord injury |
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What is the deffinition of CPR
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cardiopulmanary resuscitation
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Steps of CPR
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(C)-Circulation
(A)-Airway (B)-Breathing |
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5 ORM processes
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Identify
Assess Make Risk Decisions Implement Controls Supervise |
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3 types of mishaps
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Class A- 2 million or more/death, permanent disability
Class B- 500,000 to less than 2 million/permanent partial disability Class C-50,000 to less than 500,000. |
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4 types of Chemical Warfare
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Nerve Agents
Blister Agents Blood Agents Choking Agents |
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M9 Chemical detector Paper
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Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color.
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What is Atropine/ 2-PAM-Chloride Auto Injector
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It is used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties
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two types of Biological Warfare
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Pathogens - bacteria, viruses
Toxins - based on the organism that produces them. |
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What are the types of Nuclear Explosions
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High Altitude
Air Burst Surface Burst Shallow Underwater Deep underwater |
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What does MOPP stand for
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture
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What is the fire Triangle
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Oxygen
Heat Fuel |
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What are the Different Classes of Fires
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Class A- Trash
Class B- Liquids Class C- Electrical Class D- Metals |
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What is a Runway
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Paved Area For Aircraft Takeoff and Landing
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What is a Threshold Marking
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Parallel stripes on the ends of the runways
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What is a Overrun Area
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Paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonable effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting
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Ma-1 series overrun barrier
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Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft NOT equipped with tail hooks
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What is a taxiway
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paved area for aircraft to move between parking aprons and runways
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Yellow Jersey
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aircraft handling officer, catapult officer
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White jersey
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Safety
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Brown Jersey
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Plane Captain
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Blue Jersey
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Aircraft Handling and chock crewman
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Green Jersey
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Maintenance
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Red Jersey
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Ordance
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Purple Jersey
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Fuel Crew
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The Danger Areas For aviation
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Intakes
exhaust flight controls compressed gasses crygenics explosives hazmat eye, hearing and ther industrial dangers |
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How high of voltage can a windshield build up
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100,000 volts
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What are the Chaining Requirements
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initial tie down - 6 chains
up to 45knots - 9 chains 46-60 knots - 14 chains above 60 knots - 20 chains |
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what does fpcon stand for
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Force protection conditions
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Factors that make up the FPCON
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Terrorist threat level
capability risk of terrorist attack assets ability to execute mission if attacked assets criticality of their mission |
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What are the different types of FPCON
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Normal - general global threat
ALPHA - increased general threat BRAVO - More predictable threat exists. CHARLIE - Incident has occured DELTA - Immediate area where incident occured |
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what does DEFCON stand for
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Defense Readiness Condition
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What are the 5 types of DEFCON
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DEFCON 5 - normal
DEFCON 4 - normal increased DEFCON 3 - Increased above normal readiness DEFCON 2 - Further Increased but less than maximum DEFCON 1 - Maximum Readiness |
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What does NAMP stand for
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Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
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What does the MO do
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head of maintenance department, the MO is responsible to the CO for accomplishment of the departments mission
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What does the AMO do
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assists the mo in the performance of duties and keeps the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department.
Also coordinates TAD, inspect Spaces,manage SE training and licensing program |
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What does the MMCO (Maintenance Material control officer)
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Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department
Respnosible for preparing the MMP |
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What does the MMCPO (Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer) do
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He is the senior enlisted advisor for the maintenance department. Reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, maintenance, and personnel.
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What does the QAO (Quality Assurance Officer) do
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ensure that personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training.
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What does the MCO (Material Control Officer) do
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handles the finances and material requistions.
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What are the two types of maintenance defined in the NAMP
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rework and upkeep
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What are the differnent types upkeep inspections
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Turnaround
Daily Special Conditional Phase Acceptance Transfer |
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What is the Definition of Management
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The efficient attainment of objectives
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What is the Defeinition of Maintenance
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All Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability.
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What is the fundamentals of QA
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to prevent the occurance of defects.
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What are the 6 programs managed by QA
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CTPL
Safety Audits SE Misuse/Abuse Aircraft Confined Space (ACSP) Naval Aviation Maint Reporting Program (NAMDRP) |
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What does NATOPS stand for
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Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
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When was NATOPS established
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1961
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When was the NAMP established
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1959
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When was FRS established
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1961
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What is a warning
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operating procedure that may result in death
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What is a caution
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An operating procedure or practice that may cause damage to the aircraft
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What is a note
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An operating procedure that must be emphasized
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What is the difference between shall and should
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Shall is mandatory
Should is strongly recomended. |
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Who was the first person to take-off from a ship and when did it occur
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Eugene Ely on 14NOV1910 from a Curtiss plane from the USS Birmingham
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When is the Birthdate of NAVAL Aviation and why
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8May1911
Captain Chambers purchased 2 Curtiss biplanes for 5,500 each. They would later be renamed the A-1 Triad |
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Who and when was the first death in naval aviation.
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20JUN1913 by ENS William D. Billingsley
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When was special courses to train as inspectors started
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22OCT1917 when 14 men enrolled in MIT ground school program
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When did the navy receive its first carrier
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20MAR1922 when the Jupiter formally a coal-carrier was recomissioned after its conversion
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When did the navy's first jet land on a carrier
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10MAR1948 by the FJ-1 Fury
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What is significant about the battle of coral sea (7-8MAY1942)
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thanks to the breaking of the Japanese code the navy cut off the japanese fleet on its way to New Guinea.
It was the first carrier vs carrier battle. The navy lost the USS Lexington |
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What is significant about the battle of Midway(3-5 JUN 1942)
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It was the turning point of the pacific war. The navy used its 3 Carriers (Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown) to attack the Japanese fleet as they attacked the midway defenses. The japanese lost 4 carriers where the navy lost the USS Yorktown
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What is significant of the Guadalcanal (13-15NOV1942)
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The uss Juneau was sank taking the 5 SULLIVAN brothers with her.
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What is Acceleration
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The rate of change of the speed or velocity of matter with time
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What is Speed
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The rate of movement in terms of distance and time
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What is Velocity
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The quickness or speed of an object in a given time
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What is Newtons First law
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Law of INERTIA, an object at rest will remain at rest or an object in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force I.E. gravity
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What is Newtons second law
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Law of Force, an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directy proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object
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What is Newtons third law
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Law of Action and Reaction, for every action there is an equal but opposite reaction.
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What are the three components on an airplane that allow it to move on its axis
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Ailerons (roll) longitudinal
Elevators (pitch) lateral axis Rudder (yaw) vertical axis |
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What does a Flap do
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Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing
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What does a spoiler do
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Used to decrease wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air, thus creating a more predictable landing glide slope
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What Are slats
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moveable control surfaces attached to the leading edge. allows aircraft to be controlled at speeds below normal landing speed
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What are the basic PARTS of a hyrdraulic system
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Pump
Actuater Reservoir Tubing Selector valve |
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What does NALCOMIS stand for
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Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System.
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What does OOMA stand for
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Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity
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What makes up the foundation tier of ooma
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Maintenance subsystems
material subsytems flight subsystems platform softwarer interface cm/logs and records subsystem |
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What does ooma track
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NMCS/PMCS status
Flyable Discrepancies Non-aircraft related discrepancies ALSS status SE Status Mission Mounted Equipment |
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What is a JCN
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9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection
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What is a WUC
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work unit code. it identifies the system or subsystem
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what are the types of work orders
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dm-discrepancy
ts-troubleshooting cm-cannivalization ad-assist maintenance fo-facilitate other maint. cl-conditional look cf-conditional fix sx-special inspection only one wc sc-special inspection td-technical directive |
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What are the six basic core capabilities that the navy address
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forward presence
deterence sea control power projection maritime security humanitarian assistance |
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What is HSC
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helicopter sea combat
perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures |
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What is HSM
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Helicopter Maritime Strike
Anti sub and anti surface |
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What is HT
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Helicopter Training
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What is VAQ
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Tactical electronc warfare
exploit surpress degrade enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems |
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What is VAW
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Carrier Airborne Early Warning
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What is VC
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Fleet Composite
provides simulations or target towing |
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What is VFA
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Strike Fighter
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What is VP
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Patrol
anti sub, anti surface, reconnaissance and mining |
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what is VQ
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Fleet Air Reconnaissance
Provide electromagnetic warfare support of radiated electromagnetic energy |
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What is VR
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Aircraft Logistics support
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whats is VRC
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Carrier logistics support
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What is VT
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Training
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what is VX/VXE
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Air Test and Evaluation
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what are the six categories of hazmat
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(F)lammable
(A)erosol (T)oxic (C)orrosive (O)xidizing (C)ompressed gas |
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What should be included for all hands training on hazmat
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types of hazmat
what HAZWASTE is and how to dispose of it What an MSDS is and where to find it Emergency Procedures |
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What are the general steps for a HAZMAT spill
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Discovery
Notification Initiation of action Evaluation Containment Damage control Dispersion of gases Clean up Disposal Certificiation for re-entry Follow-up reports |
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What type of roof system do our hangars have
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Column free front cantilevered
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What type hangar is primarily used for carriers
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Type 1 and is 235' by 85'
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What type of hangar is used for marine corps aircraft
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Type II and is 119' by 325'
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what type of hangar is for land based patrol
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Type III 165' by 165'
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What are the hangar protection requirements
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AFFF
Closed head water only overhead Optical detection appropriate drainage system draft curtains |
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What part of the p-3 is not made of metal
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nose and aft radomes and aircraft wingtips
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where is corrosion usually located
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along the seams of the alloy structures
in box beam skin areas around plated steel fasteners. |
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what are the sections of the wings
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center - built as an intergal part of the fuesalge
outer wing - consist of wing flaps,leading and trailing edge,wingtips, and ailerons and nacelles. |
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what kind of flaps does the p3 have
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high-lift fowler type and powered by hydraulics.
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what are the flight controls consist of
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Rudder - move about the vertical axis
ailerons - control the aircraft roll, move in opposite directions elevators - move the aircraft up and down |
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what kind of landing gear does the p3 have
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two main gears and a nose gear that are forward retracting.
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what is the primary job of the struts
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absorbs the shock that otherwise be sustained by the aircraft
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how many access points are there on the p-3
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the p3 has 5 access points
2 in the flight station 2 in the mid body 1 aft of the port wing |
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what are the hazard areas associated with the engine
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propeller area
propeller jet blast area |
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what type of engines does the p3 have
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it has four T56-A-14 engines with four 54H60-77 props
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What type of propeller does the p3 have
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variable pitch constant speed hydromatic prop
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What does feather mean in relation to the prop
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meaning the blades are laid flat to reduce drag
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how many fuel tanks does the p3 have
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5 tanks, one for each engine located in the wing behind respectable engine and one aux tank located in the fuselage
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What are the two methods the p3 is fueled
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center point pressure fueling and over the wing gravity
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what is the total fuel capacity of the p3
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9200 gallons
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what is the bleed air system used for
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bomb bay heating
engine anti ice wing de ice oil cooler augmentation cross engine starting |
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what stage of the compressor is bleed air taken from
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14th stage (diffuser)
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What is the APU
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gas turbine engine, and an engine driven generator used for engine starting and ground air-conditioning as well as electrical power
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how many pumps does the p3 hyrdaulic system have
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3 electrically (ac) driven pumps
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How are the hyrdaulics cooled
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through heat transfer from the #2 and #3 fuel tanks
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how many hydraulic reservoirs does the p3 have
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2
system #1 holds 5.6 gallons system #2 holds 1 gallon |
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what are the booster assemblies for
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designed so the pilot has a normal feel of control forces
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What is an electrical shock
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when a current passes through the human body
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what is voltage
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electrical force, which causes current to flow in a circuit
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what is current
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the movement of electrical charge
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What is Amperage
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The strength of an electrical current
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what is resistance
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cause opposition to the flow
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what are hertz
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electrical unit of frequency equal to one cycle per second
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what is a bus
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a distribuition point in an aircraft electrical system
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how many generators does the p3 have
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four
one on engines 2,3,4 and one on the apu |
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what is different about the apu generator
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it has a cooling bell housing
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What are the sensing relays
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used to connect and control power to the buses, they are identical and interchangeable and do not energize unless the generator voltage and frequency are correct
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how many voltage regulators are there
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4 in the main load center
they are identical and provides control of the generator and connects it to the bus |
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How can you tell if radar is on
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wing and tail lights on, top and bottom red anti collision and taxi lights on.
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what is the radar stand off
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75' from aps 115
250' from aps 137 |
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what are the two types of electro-optics (EO)
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IRDS - infrared detection system
AIMS - advanced Imaging Multispectral sensor (taking over from irds) |
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What is SASP
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Single Advanced Signal Processer - it is used to classify submerged submarines.
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What is MAD
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Magnetic Anomaly Detection - it detects submarines by measuring changes anomalies
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What are ESM's
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elecronic support measures - detects and analyzes radar signals and measures their bearing
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What is the OTPI
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On-Top Position Indicator - it enables the receiver to provide bearing to a selected sonobouy
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What are the display systems used to navigate and maintain attitude
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Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) or EHSI (Elctronic)
Flight Director System (FDS) or EFDS Flight Directory Indicator (FDI) Wet Compass |
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What is ADF
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Automatic Direction Finder - it is used for routine point-to-point radio navigation
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What is TACAN
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Tatical Air Navigation- it is a self contained all weather worldwide navigation system that is independent of ground based navaids
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What is FMS
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Flight Management System allows aircrew to use GPS as a primary means of navigation for required navigation performance
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What is ICS
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intercommunications System - used to to proivde communication inside the aircraft. there are 12 headsets, one for each station one for the ordance station and one in the nose wheel well
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What is UHF
What is VHF What is Hf |
Ultra High Frequency
Very High Frequency High Frequency - does not require line of sight |
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What is MINI-DAMA
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miniaturized demand assigned multiple access. used as a satellite communication system that supports the exchange of secure battle group communication
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What is RADAR
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Radio Detection and Ranging it is used to detect objects using radio waves
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What is ISAR
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inverse synthetic aperture radar it is a radar system that generates true, recognizable, two dimensional images of any selected ship or target.
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What is the difference between active and passive buoys
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active transmits a pulse of sound that will echo where passive listens to all sounds
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What is a special purpose buoy
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bathythermograph which measure the ocean temp
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how many sunobuoy launch tubes are there
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48 visible bottom 3 pressurized and 1 free fall
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how many parachutes does the p3 have
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21 thin pack parachutes
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what survival equpiment is available to the crew
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life vests
life rafts (3) fire axe fixed o2 (3) portable o2 (7) first aid kit (2) fire extinguisher (3) anti exposure suit emergency destruction kit sar kit EEBD |
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How many fire extinguishers does the p3 have
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three
1 - forward aisle by navcom 2 - by the sonobouy racks 3 - by the galley |
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how many engine fire bottles does the p3 have
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5
2 in each wheel well for each engine, they can be transfered to adjacent engine on same side of wing 1 in the APU |
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What is the mission commander
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person responsible for all phases of the mission, he shall direct a coordinated plan of action and be responsible for the effectiveness of the flight
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What is the patrol plane commander
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Takes over mission commander responsibilites if one is not assigned. he is also responsible for the effectivness of the aircraft and crerw for all matters affecting flight. shall coordinate with the taco for positioning the aircraft
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what is the patrol plane pilot
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in charge of assisting the patrol plane commander in preparing the crew for flight and ascerting readiness for flight of the aircraft and systems. Flies the aircraft all times the pilot is away.
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what is the patrol plane copilot
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acts as relief for the ppc or ppp during extended flight. he shall also assist the ppp
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What is the flight engineer
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the fe is directly responsible to the pilot. performs exterior and interior checks of the aircraft and monitors engine and system flight station controls in flight.
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What is the TACCO
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Tactical coordinator, the function is to emply appropriate tactics and procedures. he is also responsible for safe and accurate navigation
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What is the NAVCOM officer
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Navigation/communication - maintains an accurate record of present and past positions, insert navigation fly to points and maintain an accurate record of flight.
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What is the Acoustic operator
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they detect, classify and report contact data
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Who is the EWO
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Electronic warfare operator, supports the mission by utilizating RADAR, ESM, MAD, IRDS, and IFF systems and subsystems to detect and analyze targets
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What is the SOFRO
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Safety of Flight Radar Operator - provides weather, terrain and aircraft avoidance
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What is Strike warfare
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The use of conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore
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what is a SAR mission
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Search and Rescue
the p3 has a sar kit which consists of two seven man rafts and an emergency equpiment container |
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What is an ASW mission
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Anti Submarine hunter/killer mission. the goal is to prevent the effectivenss of submarines
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what is an INTEL/Surveillance Reconnaissance mission
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utilizes EO, RADAR, IFF, ESM, IRDS, SASP to collect and anayze pertinent data for information about enemy forces.
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What is BAMS
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a high altitude, long endurance UAV designed to provide maritime surveilance to naval and joint forces.
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What is the Capabilities of BAMS
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Enhanced battlefield awareness
Long dwell time persistent revist of targets communications relay |
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what is defined as logistics
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the resupply of combat consumables to forces during operations to make forces as independent as possible
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What is AIP
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Anti-surface warfare inprovement program
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How wide is the p3
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99' 8"
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How long is the p3
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116' 10"
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How tall is the p3
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34' 3"
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What does T56-A-14
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T . . . . . . . Turbine (turboprop in this case)
56 . . . . . ..Navy sponsored arbitrary even number after 30 A . . . . . .. .Manufacturer (Allison) 14 . . . . . Seventh model (Navy) Navy model numbers begin with 2 and continue with consecutive even numbers |
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What does 54H60-77 mean
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5—Indicates the number of major changes.
4—Indicates the number of blades. H—Describes the blade shank size. (The use of a LETTER here also indicates that the blades are made of aluminum. 60—Indicates the spline size of the propeller shaft. 77—Indicates minor modifications made to the propeller |
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What does INS stand for
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Inertial Navigation System
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How large are threshold markings
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12 feet by 150 feet
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how often does the airfield rotating beacon rotate
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12-15 times per minute
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how many aircraft did the navy/usmc lose in 1950
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776 or 2 per day or a rate of 54 per 10,000 flight hours
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how many life rafts are on the p-3
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3
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what is mopp level 1
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gear readily available
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what is mopp level 2
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Mask carried, decon supplies staged
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what is mopp level 3
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General quarters, install filters, don over boots
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What is mopp level 4
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don mask/hood, gloves, circle william, countermeasure washdown
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Who is in charge of the namp
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CNO
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