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283 Cards in this Set

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Units deploying for less than ______ hours are not required to submit a COMMSHIFT, except to Navy facilities.
72
PROFORMA stands for what?
Pre-formatted Message
How many types of COMMSHIFTS are there?
5
Used to shift communications guards.
COMMSHIFT
Used to establish a permanent or temporary fleet/mobile unit Plan Language Address.
Establish COMMSHIFT
Used to disestablish a permanent or temporary fleet/mobile unit PLA.
Disestablish COMMSHIFT
Used to change a permanent or temporary fleet/mobile unit PLA.
Rename COMMSHIFT
Used to cancel a previously submitted COMMSHIFT of any kind.
Cancel COMMSHIFT
This COMMSHIFT precedence becomes effective in less than 24 hours.
Immediate
This COMMSHIFT precedence required within 24 to 48 hours.
Priority
This COMMSHIFT precedence is required after 48 hours but less than 14 days.
Routine
Who do you address COMMSHIFT messages to?
Gaining and losing communications facilities, Master Update Authority, NCTAMS
COMMSHIFTs are limited to what classifications?
Secret and below
What is the SSIC for a COMMSHIFT?
N02325
What is the CIC for a COMMSHIFT?
ZYUW
Submitted by all cutters whenever unusual communication difficulties are encountered.
COMSPOT
When are COMSPOT reports required?
Within 30 min of outage, every hour or upon significant changes in status
If radio systems are not restored in ____ hrs, a CASREP must be issued.
48
What manual do you refer to for CASREPS?
Joint Force Maintenance Manual
What does COMTAC stand for?
Communications Tactical
What is the central control point for the administration and maintenance of COMTAC publications within a command?
CPL
True/False
CG publications not applicable to the Navy are part of the COMTAC system.
False
All classified material shall be controlled and handled in accordance with what manuals?
COMDTINST M5510.23 series, COMDTINST M 5500.19 series, and COMDTINST M2600.1 series
A web-integrated database centrally managed by TISCOM that displays information applicable to your specific account.
Online Publication Library (OPL)
What three ways can COMTAC publications be prepared?
Paper, CD-ROM, web-based
Responsible for the day-to-day administration of the library and report to the PCO for all matters relating tot he CPL.
Publication Control Clerk (PCC)
A MS Acess database developed by TISCOM to automate the accounting and reporting functions needed to maintain a CPL.
Coast Guard Publications Control Software (CGPC)
The designated location of library publications that are not under the control of a holder/user and are available for issure, if needed.
Publication Stock Center
Relief/designation letter are retained for how long?
2 years
Destruction reports for Unclassified and classified materials are retained for how long?
2 years
T/S and Secret destruction reports are retained for how long?
5 years
When do you perfom a page check on a pub?
Upon initial receipt, after a page change or correction, disassembling of a pub, prior to distruction (T/S or secret), during inventory (T/S), and upon relief of CO/PCO (T/S and Secret)
When would a classified pub be considered compromised?
Missing pages, Misplaced or whereabouts unknown, Loss of control, found in the hands of anyone without proper clearance, destroyed by accident.
What are reasons that publications might be destroyed?
Excess, Superseded, Cancelled, Authorized by ISIC
Unclassified materials must be inventoried...
Annually
Confidential materials must be inventoried...
Annually
Secret materials must be inventoried...
Annually
Top secret materials must be inventoried...
Bi-Annually
What are the 4 types of inventory reports?
Annual, Relief, Unit, Holder
Paper issue requests maybe placed by?
Naval Logistic Library (NLL), MILSTRIP message, Stock Numbers
The official notification that a publication has been implemented into the Armed Forces by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
Letter of Promulgation
Indicated any changed/corrections or special handling required.
Letter of Instructions
NATO approved publications are under the control of who?
NCO
What are the 4 general objectives of the SAR program?
Minimize loss of life, injury, property, and damage to environment/minimize crew risk/optomize resources in SAR/maintain a world leadership in maritime SAR
What are the different phases of SAR?
Uncertainty, distress, alert
What are the stages of SAR?
Awareness, Initial Action, Planning, Operations, Conclusion
Responsible for coordinating SAR operations within assigned search and rescue regions.
Rescue Coordination Centers (RCC)
Established in areas where the RCC is not capable of exercising effective control of SAR facilities and operations.
Rescue-Sub-Centers (RSO)
CG command and control facilities responsible for mission and coordination and tactical control of Search Rescue Units within assigned AORs.
Sector Command Centers (SCC)
What are some examples of external partners in SAR?
Local port and industry organizations, state and local agencies, USN, DHS, etc...
When an emergancy mandates responses in additions to SAR, emergency responses are managed within what?
Incident Command System (ICS)
Tasks include:
1. Prepare and execure SAR plans.
2. Collect, evaluate, and disseminate information.
3. Inform other Command Center of SAR.
4. Conduct interviews and gather SAR data.
5. Develop case folder.
6. Document actions.
7. Use QRCs.
OU
Tasks include:
1. Assist OU in collecting, evaluating, and disseminating information.
2. Monitor situations that could potentially develop into a SAR case.
3. Track, evaluate, and communicate the potential weather impact on a SAR case.
4. Identify and evaluate additional resources that may be used as an SRU.
SU
Tasks include:
1. Receive and copy initial and potential distress information.
2. Replay voice message recordings
3. Issue broadcasts
4. Maintain comms
5. Coordinate comms.
CU
What does GMDSS stand for?
Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
Satallite communications that allow the continuous exchange of comms and tactical info between suitably equipped CG ships and aircraft
SATCOM
An automated infomation system designed to support operational planning through flexible data transfer capabilities and tools for the analysis of tactical data
GMDSS
Designed for use as a client workstation connected to a network with a track data gateway.
Command and Control Personal Computer (C2PC)
A suite of computer based tools used to aid the search planner in developing an optimal search plan.
SAROPS
Used to support the agency's capability to monitor distress calls and coordinate response activites.
Rescue 21
A CG sponsored, computer-based global ship reporting system used worldwide by SAR authorites to coordinate assistance to people in distress.
Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Rescue System (AMVER)
A shipboard VHF maritime broadcast system that continuously send and receives vessel identification data.
Automatic Identification System (AIS)
Detects and relays signals from emergency beacons to the appropriate Rescue Coordination Center.
SARSAT
Enable info sharing and situational awareness among SAR decision makers.
MISLE
MISLE cases should be opened within how long?
15 min
The case file in MISLE should be validated within ____ hours of completion.
12
Provide relevant and up-to-date info about the progress of a specific SAR operation.
SITREP
Messages and after-action reports provide a detailed summary of events, actions, and assets employed during a specific operation.
Operational Summaries
How long is a SAR case maintained on-site?
3 years
How long are SAR case folders archived for?
10 Years
What are the Coast Guard missions at a sector?
1. Sar
2. Marine Safety
3. ATON
4. Ice Operations
5. Living Marine Resources Protection
Program developed to control radiation hazards to crew.
HERP
Program developed to protect fueling operations from radiation hazards.
HERF
Program developed to protect ordance from radiation hazards.
HERO
Authorized to enforce compliance with mandated security measures and actions.
Captain of the Port (COTP)
What MARSEC infomation is communicated to facilities, vessels and stakeholders?
1. Type of threat
2. Expected duration of threat
3. Location impact
4. Potential Targets
5. Actions required to minimize risks
When a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but only warrents routine security measures.
FPCON Normal
When there is a general yet unpredictable threat of possible terrorist activity and the circumstances do not justify the full implementation of higher level force protection measures.
FPCON Alpha
When an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
FPCON Bravo
When a terrorist incident occurs or intelligence indicated that terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent.
FPCON Charlie
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occured or when intelligence warnings of an attack against a specific location have been received.
FPCON Delta
Guidelines set forth by higher authority that specify the conditions under which armed forces will initiate or continue combat engagement with enemy forces.
Rules of Engagment (ROE)
Vessels owned, operated, or chartered by countries which present a risk to security if permitted to enter a U.S. port
Special Interest Vessels
Vessels listed on the Maritime Operational Threat Response Plan which are allowed to enter U.S. water with an Advance Notice of Arrival.
Restricted Vessels
Landside or waterside assets which may include waterfront facilities, commercial vessels or naval vessels.
High Value Assets (HVA)
Vessels whose cargo, activites, or persons on board pose a defined security threat.
High Potential Threats
Vessels or persons on board who may be engaged in activities which pose threats to security
Medium Potential Threats
Vessels or persons on board associated with an entity engaged in activity posing a potential security threat, but intellegence does not indicate direct involvement or intent.
Low Potential Threat
How does the CG identify Vessels of Interest?
1. Characteristics
2. History of compliance with domestic and interational security regulations.
3. Intelligence data
4. Arrival Information
Sources of HIV targeting information.
Port State Control (PSC) Matrix
Designated when information is received that the cargo of a vessel, activites of a vessel, or of a person onboard pose a defined security risk.
Cargo of interest (COI)
An intelligence term of reference; it designates key structures, systems, assets, or services which have been associated with potential safety or security risks.
Facility of Interest (FIO)
A water area within a defined boundary for which regulations governing the activities of vessels navigating within the area have been established under CFR 33
Regulated Navigation Area (RNA)
A 500 yard regulated area of water established around naval vessels to provide for their safety and security.
Naval Vessel Protection Zone (NVPZ)
In a NVPZ no vessel or person is allowed with in _____ yards of a large naval vessel without authorization from the senior naval officer present afloat, CG, or official escort patrol.
100
Has the authority to publish special local regulations to promote safety during scheduled marine events and control access to the area where the event is being held.
District Commander
Info proccessing activities which support planning and execution of CG missions.
Command and Control
The gathering and processing of tactical information from all sources to provide a common picture of maritime activities within areas of operations.
Situational Awareness
An accurate and complete display of relevant tactical data that integrates info from multiple sensors and sources.
Common Tactical Picture (CTP)
A display of relevant tactical information shared by more than one command to facilitate situational awareness of at all command levels.
Common Operational Picture (COP)
Responsible for the production and management of the Common Operational Picture within their AOR.
Area Command Centers
What annotates in template form those sets available for COMMSHIFT messages?
NTP 4 SUPP-2
When SAR objective is determined, what is the minimum time that initial action must take place?
5 minutes
The release of the appropriate broadcast must take place with in ____ minutes of initial notification.
15
From the time of inital notification, provide a SAR Action Plan within ____ hour on scene response time.
2
GMDSS coverage area within line-of-sight radiotelephone coverage of at least one VHF-FM system with continuous DSC channel 70 and channel 16 monitoring services.
Sea Area A1
GMDSS coastal regions to approximately 200nm offshore.
Sea Area A2
Major or Minor
Involves loss of life or property, lives saved, property saved or unaccounted for lives or property.
Major
Major or Minor?
Requires SAROPS to compute a drifted datum.
Major
Major or Minor?
Has high media or political interest
Major
Major or Minor?
Involves a shift of SMC to a higher level of command.
Major
Major or Minor?
False alarm
Minor
Major or Minor?
Cases with only assistance to lives or property.
Minor
Major or Minor?
Cases that resolve on their own.
Minor
Major or Minor?
Cases where the only CG involvement is a communication schedule.
Minor
How many parts are in a Search Action Plan?
6
Monitor MARSEC levels and security Alerts.
Waterways Management
Categorize contacts for exchange in the COP
Maritime Doman Awareness
Maintain asset readiness database
Resource Management
Monitor status of database
Response Operations
What IFF systems are military only?
Modes 1, 2, and 4
What IFF mode secures identification of friendly air/surface contacts?
Mode 4
What is the IFF code for a hijack or unlawful interference with ops?
7500
What is the IFF code for communications failure?
7600
What is the IFF code for an emergency?
7700
An air search RADAR providing two-dimensional target detection and tracking capabilities for long-range surveillance, self-defense, and targeting designation in the ship's integrated air detection and tracking system.
SPS-40
What is the air RADAR for new national security cutters?
TRS-3D
What is the preferred method to communicate MARSEC levels?
Electronic
What does SCI stand for?
Secure Compartmentalized Information
What is the Actual Frequency for a 406mhz EPIRB?
406.025
What type of investigation corresponds with a secret clearance? Top secret?
Secret: NACLC
Top Secret: SSBI
How many angles of a vessel should you photograph?
8
Who do you contact if you have excess property?
Property Officer
What does Semper Paratus mean?
Always Ready
What is the secondary frequency for non-commercial vessels?
VHF-FM ch. 9 (156.450mhz)
What does the proword "FROM" mean when spoken on VHF?
Beginning Time
How many letters are in a diagraph code?
2
What does the first letter mean in a diagraph code?
# of segments
What does the second letter mean in a diagraph code?
supercession rate
What does FCS stand for?
Fire Control System
What does FLIR stand for?
Forward looking infrared
What are the 3 stages of crypto?
Reserve, Effective, Superceded
How often do you get fixed wing positions? Rotary winged?
ops every 30 min/position every 60 min; ops every 15 min/position every 30 min
What is the minimum classification of any intel message?
FOUO
What number precedes an IIR Message?
4, indicates the USCG
What is the intel HUB for the Coast Guard?
ICC
How often do EKMS accounts get inspected by A&A teams?
Every 18 months
What is the form for a safe combo?
SF-700
How many Headquarters Units report directly to Headquarters?
35
What type of command is responsible for providing services such as civil engineering, health and safety, legal and finance to all operational units within its area?
Maintenance and Logistics Commands
What rank head up districts?
Rear Admirals
What rank leads the Atlantic and Pacific Areas?
Vice Admirals
In what war did cutter capture 18 prizes unaided?
Quasi-War
In what war is a Coast Guard cutter credited for firing the first naval shots?
Civil War
During what war was the Coast Guard entirely transfered over to the Navy?
World War I
During what war did the CGC McCulloch serve as both the escort and dispatch with Commodore George Dewey's squadron?
Spanish-American War
During this war, the Coast Guard's mission was primarily support.
Korean War
True or False
The first time the Coast Guard augmented the Navy with shallow-draft craft was in WWI?
False
What operations in Greenland was the Coast Guard responsible for during WWII?
Cold-weather
During what war did ocean-going cutters aument Navy and Coast Guard surveillance forces?
Vietnam
The Coast Guard was under Navy command during Operation Eagle?
No
After WWII, members of what organization were given rates and ratings, uniforms, and insignias?
Coast Guard Auxiliary
Drug smuggling in the 1960s gave what mission increased signifigance?
Law Enforcement
What event sparked the creation of the International Ice Patrol?
Titanic
The Refuse Act of 1899 was the catalyst for what CG mission?
Environmental Protection
When was the Federal Lifesaving service initiated?
1848
What is the location of the only Coast Guard manned light station in the U.S. today?
Boston Harbor
She was one of the first uniformed women to serve in the Coast Guard.
Lucille Baker
What year were women integrated into active duty and reserve?
1973
This man saved more then 600 lives, earned 2 gold medals, 3 silver, plus other awards.
Joshua James
What year were all officer career fields and enlisted ratings open to women?
1978
Who is the only Coast Guard member to be awarded the Medal of Honor?
Douglas Munro
What year was the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard created?
1969
In order to qualify for Officer Candidate School you must have qualifying scores on what exams?
SAT, ACT or ASVAB
This program allows you to continue civilian employment while serving on active duty (officer).
Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program
In order to qualify for this program you must be at least E-6.
Warrent Officer
In order to receive this you must have special training and skills in specific fields that meet the Coast Guard's needs.
Direct Commission Program
This program allows you to attend college on a full-time basis for up to 2 years and you still receive full pay and allowances.
Pre Commissioning Program
True or false
In the Coast Guard, your supervisor maybe a civilian?
True
Supporting documentation is required with evals for what marks?
1, 3, or 7
PRs for construction requests are limited to?
$2,000
The PR limit for ordering supplies is what?
$2,500
A next of kin must be notified if a SAR case has no development within what time frame?
At least one day prior to stopping efforts.
What is the DTG for a COMMSHIFT?
0000Z/0001Z
What is the SSIC for a COMMSHIFT?
N02325
What is the time frame requirement for a COMMSHIFT?
24 to 48 hours
How long do you have to act on an immediate message?
30 min
What freq. does NAVTEX broadcast on?
518 KHZ
What term means the Coast Guard is allowed to do a bonafide rescue in foreign seas?
Force Majeur
What units have Family Advicacy Specialists?
ISCs
What branch of the military does not have CWOs?
Air Force
What types of vessels are not covered by commercial fishing regulations in a certain pub?
Recreational fishing vessels
What does SCI stand for?
Secure Compartmentalized Information
What is the actual freguency for a 406 MHZ EPIRB?
406.025
What type of investigation corresponds with a secret clearance? Top secret?
NACLC/SSBI
How many angles of a vessel should you photograph?
8
Who do you contact if you have excess property?
Property Officer
What does Semper Paratus mean?
Always Ready
At a land unit, how long should the emergency generator last for?
72 hours
What is the secondary frequencies for non-commercial vessels?
8, 9, 81, 83A
What does the proword "from" mean when spoken on VHF radio?
Beginning time
How many letters are in a diagraph code?
2
What does the first letter mean in a diagraph code?
How many segments are in the cannister.
What does the second letter mean in a diagraph code?
Supercession rate
What does FCS stand for?
Fire Control System
What does FLIR stand for?
Forward looking infrared
What are the 3 stages of crypto?
Reserve, Effective, Superceded
What is the minimum classification of any intel msg?
FOUO
What does RADAR stand for?
Radio detection and ranging
What is the intel hub for the coast guard?
ICC
How often do EKMS accounts get inspected by A&A teams?
every 18 months
How long must you retain EKMS records of destruction?
3 yrs
Who cannot fly the commisioning pennant?
Enlisted Personnel
How many stripes are on the USCG ensign?
16
How long must a member be in the USCG in order to get discharged for a drug incident?
Any time, there is Zero tolerance
How high must windows be in a secure space?
18 ft high, 14 ft from other buildings
What is the form for a security container checksheet?
SF-702
What is the form for a safe combo?
SF-700
What form number is the Enlisted Performance Evaluation Employee Review Support Form?
CG 3788G
Regarding Employee Reviews, it is the supervisors responsibility to ensure that "bullets" are submitted no later than how many days?
14 days
Employee Reviews must be submitted no later than how many days to the Marking Official?
9 days
Routing for a complete employee review to Approving Offical must happen with in how many days after the marking period ends?
5 days
You have how long to appeal an employee review?
15 calander days
What two forms are required when requesting travel orders?
PCS Departing/Separation Worksheet (CG-2000) and Departing TDY or PCS/Temduins to "A" school worksheet (CG-2001)
To receive reimbursement for PCS, what form must you complete?
DD Form 1351-2
What is form CG-2070?
TDY Travel Request Worksheet
When traveling TDY, members are required to submit travel claim within how many days?
3 Days
TDY travel claims are completed and processed using what?
T-PAX
What are the three roles of the Coast Guard?
Maritime Safety
Maritime Security
Maritime Stewardship
What two primary missions are performed within the realm of Maritime Safety?
Marine Safety
Search and Rescue
What are the 4 primary missions performed within the realm of Maritime Security?
Illegal Drug Interdiction
Undocumented Migrant Interdiction
Defense Readiness
Ports, Waterways and Coastal Security
What are the 5 primary missions performed in the realm of Maritime Safety?
Living Marine Resources
Marine Environmental Protection
Fisheries
Aids to Navigation
Ice Operations
These members of the Coast Guard consist of individuals available for immediate recall to active duty.
Ready Reserve
Made up of former active duty members, and is designated as essential to inital contingency requirements having priority over all other Reserve elements.
Select Reserves
A manpower pool principally consisting of individuals who have had training and have previously served in the active forces or in the Selected Reserve.
Individual Ready Reserve
The uniformed volunteer component of the Coast Guard.
Coast Guard Auxiliary
When was the Homeland Security Act signed into law?
November 25, 2002
On what date was the Coast Guard transferred from the DOT to the DHS?
March 1, 2003
An E-2 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Private
2. Seaman Apprentice
3. Private First Class
4. Airman
An E-3 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Private First Class
2. Seaman
3. Lance Corporal
4. Airman FIrst Class
An E-4 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Corporal
2. Petty Officer 3rd Class
3. Corporal
4. Senior Airman
An E-5 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Sergeant
2. Petty Officer 2nd Class
3. Sergeant
4. Staff Sergeant
An E-6 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Staff Sergeant
2. Petty Officer 1st Class
3. Staff Sergeant
4. Technical Sergeant
An E-7 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Sergeant 1st class
2. Cheif Petty Officer
3. Gunnery Sergeant
4. Master Sergeant or First Sergeant
An E-8 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Master Sergeant or First Sergeant
2. Senior Chief
3. Master Sergeant or First Sergeant
4. Senior Master Sergeant or First Sergeant
An E-9 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Sergeant Major or Command Sergeant Major
2. Master Chief
3. Sergeant Major or Master Gunnery Sergeant
4. Chief Master Sergeant or First Sergeant or Command Chief Master Sergeant
What is the equilvant of MCPOCG to the other branches of the US military?
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marines
4. Air Force
1. Sergeant Major of the Army
2. Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
3. Sergeant Major of the Marine Corp
4. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force
What military branch does not have Warrant Officers?
Air Force
An O-1 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. 2nd Lieutenant
2. Ensign
3. 2nd Lieutenant
4. 2nd Lieutenant
An O-2 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. 1st Lieutenant
2. Ensign
3. 1st Lieutenant
4. 1st Lieutenant
An O-3 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Captain
2. Lieutenant
3. Captain
4. Captain
An O-4 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Major
2. Lieutenant Commander
3. Major
4. Major
An O-5 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Lieutenant Colonel
2. Commander
3. Lieutenant Colonel
4. Lieutenant Colonel
An O-6 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Colonel
2. Captain
3. Colonel
4. Colonel
An O-7 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Brigadier General
2. Rear Admiral Lower Half
3. Brigadier General
4. Brigadier General
An O-8 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Major General
2. Rear Admiral Upper Half
3. Major General
4. Major General
An O-9 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Lieutenant General
2. Vice Admrial
3. Lieutenant General
4. Lieutenant General
An O-10 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. General
2. Admrial
3. General
4. General
What service does not have a 5 star officer?
Marine Corp
What year did the rate of Petty Officer become official?
1808
What year was the Chief Petty Officer rate established?
1893
During what war did the Coast Guard rates become the same as those in the Navy?
World War I
What is UCMJ article 91?
Insubordinate Conduct Toward an Officer
What is UCMJ article 7?
Apprehension
What is UCMJ Article 92?
Failure to Obey Order or Regulation
What gives the Coast Guard its law enforcement authority and establishes who may exercise that authority?
14 USC 89
According to 14 USC 89, Petty Officers have the authority to do what?
Search
Examine
Arrest
Seize
Inspect
Inquire
(remember S.E.A.S.I.I.)
Where is the Coast Guard Academy located?
New London, Connecticut
An O-1 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. 2nd Lieutenant
2. Ensign
3. 2nd Lieutenant
4. 2nd Lieutenant
An O-2 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. 1st Lieutenant
2. Ensign
3. 1st Lieutenant
4. 1st Lieutenant
An O-3 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Captain
2. Lieutenant
3. Captain
4. Captain
An O-4 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Major
2. Lieutenant Commander
3. Major
4. Major
An O-5 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Lieutenant Colonel
2. Commander
3. Lieutenant Colonel
4. Lieutenant Colonel
An O-6 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Colonel
2. Captain
3. Colonel
4. Colonel
An O-7 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Brigadier General
2. Rear Admiral Lower Half
3. Brigadier General
4. Brigadier General
An O-8 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Major General
2. Rear Admiral Upper Half
3. Major General
4. Major General
An O-9 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. Lieutenant General
2. Vice Admrial
3. Lieutenant General
4. Lieutenant General
An O-10 in the Coast Guard is equivilant to what in the....
1. Army
2. Navy
3. Marine Corp
4. Air Force
1. General
2. Admrial
3. General
4. General
True or False
You may attend political meetings in uniform.
False
EMI is a form of punishment. True or False?
False
What UCMJ article gives you the right to remain silent during a courts-martial?
Article 31
What article gives Commanding officers the ability to impose NJP?
UCMJ Article 15
An NJP appeal must be submitted within how many calander days?
5 days