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148 Cards in this Set

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Anticholinergic drugs used in Parkinson's Disease
1. Benztropine (Cogentin)
2. Trihexyphenidyl (Artane)

Improves TREMOR

Side Effects: cycloplegia, constipation, dry mouth, tachycardia, and urinary retention

Older patients: memory loss, confusion, hallucinations, dysphoria, lethargy, and a frank toxic psychosis
What is Amantadine?
Amantadine (Symmetrel)

antiviral drug with unknown MOA; increases synaptic levels of dopamine by increasing release of dopamine from pre-synaptic terminals; mild anticholinergic effects

also has ability to block glutaminergic NMDA receptors

is NOT metabolized and is excreted through the kidneys; NOT for patients with renal failure

Unique adverse effect: Livedo reticularis- purplish mottling of the skin

Limited duration of action- 6-9 months
Name the Direct Acting Dopamine Receptor Agonists
1. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
2. Pramipexole (Mirapex)
3. Ropinirole (Requip)
4. Apomorphine (Apokyn)
5. Rotigotine (Neupro)
What is Bromocriptine?
Bromocriptine (Parlodel)

Direct-Acting Dopamine Receptor Agonist

Potent D2 receptor agonist and D1 receptor antagonist

Adverse effects: orthostatic hypotension, nausea, vomiting, hallucinations, peripheral edema

May be combined with levodopa
No. 1 reason for discontinuing use of Bromocriptine?
Hallucinations 10-30% of patients
What is Pramipexole?
Pramipexole (Mirapex)

Direct-Acting Dopamine Receptor Agonist

non-ergot dopaminergic agonist with high affinity for D2 receptors; also activate D3 receptors

Can be used with or without levodopa

excreted unchanged in the urine

rarely associated with orthostatic hypotension, but hallucinations are more common

Sudden sleep attacks possible with all dopamine agonists
What is Ropinirole?
Ropinirole (Requip)

Direct-Acting Dopamine Receptor Agonist

non-ergot dopaminergic agonist with high affinity for D2 receptors; also activate D3 receptors

Can be used with or without levodopa

metabolized in the liver to inactive metabolites by CYP1A2 and excreted in urine

Adverse effects: syncope

Sudden sleep attacks possible with all dopamine agonists
What is Apomorphine?
Apomorphine (Apokyn)

non-ergot dopamine agonist injected SC for hypomotility ("off episodes") in advanced PD

has affinity for D1-D5 receptors

take with the anti-emetic trimethobenzamide (Tigan)

contraindicated with ondasteron and other 5-HT3 receptor antagonists

Hypersexuality and increased erection can occur

contains sodium metabisulfite and can cause allergic reactions in patients allergic to sulfites
Which Parkinson's drug has sodium metabisulfite and should not be given to patient with sulfite allergies?
Apomorphine (Apokyn)

Rotigotine (Neupro)
What anti-emetic should be used with Apomorphine?
trimethobenzamide (Tigan)

NO 5-HT3 antagonists (ondasteron, etc.)
What is Rotigotine?
Rotigotine (Neupro)

non-ergot dopamine agonist that primarily activates D2 receptors

Transdermal Patch

taken off the market due to crystallization of the patch

contains sodium metabisulfite; NOT okay for sulfite allergies
What are some advantages of DA agonists compared to L-Dopa in PD?
1. No competition with dietary amino acids for GI uptake or BBB transfer
2. No need for CNS metabolizing pathways to activate drug
3. Increased reliability of dose-by-dose effects
4. Increased potency compared to dopamine at D2 receptors
5. Wide therapeutic windo for antiparkinsonian effects
6. Decreased risk of dyskinesias and long-term motor fluctuations
7. Metabolsim does NOT proceed via monoamine oxidase and therefore neurotoxic reactive oxygen species are less likely to be produced

But they have more mental disturbances
What else can Dopamine agonists be used to treat besides Parkinson's Disease?
Restless leg syndrome (RLS)

dopamine agonist inhibits the release of more DA; need to decrease DA in RLS
Name the reversible COMT inhibitors
1. Tolcapone (Tasmar)
2. Entacapone (Comtan)
What is Tolcapone?
Tolcapone (Tasmar)

reversible COMT inhibitor in both the periphery and CNS

allows for increased levels of levodopa to be delivered centrally

Explosive Diarrhea, hepatoxoicity, bright yellow discoloration of urine
What is Entacapone?
Entacapone (Comtan)

reversible COMT inhibitor only in the periphery

Adverse effects: abdominal pain and discomfort, less diarrhea and no elevation of liver function tests
What is the most common reason patients discontinue Tolcapone?
explosive diarrhea
Drugs used in PD that selectively inhibits MAO-B
Selegiline (Eldepryl)
Rasagiline (Azilect)
What is Selegiline?
Selegiline (Eldepryl)

Selective inhibitor of MAO-B which increases synaptic concentrations of dopamine

selegiline is metabolized into amphetamine and methamphetamine which may produce insomnia and drug has mild mood elevation effects

efficacy of selegiline lasts only months when used as monotherapy

side effects more likely when combined with levodopa

decreases hydroxyl radical formation and might protect dopaminergic cells from free radical destruction
What is Rasagiline?
Rasagiline (Azilect)

selective MAO-B inhibitor

5 times more potent than selegiline

NOT metabolized to amphetamine-like substances

less likely to produce insomnia

metabolized by CYPA12

may protect dopaminergic cells from free radical destruction
an involuntary oscillation of a body part produced by alternating or synchronous contractions of reciprocally innervated antagonistic muscles
Tremor
stereotypic, repetitive movements that can at least be partially suppressed by volitional control
Tic
rapid, flick-like movements of the limbs and facial muscles that may resemble normal restlessness or fidgeting
Chorea
slow, writhing movements of the fingers and hands, and sometimes the toes and feet
Athetosis
violent, flailing movements involving proximal parts of the limb
Ballismus
How to treat Postural Tremor?
Propranolol

associated with hyperadrenergic states

appears to be generated and abated by alterations of peripheral adrenergic systems
How to treat Essential Tremor?
thought to be generated in the CNS

1. Metoprolol or Propranolol
2. Primidone or Topiramate
3. Ethanol
4. Alprazolam or botulinium toxin
What is Tardive Dyskinesia?
drug-induced (iatrogenic) disorder that occurs in 10-20% of institutionalized patients taking anti-psychotic medication

may be due to supersensitivity (upregulation) of postsynaptic dopamine D2 receptors

increase in dose suppresses disorder; anticholinergic agents will exacerbate the disorder

Treatment:
GABA agonists
benzodiazepines
sodium valproate
tocopherol (Vit E)


Clozapine and thioridazine are "atypical" antipsychotics that do not cause Tardive Dyskinesia
What are frequent signs of Tardive Dyskinesia?
FACE: blepharospams, tremor of upper lip, pouting, puckering, smacking of lips, chewing movements, sucking movements, buccal pressing of tongue, tongue protrusion

NECK: retrocollis, spasmodic torticollis

TRUNK: axial hyperkinesias, Torsion or athetotic movements

EXTREMITIES: Ballistic movements, chorea of hands or toes, athetosis, rotation and flexion of ankles

OTHER: grunting vocalizations, asynchronous breathing, myoclonus
What is Wilson's Disease?
inherited disorder of copper accumulation; reflection of copper toxicity

biological marker is the deficiency of serum ceruloplasmin

Wilson's disease patients are unable to carry out biliary excretion

human chromosome 13 is defective in coding for Wilson-ATPase therefore there is a decrease in clearance of copper

autosomal recessive disorder

Dysarthria- speech disorder in which pronunciation is unclear (universal manifestation of the disease)

Treatment: Penicillamine, Potassium, trientine, zinc acetate, and zince sulfate
What is Tourette's
Syndrome?
multiple motor tics and vocalizations; coprolalia (inappropriate uttering of obscenities); echophenomena (copying behaviors, repeating words of others); and obsessive compulsive phenomena

Treatment:
Haloperidol
Pimozide
Clonidine- best to treat tics
Fluphenazine
Botulinium toxin A
A disturbance of such magnitude that there is personality disintegration and possibly loss of reality
Psychosis
Disorder of emotion, feeling, or mood and are subdivided as mania, unipolar depression, and bipolar affective disorder
Affective Disorders
great psychomotor activity, excitement, rapid passing of ideas, and unstable attention; euphoria, irritability, accompanied by inflated self esteem
mania
patient that is depressed without a history of mania. accompanying feelings of sadness and low self esteem
Unipolar depression
depressed patient with a history of at least one manic episode
Bipolar affective disorder
loss of contact with the environment and a disintegration of personality
Schizophrenia

4 Types:
Simple (lack of emotion)
Paranoid (delusion of persecution)
Catatonic (negativeness, excitement, and stupor)
Hebephrenic (hysteric symptoms)
A psychological or behavior disorder in which anxiety is the primary characteristic.Does NOT have gross distortions of reality or disorganization of personality
Neurosis
Positive vs Negative Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Positive:
hallucinations
delusions
agitation, tension
paranoia
associational
disturbances
insomnia
illusions delusions

Negative: (absense of normal behavior)
Amotivation
poor social skills
anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure)
Alogia (limited spontaneous conversation)
Poverty of speech
Blunted effect
Poor grooming and hygiene
Describe the 3 component model of schizophrenia
1. psychotic symptoms (D1 and D2)
2. negative symptoms (D1)
3. cognitive and attentional impairment
area of brain most responsible for thinking; disfunction of this area may lead to negative symptoms
prefrontal cortex
an integrated cluster of nerve cells and their fibers, which help regulate affective behavior (feelings), memory, hormonal secretion, and other behaviors or functions relevant to schizophrenia
limbic-midbrain system
part of brain responsible for coordinating involuntary muscle activity
extrapyramidal motor system
what is the key integrative unit of the prefrontal cortex?
Pyramidal neuron

impaired functioning leads to negative symptoms of schizophrenia

PFC regulates limbic structure; therefore, affecting the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
What type of Dopamine recepters dominate in the PFC?
D1 receptors outnumber D2 receptors by a ratio of 10:1
What does D1 receptor activation in the PFC do?
D1 receptor activation seems to suppress the response to weak, temporally incoherent excitatory inputs, while augmenting the response to maintained, synchronized inputs.

Treatment which increases activation of D1 receptors in the PFC, will likewise improve the integrative capacity of surviving PFC pyramidal neurons, and theoretically, would be effective in alleviating the symptoms of schizophrenia

*Modulatory effect*
The higher the affinity of an antipsychotic for D2-like receptors, the more POTENT the agent is in controlling the __________ symptoms of schizophrenia
Positive symptoms

conventional antipsychotics have little effect on PFC pyramidal neurons because of the small number of D2 receptors in this region. hence their actions are primarily limited to their D2 like receptor blocking actions in the mesolimbic system.... thus effective in treating positive symptoms but poor in alleviating negative symptoms
What causes positive symptoms of schizophrenia vs negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Positive- disinhibition of the mesolimbic system

Negative- loss of brain mass
What is the glutamate hypothesis of schizophrenia?
Theory that focusses on a critical glutamate receptor subtype- NMDA receptor

release of glutamate and the activation of NMDA receptor are required for normal development of the CNS

DA, NE, and 5-HT are all known to modulate glutamingergic neurotransmission
What drugs can produce a psychotic state in humans which resembles both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
Phencyclidine (PCP, angel dust)

Ketamine (Special K)
What is the limbic structure that has been the focus of intensive investigation with regards to the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
Nucleus accumbens (NAc)

blockade of D2 receptors in the NAc is primarily responsible for controlling positive symptoms
Describe the reentrant circuit involving the dorsal striatum
Cortex
Caudate putamen (dorsal striatum)
dorsal pallidum
thalamus
back to motor cortex
Describe the reentrant circuit involving the ventral striatum
PREFRONTAL CORTEX
nucleus accumbens (ventral striatum)
ventral pallidum
thalamus (mediodorsal nucleus)
back to prefrontal cortex
Conventional vs Atypical Antipsychotics
Conventional- approved before 1975 and act primarily by antagonizing D2 like dopamine receptors

Atypical- 1990 and after; action on5-HT2 receptors as well as D2 like receptors
Name the Conventional Antipsychotics
Phenothiazines:
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Thioridazine (Mellaril)
Thiothixene (Navane)
Trifluoroperazine (Stelazine)
Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
Perphenazine (Trilafon)
Mesoridazine (Serentil)


Haloperidol (Haldol)
Loxapine (Loxitane)
Molindone (Moban)
Name the Atypical Antipsychotics
Clozapine (clozaril)
Risperidone (Risperdal)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Quetiapine (Seroquel)
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
Paliperidone (Invega)
Iloperidone (Fanapt)
Asenapine (Saphris)
Lurasidone (Latuda)
Describe Phenothiazines
3 types of substitutions on phenothiazine ring structure:

1. Aliphaitc
2. Piperidine
3. Piperazine (most potent)

potent antagonists as D2, D3, and D4 dopamine receptors
What is chlorpromazine?
Chlorpromazine (CPZ, Thorazine)

Phenothiazine with
Aliphatic substitution

potent blockade of alpha 1 and H1 receptors (orthostasis and sedation)

moderate EPS

Used for: agitated schizophrenics
What is thioridazine?
thioridazine (Mellaril)

Phenothiazine with N incorporation into a piperidine ring

used parenterally

blocks alpha1 and H1 (orthostasis and sedation)

potent antimuscarinic (Most anticholinergic)

Least amount of EPS amonst typical antipsychotics
What is mesoridazine?
mesoridazine (Serentil)

Phenothiazine with N incorporation into a piperidine ring

used parenterally

blocks alpha1 and H1 (orthostasis and sedation)

potent antimuscarinic (Most anticholinergic)

Least amount of EPS amonst typical antipsychotics
What is fluphenazine
fluphenazine (Prolixin)

Phenothiazine with N incorporation into a piperazine ring

insignificant sedative effects; less orthostasis and cholinergic effects

Used for: depressed or withdrawn schizophrenics

HIGH incidence of EPS

best anti-emetic activity

Potency:
fluphenazine> thiothixene> trifluoroperazine> perphenazine
What is thiothixene
thiothixene

Phenothiazine with N incorporation into a piperazine ring

insignificant sedative effects; less orthostasis and cholinergic effects

Used for: depressed or withdrawn schizophrenics

HIGH incidence of EPS

best anti-emetic activity

Potency:
fluphenazine> thiothixene> trifluoroperazine> perphenazine
What is trifluoroperazine
Trifluoroperazine (Stelazine)

Phenothiazine with N incorporation into a piperazine ring

insignificant sedative effects; less orthostasis and cholinergic effects

Used for: depressed or withdrawn schizophrenics

HIGH incidence of EPS

best anti-emetic activity

Potency:
fluphenazine> thiothixene> trifluoroperazine> perphenazine
What is perphenazine
perphenazine (Trilafon)

Phenothiazine with N incorporation into a piperazine ring

insignificant sedative effects; less orthostasis and cholinergic effects

Used for: depressed or withdrawn schizophrenics

HIGH incidence of EPS

best anti-emetic activity

Potency:
fluphenazine> thiothixene> trifluoroperazine> perphenazine
What is the MOA of Phenothiazines/Thioxanthenes and the Other Conventional Antipsychotics?
They increase dopamine turnover in the CNS via their ability to block autoreceptors on dopaminergic neurons

takes several weeks to develop full antipsychotic effects because it takes time for the disinhibited presynaptic dopaminergic neurons lose their ability to fire because they become "exhausted"

depolarization block

D2 receptors remain blocked

projections from VTA do not undergo depolarization block which means dopaminergic neurotransmission to the PFC is preserved

D1 activation in the PFC is beneficial in treating schizophrenia
What causes the high incidence of EPS with Phenothiazines?
depolarization block of the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra decreases the dopamine content in the caudate-putamen (striatum)
What is akathisia?
motor restlessness, muscular quivering, and the inability to remain in a sitting position

side effect of Conventional antipsychotics
Which antipsychotic is the most cardiotoxic and can cause ventricular fibrillation?
Thioridizine

prolongs QT interval

(conventional antipsychotic)
What is the maximum dose of Thioridazine?
800mg/day dose limit with thioridazine or blindness may occur due to toxic pigment deposits in the retina (irreversible)
Which conventional antipsychotic has the least weight gain?
Molindone
Which antipsychotics lower seizure threshold?
Aliphatic and Piperidine compounds are most likely to have this effect

Clozapine is the agent most likely to cause seizures
How to treat Pseudo-parkinsonism
Pseudo-parkinsonism- akinesia, tremor, rigidity

oral anticholinergic drugs:

benzotropine
trihexylphenidyl
diphenhydramine

or

amantadine
How to treat Dystonia
Dystonia- spasms involving the head, neck, trunk, and extremities

Parenteral anticholinergics:
benztropine
trihexylphenidyl
diphenhydramine

or

diazepam
How to treat Akathisia
Akathisea- state of extreme motor restlessness and drive to move

propranolol
benzodiazepines
amantadine
How to treat Perioral tremor
Perioral Tremor- rabbit syndrome, late-appearing form of pseudo-parkinsonism

Anticholinergic agents:
benztropine
trihexylphenidyl
diphenhydramine
How to treat Tardive Dyskinesia?
Tardive Dyskinesia- stereotyped, repetitive, involuntary movements of the mouth, lips, tongue, and choreiform movements of the limbs and body

AVOID anticholinergic drugs

switch to clozapine, switch to atypical, benzodiazepines, calcium channel blockers

Tardive Dyskinesia is a major problem with the use of conventional anti-psychotic drugs
How to treat Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome- catatonia, stupor, fever, unstable blood pressure, myoglobinemia, can be fatal

stop neuroleptic immediately; dantrolene or bromocriptine may help; antiparkinsonian agents not effective
Which medication is most likely and least likely to cause Tardive Dyskinesia?
Haloperidol= most likely

Thioridazine= least likely
This is the Extrapyramidal Effect Description of what?

akinesia, muscle rigidity, shuffling gait, drooling, mask-like face, tremor of extremities
Parkinsonian symptoms
This is the Extrapyramidal Effect Description of what?

Oculogyrics crisis (fixed upward stare), Torticollis (unilateral spasm of neck muscles), Opisthotonus (arched back), Trismus, larngospasm (spasm of muscles in jaw,throat)
Dystonic Reactions
This is the Extrapyramidal Effect Description of what?

Motor restlessness, inability to sit or stand still, rocking and shifting of weight while standing
Akathisia
This is the Extrapyramidal Effect Description of what?

Rhythmic clonic musculature contractions such as spasms, tics, involuntary muscle movements
Dyskinesias
This is the Extrapyramidal Effect Description of what?

Rhythmical, involuntary movement of tongue, lips, or jaw, choreiform movements of extremities, athetoid movements of extremities (writhing, worm-like movements)
Tardive Dyskinesia
Which conventional anti-psychotic is the most potent?
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Name the Conventional Butyrophenones
Butyrophenones:

1. Haloperidol (Haldol)
2. Droperidol
What is Haloperidol?
Haloperidol (Haldol)

Butyrophenone Class of Conventional Antipsychotic

extrapyramidal effects are common; very potent D2 dopamine receptor antagonist

also has alpha 1 blocking activity therefore can cause orthostatic hypertension

alleged to have anti-agitation properties and has been used in emergency situations to calm violent or highly agitated patients
What is Droperidol?
Droperidol

butyrophenone derivative used mainly as a preanesthetic medication

Droperidol + fentanyl= INNOVAR
What is Pimozide?
Pimozide

Diphenylbutyropiperdine (typical antipsychotic)

less sedation than haloperidol

orphan drug to treat Tourette's Syndrome (biggest use)
What is Loxapine?
Loxapine (Loxitane)

Typical Antipsychotic

Chemical type: Dibenzoxepine

High incidence of EPS; about 10 times more potent than CPZ
Which Typical agents also have 5HT-2A blocking activity?
Chlorpromazine (CPZ)
Loxapine (Loxitane)
What is Molindone?
Molindone (Moban)

Dihydroindolone class of typical agents

high incidence of EPS with perhaps higher incidence of akithisia than other antipsychotics

little or no weight gain

does NOT lower seizure threshold (seizure is less likely)
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Atypical antipsychotics?
Advantages:
treats both positive and negative symptoms
produces less EPS
improves cognitive effects more effectively
less elevation of serum prolactin

Disadvantages:
Hyperglycemia
Hyperlipidemia
Which Atypical antipsychotics are most likely to cause hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia?
Olanzepine
Clozapine
What is the effect of 5-HT-2A activation on heteroceptors?
inhibits DA release

blocking 5HT-2A heteroceptors increases DA release
What is Ritanserin?
pure 5HT-2A antagonist that combined with conventional antipsychotic agents to improve negative symptoms

NOT effective when used alone
What is Clozapine?
Clozapine (Clozaril)

dibenzodiazepine antipsychotic drug which blocks D2 receptors in the mesolimbic-mesocortical system while having less D2 blocking activity in the extrapyramidal system

minimal EPS and lack of tardive dyskinesia

also has high affinity for D4 dopamine receptors found in the PFC, potent anticholingergic, and alpha 1 blocking agent

because of toxicity, only recommended for patients who have not responded adequately to standard antipsychotic drugs

Adverse Effects:
Agranylocytis (requires weekly blood count monitoring)
Seizures
Sedation

Black Box Warning:
Myocarditis
What is Resperidone?
Risperidone (Risperdal)

Qualitatively atypic antipsychotic agent

low incidence of EPS; treats positive and negative symptoms

*Most widely used single antipsychotic drug

blocks D2, 5-HT2, and alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

adverse effects: insomnia, agitation, anxiety, sedation, weight gain, sexual dysfunction, and difficulty concentrating; orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia can occur in the elderly

Most likely to produce elevated prolactin

Does NOT produce agranulocytosis, cardiac effects, or seizure induction

can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome
What is Paliperidone?
Paliperidone (Invega)

active metabolite of risperidone; first extended release antipsychotic to be marketed

60% renally eliminated

can cause elevated prolactin

longer half life, less side effects

high dose= EPS
What is Olanzapine?
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

clozapine analogue; low EPS; treats both positive and negative symptoms

blocks D2, 5-HT2, D1, D4, 5-HT3, alpha 1, and H1

Significant weight gain!

Highest propensity to produce hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia amonst atypical agents

once a day administration
What is Quetiapine?
Quetiapine (Seroquel)

Clozapine analogue; low potency antipsychotic

binds to 5-HT2a, D1, D2, alpha-1 receptors; low affinity for muscarinic receptors

less beneficial effects on negative symptoms than other atypicals

transcient prolactin elevations

requires multiple doses per day

Used as sleep inducer "expensive benedryl"

monotreatment of depressive phase of Bipolar
What is Ziprasidone?
Ziprasidone (Geodon)

atypical antipsychotic agent

antagonist at both D2 and 5HT2a/2c receptors; also agonist at 5HT1a receptors and antagonist at 5HT1b/1d; antagonizes H1

Potent inhibitor of NE and 5-HT reuptake

Side effects: transient prolactin elevation, less EPS, more nausea and vomiting, less weight gain, and prolongation of QTc interval

some orthostasis and minor sedation
What is Aripiprazole?
Aripiprazole (Abilify)

newest of the atypical antipsychotics

"dopamine system stabilizer" (DSS)

partial agonist at D2 and 5-HT1A receptors, antagonist at 5-HT2A receptors

Partial D2 receptor agonists serve as functional postsynaptic antagonists in the presence of excessive amounts of dopamine (only dopamine has full D2 agonist) thus they reduce dopaminergic neurotramission when dopamine is excessive in the limbic system

metabolized by CYP3A4 and CYP2D6

Side effects: nausea and vomiting due to partial agonism of D2 in CTZ)

Does NOT cause hyperprolactemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, or weight gain

Does NOT increase the QT interval
What is the Receptor Binding profile for the atypical antipsychotic Clozapine?
muscarinic= H1> alpha 1> 5HT2a> D4> D2> D1

most anticholinergic antipyschotic

significant weight gain, dose-related seizures, agranulocytosis, high sedation, sialorrhea (drooling), Myocarditis

Most effective agent in therapy of treatment-resistant schizophrenia
What is the Receptor Binding profile for the atypical antipsychotic Risperidone?
5HT2a> alpha 1> D2> D4>>D1

no antimuscarinic activity; very potent 5HT-2A receptor blockade

doses above 6-10 mg/day may produce EPS

has more prolactin elevations than any other atypical agent
What is the Receptor Binding profile for the atypical antipsychotic Olanzapine?
5HT2a> muscarinic> H1> D2> D4>D1= alpha 1

sedation, significant weight gain, greatest incidence of hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia
What is the Receptor Binding profile for the atypical antipsychotic Quetiapine?
H1> alpha 1> muscarinic> D2 = 5HT2a> D1> D4

weight gain

requires BID dosing
What is the Receptor Binding profile for the atypical antipsychotic Ziprasidone?
5HT2a> 5HT1d= 5HT1a> D2>alpha 1> D4> D1

no muscarinic activity; very potent 5-HT2a and D2 blockade

potent reuptake inhibitor of NE and 5-HT

contraindicated in combination with other agent that prolongs the QT interval

less weight gain
What is the Receptor Binding profile for the atypical antipsychotic Aripiprazole?
Aripiprazole

D2> 5HT2a> alpha a>> D4> D1

partial agonist at D2 receptors which essentially acts as a functional antagonist at D2 receptors

partial agonism of D2 in striatum produces less EPS

antagonism at 5HTsa receptors contributes to decreased incidence of EPS and treats negative symptoms

NO weight gain, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, nor hyperprolactemia
What atypical antipsychotics are most likely to cause weight gain and/or diabetes?
1. Clozapine
2. Olanzapine
What atypical antipsychotics are most likely to cause EPS and elevated prolactin?
1. Paliperidone
2. Rsperidone
Which atypical antipsychotic may cause QTc prolongation?
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
Which atypical antipsychotics are most likely to decrease weight gain?
1. Aripiprazole
2. Ziprasidone
What is Iloperidone?
Iloperidone (Fanapt)

atypical antipsychotic agent chemically related to risperidone

combines D2 and 5-HT2A antagonism; also has alpha 1 blocking activity

may prolong QTc interval
What is Asenapine?
Asenapine (Saphris)

sublingual Atypical antipsychotic for acute treatment of schizophrenia and manic or mixed episodes associated with bipolar disorder

antagonist at D2 and 5-HT2a and partial agonist at D1 and 5-HT1a receptors

also has high affinity for other dopamine and serotonin receptors as well as alpha and histamine receptors

low affinity for muscarinic receptors

may increase QTc interval
What is Lurasidone?
Lurasidone (Latuda)

atypical antipsychotic approved in 2010

D2 and 5HT2A receptor antagonist

metabolized by CYP3A4

80mg is max dose
Treatment of acute manic phase of bipolar disorder
Haloperidol
Relief of panic reactions and psychosis associated with illicit drug use
Haloperidol
Treatment of acute manic phase of bipolar disorder
Haloperidol
Antiemetic therapy
Phenothiazines
Treatment of acute manic phase of bipolar disorder
Haloperidol
Relief of panic reactions and psychosis associated with illicit drug use
Haloperidol
Treatment of Tourette's disorder
Haloperidol
or
pimpozide
Antiemetic therapy
Phenothiazines
Relief of panic reactions and psychosis associated with illicit drug use
Haloperidol
Antiemetic therapy
Phenothiazines
Treatment of Tourette's disorder
Haloperidol
or
pimpozide
Treatment of intractable hiccups
Perphenazine
or
Chlorpromazine
Treatment of Tourette's disorder
Haloperidol
or
pimpozide
Treatment of intractable hiccups
Perphenazine
or
Chlorpromazine
Treatment of intractable hiccups
Perphenazine
or
Chlorpromazine
What are the cardinal symptoms of Mania?
1. Psychomotor excitement
2. Euphoria
3. Flight of ideas
4. Delusions/Hallucinations
What are signs of depressive episode in Bipolar Disease?
1. Change in appetite and weight
2. Lethargy
3. Increased feeling of fear and guilt
4. Concentration difficulties and constant feeling of danger
5. Sad, often lonely feeling
6. Thoughts of death and suicide
What is a Hypomanic episode and its signs?
feeling of irritability and inflated self-esteem lasting over 4 days. similar to manic episode but there are less severe symptoms and no delusions or hallucinations. Does not usually affect a person's daily routine

1. Decrease need for sleep
2. Easily distracted
3. seeks exposure to highly pleasurable activities that have high risks
4. no sign of fatigue
5. moderate levels of euphoria and confidence
What are the signs of a manic episode?
period of heightened and irritable mood level lasting for as least 1 week

1. Difficulty concentrating
2. delusions, and in the most severe instances, hallucinations
3. Excessive self-confidence
4. Aggressive behavior and poor judgment
5. Changes in speech patterns
What are symptoms of Mixed Episode?
1. Suicidal thoughts
2. Extreme euphoric highs and feelings of despair
3. increased aggression
4. prolonged periods without sleep
Type 1 vs. Type 2 Bipolar Diagnosis Types
Type 1:
one or more manic episodes, major depressive episodes, episodes not due to medical condition or prior substance abuse, 90% recurrence in episodes, suicidal rate as high as 20%

Type 2:
one or more depressive episodes, no extremely heightened mood levels or emotions evident, often induced by substance abuse and prior medical conditions
What are indications for Lithium use?
1. treatment of acute manic episodes, or unipolar depressive states
2. prophylaxis of both manic and depressive episodes
3. treatment of alcoholism where depression is a major component of the disorder
4. management of violence and aggression, explosive personalities, and emotionally unstable character disorders

requires 4-10 days to exert its therapeutic effect

no sedation or tranquilization
Lithium vs neuroleptics
Lithium:
more specific antimanic effect
objective monitoring parameters (blood levels)
lack of adverse effects
lacks dysphoric sedative or tranquillized effect
also prophylactic
greater patient acceptance

Disadvantages of Lithium:
narrower therapeutic-toxic index
overdose harder to manage
requires more consistent patient compliance
slower onset
Which antipsychotics are used to treat manic episodes?
Aripiprazole
Olanzapine
MOA for Lithium?
inhibits the depolarization-evoked and Ca2+ dependent release of DA and NE, but NOT 5-HT from nerve terminals; infact Lithium enhances 5-HT release

prevents the supersensitivity of D2 receptors that occurs with chronic antipsychotic administration to animals

Lithium inhibits removal of the phosphate group from monophosphoinositol to generate inositol; inositol is usually recycled and regenerates PIP2 which yeilds IP3 and DAG

these PIP2 depleting effects are limited to the CNS
What are the Toxicyt and Side Effects associated with Lithium?
Narrow therapeutic index

Side effects when <1.5mEq/L:
gastrointestinal distress
polyuria and polydipsia
fine hand tremor
slight muscle weakness

Levels between 1.5-2.5 mEq/L:
Coars hand tremor
muscle hyperirritability
slurred speech
confusion or somnolence
profuse diarrhea

Levels >2.5 mEq/L:
deep tendon reflexes
irregular pulse
hypotension
epileptic seizure
stupor or coma

Renal, aggravtion of psoriasis and acne, weight gain, non-toxic goiter and /or hypothyroidism; leukocytosis

monitor blood levels of lithium every 1-2 months
What effects Lithim Levels in the body?
Na and diuretics

Lithium competes with sodium for reabsorption in the renal tubules; therefore, low na= high lithium and high Na= low Li levels

Lithium is NOT reabsorbed in the distal limb of the loop of Henle or beyond; therefore, thiazides do not directly affect lithium clearance

Thiazide diuretics can reduce lithium excretion by as much as 50%; reduce lithium dose if given with thiazides

Therapy with Loop Diuretics does not present this concern because of teh increased reabsorption of lithium in the proximal tubule is counteracted by increased excretion in the loop of henle

Co-administration of NSAIDS can increase lithium toxicity by inhibiting its excretion

should monitor lithium blood levels every 1-2 months
Name other drugs besides Lithium used to treat Bipolar Disorder
1. Valproate
2. Carbamazepine
3. Lamotrigine
4. Gabapentin
5. Topiramate
What is Divalproex sodium?
Divalproex sodium (Depakote/ Valproate)

treats manic episodes associated with Bipolar Dissorder

increases presynaptic concentrations of GABA, the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

better tolerated than Lithium

used to calm agitation or impulsive aggression in psychiatric patients
What is Carbamazepine?
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

used to treat mania and may be helpful in patients intolerant or nonresponsive to lithium or valproate

less effective at treatment of bipolar disorder compared to lithium

used to treat post-traumatic stress disorder, withdrawal from substance abuse, borderline personality disorder, and explosive behavior associated with head injury or developmental disability
What is Lamotrigine?
Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

used for treatment of bipolar depressive phase

effective in treatment of refractory mood episode in rapid and non rapid cycling patients

adverse effects: dizziness, ataxia, somnolence, blurred vision, and nystagmus; also severe life-threatening rashes including Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis can occur
What is Gapapentin?
Gabapentin (Neurontin)

Bipolar Treatment

less effective than lamotrigine on refractory mood disorders; promising results reported for patients with anxiety, social phobia, panic disorder, aggressive behavior and withdrawal from substance abuse

suitable as an add-on treatment
What is Topiramate?
Topiramate (Topamax)

has been used as a mood stabilizer and for treatment of binge-eating; it does not cause weight gain and may cause weight loss; cognitive impairment can occur