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127 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
higher the preload the greater the what?
amount of oxygen used by the heart muscles
(myocardial oxygen consumption)
drugs that lower BP leads to sympathetic _______ and parasympathetic ________ via the baroreceptor reflex
sympathetic stimulation

parasympathetic inhibition
insensitive baroreceptor mechanisms ________ the BP-lowering actrion of drugs
enhance
major adrenergic receptors involved in BP control
alpha1
alpha2
beta1
_________ are the major determinant of peripheral resistance?
arterioles
protease in the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arterioles in the kidney
Renin

major determinant of the rate of AII production
Women on birthcontrol pills tend to have an increase in BP due to what?
increased synthesis of angiotensinogen
enzyme located mainly in the endothelial cells of the vasculature; converts AI to AII
ACE

aka

Kininase II
Factors that stimulate the production and release of renin
beta-adrenergic stimulation (SNS activation)
decreased renal perfusion (intrarenal baroreceptor mechanisms)
decreased sodium intake
prostaglandins
besides the renin-ACE system, AII can also be produced how?
chymase
cathepsin
chymostain-sensitive AII-generating system
tissue plasminogen activator
tonin

therefore, inhibition of ACE may not completely suppress AII production
what happens to renin levels when the effects of AII are inhibited with an AII-AT1 receptor antagonist?
renin levels increase
AII effects besides vasoconstriction
a. ↑ aldosterone synthesis (↑ Na and H2O conservation)
b. ↑ Na, HCO3 reabsorption
c. ↑ SNS activity
d. ↑Ne and Endothelin-1 release
e. ↑ Thirst and vasopressin release
f. ↓ Renin release (negative feedback)
g. ↑ Filtration allowing protein in urine
h. contracts more selectively efferent than afferent arterioles
i. ↑ angiogenesis
j. plays a role in ovaries and testes (required for normal fetal growth)
mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex

sodium retaining-potassium, hydrogen, and magnesium ion-loosing hormone
Aldosterone

-increases number of active sodium channels in the luminal side of cells
- increases number of membrane bound Na-K ATPase on the basolateral side
-also has important effects on collagen formation and favors clotting
AII retains sodium through what 3 methods?
1. increase in aldosterone
2. increases sodium reabsorption on the proximal tubule
3. increases SNS activity
when renal perfusion pressure drops (low BP) the reabsorption of sodium is increased at the _________
proximal tubules
high _____ levels induce salt sensitivity
Angiotensin II (AII)
powerful vasoconstrictor peptide (21 aa) formed in and released from the endothelium
Endothelins
What increases the release of Endothelins?
1. AII
2. Hypoxia
3. Stress
______Receptor→ high affinity for ET-1 in vascular muscle causing vasoconstriction
______ Receptor→ same affinity for ET-1 and ET-3 in vascular endothelium leading to NO and prostanoid release
ETA Receptor→ high affinity for ET-1 in vascular muscle causing vasoconstriction
ETB Receptor→ same affinity for ET-1 and ET-3 in vascular endothelium leading to NO and prostanoid release
ETA Receptor Blockers (ERA)
ETA Receptor Blockers (ERA)
Bosaltan
Darusentan
Vascular smooth muscle has more or less depolarized resting potential than the skeletal and heart muscle?
Vascular smooth muscle has a more depolarized resting potential than the skeletal and heart muscle?

Vascular= -30
Heart Muscle=-70

Important because CCB bind with greater affinity to channels that are inactive/more depolarized

CCB have better affect on Vascular smooth muscle

Skeletal Muscle relies little on Calcium entry
How do Na/K blockers lower BP?
inhibiting Na/K ATPase causes an increase in intracelullar Na

Na/Ca2+ exchanger is then activated allowing Ca2+ in and Na+ out

increase in external Ca2+ is what contracts smooth muscle, SA, and AV nodes= increasing HR and constricting vessels
vasodilator produced by the vascular endothelium
Nitric Oxide
Release of NO stimulated by?
a. Hypoxia
b. Increased Blood flow
c. Bradykinin
d. Histamine
e. Serotonin
f. Arachidonic acid
g. ADP/ATP
h. Substance P
i. Ach
j. Thrombin
NO is formed from?
l-arginine in the prescence of eNOS (endothelial NO synthase)
How does Sildenafil (Viagra) work?
Sildenafil blocks Phosphodiesterase activity which allows for cGMP not to be destroyed= vasodilation= erection
arteriolar and venodilator that increases production of cGMP, but can only be given thru IV. Once reacting with hemoglobin it turns into cyanomethemoglobin and cyanide ion and metabolized to thiocyanate; decomposes in light
Sodium Nitroprusside

Used for hypertensive emergencies and congestive heart failure
endothelium independent vasodilators that donate NO to tissues
Organic Nitrates

(Nitroglicerine, isosorbide dinitrate)

Endothelium independent vasodilators
does not induce smooth muscle relaxation via NO- endothelium independent mechanism; PGE2 and PGI2 activate adenylate cyclase increasing intracellular cAMP.
Prostaglandin
what does PGI2 do?

what does Thromboxane do?

Whast does Prostaglandin F2 alpha do?
PGI2→ inhibits platelet aggregation
Thromboxane→ favors platelet aggregation
Prostaglandin F2 alpha → vasoconstrictor
peptides with vasodilator action that lower BP by inducing vasodilation and getting rid of water and sodium, inhibit aldosterone secretion and decrease renin secretion
Atrial Natriuretic Factors

ANP, BNP, CNP, DNP
ANF vs NO
ANF- act by activating membrane-bound guanylate cyclase

NO- diffuse through membrane and acts on cytoplasmic enzyme
What are phosphodiesterases?
enzymes that degrade cAMP and cGMP
Affect of cAMP on:

Skeletal Muscle

Heart
Skeletal Muscle- relaxation

Heart- contraction
What is dyspnea?
Shortness of breath
What is nocturia?
high volume of urination at night
Ranges for:

Normal
Pre-Hypertensive
Hypertensive
Normal: <120/<80
Pre-Hypertensive: 120-139/ 80-89
Hypertensive: >140/ >90
Metabilic syndrome
Obesity, hyperlipidemia, elevated glucose, hyperinsulinemia, and hypertension
more than 11 million americans have both _________ and _________
hypertension and diabetes mellitus
major goal of treatment is to?
prevent target-organ damange and to reduce the rate of adverse cardiovascular events
Normal BP
Pre
Stage 1
Stage 2
Normal BP: <120/80
Prehypertension: 120-139/ 80-89
Stage 1Hypertension: 140-159/ 90-99
Stage 2 Hypertension: >160/100
causes for secondary hypertension
renal disease
renovascular disease
drug-induced hypertension
pheochromocytoma
endocrine tumors
• First-line drug for uncomplicated essential hypertension
Diuretics and beta-blockers
ACEI are drugs of choice for patients with what conditions?
diabetes mellitus
diabetic nephropathy
myocardial infarction
chronic kidney disease
increase risk for coronary artery disease
• Drug used for post MI/Ischemic heart disease
Beta-blockers
• Drugs used for indication for secondary prevention of strokes
Diuretics and ACEI
Elderly and AA are more sensitive to what type of antihypertensive drugs?
Diuretics

NOT ACEI, AII-ATi (ARB), renin inhibitors, beta-blockers
Caucasians respond well to?
Beta-blockers
People with high salt diets are less sensitive to what type of HT drug?
ACEI
ARB
Beta-Blockers
who experiences excessive drop in BP with antihypertensives?
Elderly with poor compensatory mechanisms

and

patients with low circulating volume
AA and Asians have more complications (cough and angioedema) with what class of HT drugs
ACEI
What is the initial treatment for AA?
Thiazide diuretics and/or Calcium Channel blockers
What should be prescribed for a black or white diabetic with proteinuria?
ACEI

low dose of diuretic may be added if initial treatment does not make significant results
Post-M/I patients should be on __________ regardless of his/her race
Beta-blocker
compare alpha 1 antagonists and a selective arterioloar dilator
alpha 1 antagonist- decrease both afterload and preload

selective arteriolar dilator- just decreases afterload

both lower BP, but alpha antagonist require less myocardial consumption
non-selective beta-blockers inhibit?
chronotropic
inotropic
vasodilator
bronchodilator
uterine-relaxing responses

to beta-adrenergic stimulation
ISA vs Non-ISA beta blockers
ISA= partial agonist
(not indicated for HR reduction, or in patients with angina pectoris)

Non-ISA= full antagonist
Non-selective beta-blocker with ISA

Selective beta-Blocker wiht ISA
Non-selective beta-blocker with ISA- Pindolol and Penbutolol

Selective beta-Blocker with ISA- Acebutolol and Celiprolol
drug of choice for people with peripheral vascular disease?
Calcium Channel blockers
Beta blocker prefered for patients with Asthma or Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Acebutolol

b/c beta-1 antagonist and beta-2 agonist
Beta blockers cover up signs of hypoglycemia except for what?
sweating

tachycardia, palpitations, tremor, hunger are all covered up by beta blockers
in general, drugs with vasodilator activity do or do not improve insulin resistance
do not change or improve insuline resistance
epinephrine acting on beta-2 receptors is known to lower _______ by increasing its uptake into the skeletal muscle
serum potassium
Non-selective beta-blocker agents inhibit _____________ ___________
Epinephrine-induced hypokalemia
Name the Beta blockers eliminated by:

Liver

Kidney
Eliminated by Liver→ propranolol, metoprolol, acebutolol
Eliminated by Kidney→ atenolol, nadolol (longest half-life)
commonly used intravenously by hypertensive crisis
Labetalol
Beta blocker with antioxidant activity

also has been shown to reduce mortality by 60% in CHF patients receiving standard treatment with ACEI, diuretics, and digitalis
Carvedilol
ETA Receptor Blockers
Bosaltan
Darusentan
Na-Ca2+ Channel Blocker
Digoxin
Type V Phosphodiesterase Inhibitor
Sildenafil
(destroys Phosphodiesterases which break down cGMP= more cGMP= venodilation=erection)
NO Synthase Inhibitor
Dexamethasone
(prevents production of NO)
Organic Nitrates
Nitroglicerine
Isosorbide dinitrate
(Donates NO to tissue)
Selective α1-Blockers
• Prazosin
• Doxazosin
• Terazosin
• Tamsulosin (uroselective)
Selective α2-Blockers
• Yohimbine
Non-Selective α-Blockers
• Phentolamine
• Phenoxybenzamine
Selective β1-Blockers
(↓broncho and arteriolar vasoconstriction)
• Atenolol
• Metoprolol
• Acebutolol (ISA)/ (beta2 agonist)
• Betaxolol
• Bisoprolol
• Celiprolol (ISA)
• Nebivolol (↑NO)
Non-Selective β-Blockers

Which ones are ISA and alpha blockers?
• Propanolol
• Nadolol
• Pindolol (ISA)
• Penbutolol (ISA)
• Levobunolol
• Timolol
• Carteolol
• Carvedilol (alpha blocker)
• Labetalol (alpha blocker)
α2 and imidazoline receptor agonists
• Clonidine
• Alpha-methyldopa
• Guanfacine
• Guanabenz
• Tizanidin
• Monoxidine
Indicated for: hypertensive urgencies and emergencies; fourth-line agent b/c of side effects
alpha 2 and imidazoline receptor agonists
management of opiate detoxification, alcohol, and cigarette withdrawal, for menopausal hot flashes, ulcerative colitis and for spasticity of the skeletal muscle present in multiple sclerosis and following spinal cord trauma
Clonidine
management of increased muscle tone associated with spasticity; acts on presynaptic alpha2 receptors located on the ach-containing nerve terminal of motor neurons innervating the skeletal muscle. Activation of these receptors inhibits ach release producing muscle relaxation (decreased muscle tone)
Tizanidine (zanaflex)
alpha 2 adrenergic agent used for chronic treatment of open angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension; reduces production and increases outflow of aqueous humor; preoperative oral administration of alpha 2 agonists reduces dose requirements for anesthetic and analgesic drugs, decreases preoperative anxiety and induces sedation
Brimonidine (alphagan)
developed specifically for preoperative anxiety and sedation
Dexmedetomidine and azepexole
Side effects of alpha 2 and imidazoline receptor agonists
drowsiness, sleepiness, tiredness, dry mouth , constipation; rebound hypertension and withdrawal symptoms if not discontinued gradually;
Alpha-methyldopa→ hemolytic anemia, liver (cholestatic hepatitis) and hematological (neutropenia) disorders
Interactions/ Contraindications of alpha 2 and imidazoline receptor agonists
don't use with constipating drug- loperamide, opioids, anticholinergics, antidepressants, verapamil; don't use with tricyclic-antidepressants because they may block the BP lowering effects of clonidine
activates both α2 and imidazoline receptors located in rostral-ventral medulla
Clonidine
must be converted to its active metabolites (alpha-methyl-NE and alpha-methyl-epinephrine) to exert its antihypertensive effect by activating alpha-2 receptors
Alpha-methyldopa
Sympathetic Nerve Terminal Drugs
• Reserpine
• Guanethidine
• Guanadrel
lowers BP effectively; only used as last resort for patients with severe, uncontrolled hypertension
Guanethidine/ Guanadrel
affects storage system for catecholamines and serotonin; reduces amount of NE available for release resulting in decreased stimulation of alpha and beta receptors; enters CNS
Reserpine
inhibit NE release from postganglionic sympathetic terminals; both are quaternary amines so do NOT reach CNS
Guanethidine & Guanadrel
Side Effects of Reserpine and Guanethidine/ Guanadrel
Reserpine→ tertiary amine so it reaches CNS reducing both peripheral and brain monoamine levels (less NE, EPI, Dopamine, and Serotonin); depression, tiredness, and drowsiness
Guanethidine/ Guanadrel→ dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, retrograde ejaculation, nasal obstruction, fluid retention (Thiazides help reduce incidence of fluid retention and edema)
contraindications with sympathetic nerve terminal drugs (Reserpine, Guanethidine, Guanadrel)
don't use with patients with history of depression or if suicidal or breast cancer and/or GI ulcers; don't use with patients with nasal obstruction, orthostatic hypotension, and ejaculatory problems
Dopamine 1-receptor agonist
• Fenoldopam
management of severe hypertension (up to 48 hours) rapid effects; maximum effects develop within 20-30 minutes
Dopamine 1-receptor agonist:
• Fenoldopam
lowers diastolic BP and increases renal perfusion by activating Dopamine-1 receptors; vasodilator; given parenterally to vasodilate peripheral arteries decreasing TPR and acts as diuretic; increases sodium chloride and water excretion); increases renal blood flow
Dopamine 1-receptor agonist:
• Fenoldopam
Side effecs of Dopamine 1-receptor agonist:
• Fenoldopam
headache, flushing, dizziness, tachycardia; not degraded by light
contraindications for Dopamine 1-receptor agonist:
• Fenoldopam
Patients with glaucoma because it decreases drainage of aqueous humor
Thiazides/ thiazide-like
• Hydrochlorothiazide (16hr)
• Bendroflumethiazide
• Chlorothiazide
• Polythiazide
• Chlorthalidone (24hr)
• Indapamide
• Xipamide
• Metolazone (okay with renal failure)
inhibits reabsorption of NaCl on the cortical portion of thick ascending limb of Henle
Thiazides/ thiazide-like
Loop diuretics
• Furosemide (12hr)
• Bumetanide
• Torsemide
• Piritanide
• Ethacrinic acid
reduce NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of Henle by inhibiting the Na-K-2Cl symport
Loop Diuretics
used when hypertension is associated with edematous states (sodium retention, CHF) or when renal dysfunction is present; synergistic diuretic interaction between thiazides and loop diuretics
Loop Diuretics
Potassium-Sparing diuretics
• Triamterene
• Amiloride
• Spironolactone
• Eplerenone
inhibitors of the renal epithelial sodium channels block sodium channels present in the luminal membrane of principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts
Triamterene and Amiloride
aldosterone antagonists reduce aldosterone mediated increased synthesis, distribution and activation of sodium channels and of membrane bound sodium-potassium ATPase of principal cells in the late distal and collecting ducts. Reduces number of sodium channels or blocks the channels inhibiting sodium reabsorption
Spironolactone and Eplerenone
Used in combination with other diuretics to avoid or reverse hypokalemia; reduces the loss of potassium, hydrogen ion, and magnesium induced by thiazides and loop diuretics; weaker diuretics than loop diuretics
Potassium-Sparing diuretics
alternative to thiazides in patients with low potassium, hyperuricemia, glucose intolerance and/or the presence of high aldosterone levels; used to treat hirsutism in females
Spironolactone
Which Diuretics is best for patients with renal failure (serum creatine greater than 2.5 mg/dl) but want to prevent hyperkalemia?

NSAIDS and steroids may increase the risk of hyperkalemia in which diuretics?
Potassium-Sparing diuretics
Which diuretic is good to use if patient has:

hypokalemia, ↑serum uric acid and gout, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, ↑or↓ in Ca2+, sexual function, erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, delay in orgasm, ↓lithium clearance, and ↑serum lithium levels
Potassium-Sparing diuretics
interferes with testosterone synthesis and may increase conversion of testosterone to estradiol; endocrine abnormalities; gynecomastia
Spironolactone
may cause hyperkalemia; does not have endocrine side effects like Spironolactone
Eplerenone
Low salt intake ________ effects of diuretics; high salt diet _____ the potassium-loosing effect of diuretics
Low salt intake enhances effects of diuretics; high salt diet accentuates the potassium-loosing effect of diuretics
Hypokalemia is known to potentiate the effects of __________
Hypokalemia is known to potentiate the effects of digoxin
Hypokalemia should be avoided in patients with
• hypertension
• diabetes
• ischemic heart disease
• arrhythmia
• CHF
• taking antiarrhythmic drugs
• taking digoxin
• taking beta-2 agonists
Preferred in patients with renal impairment
Loop Diuretics
Not effective in patients with renal impairment
Thiazide Diuretics
thiazide-type diuretic that retains efficacy in renal failure; used with small doses with furosemide in hypertensives with renal disease
Metolazone
______ stimulation to the kidney induces the release of renin via stimulation of beta receptors?
Sympathetic
What does Aldosterone do?
1. sodium retaining
2. K, H, and Mg loosing
3. collagen formation
4. favors clotting

AKA repair-promoting substance
What induces salt sensitivity?
High levels of AII
Compare NE, AII, and Endothelins as vasocontrictors
ET-1>>> AII>>NE
ETA vs ETB receptors
ETA→ vascular smooth muscle; vasoconstriction

ETB→vascular endothelium; release NO and prostanoids (vasodilation)
What do CCB do to the ECG?
prolongs the PR interval
Name 4 ways to modulate intracellular Ca2+
1. Voltage-dependent calcium channel (CCB)
2. Cell membrane Ca2+ pump
3. Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (Digoxin)
4. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum and Mitochondria (IP3)
How does NO cause vasodilation?
NO passes from the endothelium to the smooth muscle, where it stimulates cGMP production, which in turn leads to vasodilation

NO also reduces platelet adhesion and aggregation; inhibits adherence of platelets, WBC, and LDL-C to the endothelium
What is the max daily intake of Salt?

What other supplement can you take to help lower your BP?
Max Salt Intake= 6 grams/day

Increasing Potassium intake can lower BP