• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/180

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

180 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What does the acronym "RADAR" stand for?
Radio Detection And Ranging
How high does a fence around a restricted area need to be?
8 feet, or 7 ft with a 1 ft topper
How low to the ground must a fence extend?
2 inches from bottom of hard soil, or burried in soft soil.
How many levels of CMS tiers are there?
Four, 0,1,2 & 3
What is the minimum depth of water to deploy an SLDMB from a Helo?
10ft or greater
Who was the first SPAR?
LCDR Dorothy C. Stratton
Who was the the first MCPO of the CG (E-10)?
BMCM Charles L. Calhoun
Aug 17, 1969
When was the E-7 paygrade established?
May 18, 1920
Wind current is normally computed when water depth exceeds 100ft and distance offshore is?
Greater than 20NM
SMC should recommend a Helo transferring a dive victim to?
fly at the lowest, safest altitude possible
What are the 2 external influences on the SAR system?
Public Affairs & Legal Aspects
The most probable search object corrected for the movement over time is referred to as?
Datum
Sea area A-4 is best described as which geographical region?
primarily the Polar Regions
What is the maximum towing capacity of a 110'?
500 gross tons
A helicopter crew has just completed a 6.3 hour search and just landed at a local hospital. They should?
Shutdown and cease all operations
Which EPIRB alert is not initially evaluated as distressed?
406, LEO "B"
Participation in AMVER is required by?
US flagged vessels over 1,000 gross tons on voyages longer than 24hrs.
A coverage factor of 1.0 indicates?
corrected sweep width is equal to the track spacing
What is the difference between type "A" and "B" EPIRBS?
A - Manually turned on

B - Automatic turn, or manual switch
Congress established the E-8 and E-9 pay grades when?
May 1958, under Public Law 85-422
The first MCPO (E-9) was?
YNCM Jack Kerwin
Nov 1, 1958
The first Coast Guard chiefs were the former station keepers of?
Life Saving Stations
Womens fingernails can not extend more than?
1/4" beyond fingertip
What are the key watchwords in the Commodants direction?
Readiness, People and Stewardship
The Magnuson's Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act was passed when?
1976
What gives the CG its law enforcement and establishes who may exercise that authority?
Title 14 USC, Sect 89
If an E-6 with dependants is transferred between two CONUS PDS, he or she may ship how many pounds of HHG?
11,000lbs
One day of travel is authorized for how many miles of distance?
350 miles
For POC travel mileage reimbursement, 3 authorized travelers are entitled to?
$.19 per mile
What is the maximum allowance for authorized temporary lodging (TLA) expense is?
$180 per day
Temporary lodging (TLA) is authorized for a period not more than?
60 days
Members may request advance pay up to?
3 months, must be paid back within 12 months or 24 months with command approval.
Who was the first African American SPAR?
YN2 Olivia J. Hooker
Which lighthouse was Ida Lewis the watch keeper of?
Lime Rock, 1857-1872
Why is the CG racing stripe at the angle it is?
It is 64 deg to the right, to distinguish CG from other government agencies
41. This Condition applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable?
FPCON Alpha
42. This condition applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely?
FPCON Delta
43. This condition applies when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent?
FPCON Charlie
44. This condition applies when a general threat or possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
FPCON Normal
This condition applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
FPCON Bravo
Which Revenue Cutter fired the first naval shots in the Civil War?
Harriet Lane
Fort Sumter, 1861
In this war, cutters captured 18 prizes unaided and assisted in 2 other captures?
Quasi War
During this war, the McCulloch served as both the escort and dispatch with Commodore George Dewey’s squadron?
Spanish - American War
The Life Saving service was reborn under the leadership of?
Sumner L. Kimball assisted by revenue marine captain John Faunce in 1871
The sinking of the Titanic was the driving force for establishing the International Ice Patrol when?
Feb 7, 1914
What year did the Light house service join the Coast Guard?
1939
Who was the only man in history to be awarded the Medal of Honor and the Gold lifesaving Medal?
Marcus Hanna
Medal of Honor July 4, 1863, Gold Life Saving Medal January 28, 1885
Abbie Burgess served 38 years at what Light Station?
Matinicus Rock and White head light stations.
Who founded the Revenue Cutter Service?
Alexander Hamilton
When was the Coast Guard Auxiliary created?
June 23, 1939
Coast Guard Reserve act of 1939
The Life Saving Service was initiated in what year?
1848
The only Coast Guard manned Light Station today is?
Boston Harbour
The First uniformed women to serve in the Coast guard were?
Genevive and Lucille Baker
of the Naval Coastal defense Reserve.
Who were the first five African-American Spars?
Olivia J. Hooker, O. Winafred Byrd, Julia Mosley, Yvonne Cumberbatch, Aileen Cooke in 1945
Who was the first Spar E-9?
YNCM Pearl Faurie 1962
What year were women allowed into active duty?
1973
Coast Guard history begins on?
Aug 4, 1794
The First ten cutters were?
Vigilant, Diligence, Active, General Green, Massachusetts, Virginia, South Caroline, Scammel, Argus, Eagle
When did the Revenue cutter service and U.S. Life Saving Service merge?
January 28, 1915
Who saved more than 600 lives and earned 2 gold and 3 life saving medals, plus other awards?
Joshua James
What is a SF-700 used for?
Storing of combinations (envelope)
What is a SF-701 used for?
Activity Security Checklist
What is a SF-702 used for?
Security container check sheet
What is a Q-Clearance?
Dept. of Energy, equivalent to a TS
What does D-Day / H-Hour mean?
The letters are derived from the words for which they stand, "D" for the day of the invasion and "H" for the hour operations actually begin.
In military or police operations, what determines when, where and how force shall be used?
Rules of Engagement
What does MISLE stand for?
Marine Information for Safety and Law Enforcement
Jurisdiction is comprised of what three elements:
• Vessel status/flag
• Location
• Substantive law
What is a COMSEC Incident?
Any univestigated or unevaluated, investigated or evaluated occurrence that has the potential to jeopardize the Security of comsec material or the secure transmission of classified or sensitive government information
What is a Physical Incident?
An uninvestigated or unevaluated incident regarding any loss of control, theft, capture, recovery by salvage, tampering, Unauthorized viewing, access, or photographing that has the ptential to jeopardize comsec material -or- any investigated or evaluated occurrenceThat has been determined as not jeopardizing comsec material
What is a Compromise?
Disclosure of information or data to unauthorized person (s), or violation of the security policy of a system in whichUnauthorized intentional or unintentional disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss an object may have occurred
What are the 3 categories of Comsec Incident?
1. Cryptographic
2. Personnel
3. Physical
How often are Safe combos inventoried?
Yearly
How many characters are contained in a digraph?
2
What type of Incident is this:
Use of comsec keying material that is compromised, superseded, defective, previously used, or incorrect application of keying material?
Cryptographic Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Know or suspect defection or espionage?
Personnel Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Unauthorized access to comsec material by uncleared persons or by persons in appropriately cleared?
Physical Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Capture by an enemy or persons who have detailed knowledge of cryptographic logic or access to keying material?
Personnel Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Use of equipment having defective crypto circuitry or use of unauthorized operating procedures?
Cryptographic Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Use of comsec equipment or device that has not been approved by NSA?
Cryptographic Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Unauthorized disclosure of personal identification numbers (PINS) and or passwords that are used on systems which also allow access to comsec material information?
Personnel Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Unauthorized disclosure of information concerning comsec material?
Personnel Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Comsec material discovered outside of required accountability or physical control?
Physical Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Attempts by unauthorized persons to effect disclosure of information concerning comsec material?
Personnel Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Discussion via non-secure telecommunications of details of a comsec equipment of malicious codes on the ekms system?
Cryptographic Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Any other occurrence that may jeopardize the crypto security of comsec system?
Cryptographic Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Comsec improperly packaged or shipped?
Physical Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Failure to maintain TPI for T.S. keying material, except where waiver has been granted?
Physical Incident.
What type of Incident is this:
Receipt of classified equipment, CCI Equipment, or keying material marked or designated crypto with a damaged inner wrapping?
Physicial Incident.
A report that is used to move information of potential intelligence interest from the CG unit level of command through the District/Area Intelligence Coordination Center (ICC).
a FIR (Field Intelligence Report)
Document that states the intelligence interest of a unit. DIA uses this information to forward only that intelligence information to that unit.
(SII) Statement of Intelligence Interest
A report that is used to report information that is of value to the intelligence community. These are usually written in response to standing collection requirements, but may also be used to report other information of value
IIR (Intelligence Information Report)
This field lists the Intelligence Function Codes (IFC). DIA uses this field to route IIR's to commands and analysts with a need to know based on their statement of Intelligence Interest (SII).
IPSP (Intelligence Priority Strategic Planning)
Words or abbreviations that enable the DIA data processing equipment to identify particular portions of the IIR.
Prosigns
True or False:
FIRS are reported outside of the Coast Guard
True
True or False:
FIRS can be written by Any CG unit
True
True or False:
IIR's can be used in place on SITREPS and Operational Reports
False
True or False:
FIRS are cannot be transmitted via Unclas email and fax.
False
The IIR drafted by the CG will always start with a number 4
True
At a minimum what classification should FIRS hold?
FOUO
What is the minimum classification an IIR holds?
CONFIDENTIAL
The SSIC for IIR's are always?
N03821
What COMDTINST outlines CG Intelligence activities?
M3820.12
What executive order gives the CG the right to conduct Intel activities?
Executive Order 12333
What are the 3 functions of the CG National Intelligence Element?
Foreign Intelligence, National Intelligence, Counterintelligence
Who does the request for electronic surveillance to be conducted need to go for approval?
Assistant COMDT for Intelligence
True or False:
Reservists serve in the same enlisted and officer specialties as their active-duty counterparts.
True
What two enlisted ratings are open only to members of the Reserve?
Port Security Specialist and Investigator
True or False:
All Ready Reservists are considered to be in an active status.
True
The ___________ is a manpower pool principally consisting of individuals who have had training and have previously served in the Active Forces
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
As a Coast Guard member, you may serve as an election official if it:
Does not need a decision by your commanding officer
True or False:
Reservists serve in the same enlisted and officer specialties as their active-duty counterparts.
True
What two enlisted ratings are open only to members of the Reserve?
Port Security Specialist and Investigator
True or False:
All Ready Reservists are considered to be in an active status.
True
The ___________ is a manpower pool principally consisting of individuals who have had training and have previously served in the Active Forces
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
As a Coast Guard member, you may serve as an election official if it:
Does not need a decision by your commanding officer
As a Coast Guard member, you may NOT:
Wear a political button on your uniform or at any time while on duty.
True or False:
All SOFA agreements require U.S. personnel to have a specific type of order or specific identification documents
False
True or False:
SOFAs define the legal status of U.S. personnel and property in another country
True
True or False:
SOFAs guarantee U.S. forces immunity rights from prosecution by host governments for criminal offenses outside of official duty
False
True or False:
All SOFAs must allow the U.S. to establish banking and recreational facilities for our forces in the host country
False
True or False:
SOFAs usually address three types of status.
True
What insignia is this?
Assistant District Staff Officer
What Insignia is this?
Assistant in the Public Health Service Commissioned Corps
What Rank is this?
Captain in the Navy
What rank is this?
Chief Warrant Officer 2 in the Army
What rank is this?
Commander in the Navy or Coast Guard Chaplain Corps
What rank is this?
District Commodore
What Insignia is this?
District Staff Officer-Branch Chief
What Insignia is this?
District Vice Commodore - District Rear Commodore
What Insignia is this?
District Vice Commodore
What Insignia is this?
Division Captain
What Insignia is this?
Division Staff Officer
What Insignia is this?
Division Vice Captain
What Insignia is this?
Flotilla Staff Officer - District Aide
What Insignia is this?
Flotilla Staff Officer
What Rank is this?
Lieutenant Commander in the Coast Guard.
What Rank is this?
Lieutenant in the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
What Insignia is this?
National Commodore
What Insignia is this?
National Vice Commodore
What rank is this?
Senior Chief Petty Officer in the Coast Guard
What rank is this?
Sergeant Major in the Army
What Rank is this?
Third Class Petty Officer in the Navy
Members involved in a drug incident with less than ______of service are separated by reason of misconduct
8 yrs
True or False:
A self-referral is NOT considered an alcohol incident
True
True or False:
In order for an action to be considered an alcohol incident, alcohol must be consumed by the member
True
True or False:
Members involved in a third alcohol incident are to be processed for separation
True
True or False:
PDR entries do not fulfill the requirement for a probationary period when contemplating discharge action
False
True or False:
A command can direct a member for assessment screening if there is reasonable suspicion
True
True or False:
Members who are diagnosed as drug or alcohol dependent must be offered treatment prior to separation
True
True or False:
Administrative inspections using urinalysis testing are not permitted
False
Your body’s initial response to stress is a ________ one
Chemical
ersonal life stressors include
Dealing with injury or illness
Suicide is among this nation’s _______ leading causes of death
10
True or False:
The Coast Guard Ombudsman Program is also available to Reserves members and their dependents
True
True or False:
A volunteer spouse could serve as an Ombudsman
True
True or False:
The Ombudsman serves as a link between a Coast Guard Command and headquarters staff
False
True or False:
Contact the Ombudsmen Coordinator at headquarters to obtain ombudsman services
False
True or False:
With the exception of family violence, all discussions with an Ombudsman are kept strictly confidential
True
True or False:
Ombudsmen provide information on activities of interest to family members
True
Protect hazardous waste workers and emergency responders from hazardous substance releases
HAZWOPER regulations
Contain the release from spreading
First Responder Operations Level
A response effort to an occurrence that results in an uncontrolled release of a hazardous substance
Emergency response
Who was awarded the CG distingiushed service medal and when?
William Boyce
Sept. 17, 1918
Who are the only recipients of the Silver Star Medal?
Benjamin Harrison
Willis goff
Larry Villareal
Who was the first Asian American female CWO?
Grace Parmalee
When was the first CPO academy?
1982
When was the CG formally created?
1915
What is the second highest award ever awarded to a coastie?
Navy Cross Medal
This information must be included on all correspondence in the CG because it serves as the file number...
SSIC
How many headquarter units report directly to Headquarters?
35
How long does it take for the Magnetron to warm up?
90sec for X, 180sec for S
What does the 73 RADAR pointer look like when making a circle or octogan?
a Pencil
How many freq. presests are on a WSC3?
20
when taking two or more bearing fixes, were do you get your first fix from?
the closest or most abeam
What is it called between RADR fixes?
Dead Time
Where does the first bearing come from when plotting?
abeam
What is the Range in NM a 73 Radar monitors?
24NM
What size CGC's are not required to maintain radio logs?
110's and smaller
Who wrote Semper Paratus?
Capt Van Boskerck