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60 Cards in this Set

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1. Consider an individual at rest. Which of the following blood vessels or heart chambers would contain blood with the lowest O2 concentration?

a. femoral artery
b. pulmonary artery
c. coronary artery
d. pulmonary vein
e. left atrium
1. Consider an individual at rest. Which of the following blood vessels or heart chambers would contain blood with the lowest O2 concentration?

b. pulmonary artery
2. During exercise on a stationary bicycle, which of the following blood vessels or heart chambers would contain blood with the lowest O2 concentration?

a. femoral artery
b. femoral vein
c. vena cava
d. pulmonary artery
e. pulmonary vein
2. During exercise on a stationary bicycle, which of the following blood vessels or heart chambers would contain blood with the lowest O2 concentration?

b. femoral vein
3. Which period of the heart cycle represents isovolumetric relaxation?

d. period E
3. Which period of the heart cycle represents isovolumetric relaxation?
a. period B
b. period C
c. period D
d. period E
e. period F
4. If the heart rate is 120 beats per minute, what is the total duration for all of the graphical events with the entire cycle?

d. 0.50 sec
4. If the heart rate is 120 beats per minute, what is the total duration for all of the graphical events with the entire cycle?

a. 2 sec
b. 1 sec
c. 0.75 sec
d. 0.50 sec
e. 0.25 sec
5. The above graphs represent blood pressure changes for

a. the left ventricle
5. The above graphs represent blood pressure changes for

a. the left ventricle
b. the right ventricle
6. During which period (or periods) of the heart cycle is the mitral valve open?
e. F+G+A
6. During which period (or periods) of the heart cycle is the mitral valve open?
a. B+C+D
b. G+A+B
c. A+B+C
d. E+F+G
e. F+G+A
7. During which period (or periods) of the heart cycle is the pulmonary valve open?

b. C+D
7. During which period (or periods) of the heart cycle is the pulmonary valve open?
a. B+C+D
b. C+D
c. D+E
d. D+E+F
e. E+F
8. During which period (or periods) does ventricular systole occur?

c. B + C + D
8. During which period (or periods) does ventricular systole occur?
a. B+C
b. A+B+C
c. B + C + D
d. C+D
e. C+D+E
9. Under steady state conditions the volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle is

c. equal to the volume of blood ejected by the right ventricle
9. Under steady state conditions the volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle is
a. less than the volume of blood ejected by the right ventricle
b. more than the volume of blood ejected by the right ventricle
c. equal to the volume of blood ejected by the right ventricle
10. Under normal conditions which of the following vessels would have the lowest mean blood pressure
a. femoral artery
b. carotid artery
c. arteriole in the within the circulation of the foot
d. capillary within the circulation of the foot
e. vein within the circulation of the brain
10. Under normal conditions which of the following vessels would have the lowest mean blood pressure

e. vein within the circulation of the brain
11. During left heart failure, the presence of pulmonary edema is most likely due to
a. increases in capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. increases in plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure
c. decreases in plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure
d. increases in interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
e. decreases in interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
11. During left heart failure, the presence of pulmonary edema is most likely due to
a. increases in capillary hydrostatic pressure
12. At the end of a maximal inspiration, alveolar pressure is
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. less than intrapleural pressure
e. equal to intrapleural pressure
12. At the end of a maximal inspiration, alveolar pressure is

c. zero
13. At the end of a maximal inspiration, intrapleural pressure is
a. less (i.e., more negative) than intrapleural pressure at the end of a normal inspiration
b. greater (i.e., less negative) than intrapleural pressure at the end of a normal inspiration
c. zero
d. equal to alveolar pressure
e. greater than alveolar pressure
13. At the end of a maximal inspiration, intrapleural pressure is
a. less (i.e., more negative) than intrapleural pressure at the end of a normal inspiration
14. Pressure within the thoracic region of the esophagus approximates
a. alveolar pressure
b. barometric pressure
c. intrapleural pressure
d. abdominal cavity pressure
e. transpulmonary pressure
14. Pressure within the thoracic region of the esophagus approximates

c. intrapleural pressure
15. At high lung volumes, lung compliance
a. less than lung compliance at FRC
b. greater than lung compliance at FRC
c. equal to lung compliance at FRC
15. At high lung volumes, lung compliance
a. less than lung compliance at FRC
16. Surfactant is produced by cells in the
a. tracheal wall
b. luminal surface of the bronchi
c. pulmonary capillaries
d. wall of the alveoli
16. Surfactant is produced by cells in the

d. wall of the alveoli
17. In the absence of surfactant, lung compliance is
a. greater than in the presence of surfactant
b. less than in the presence of surfactant
17. In the absence of surfactant, lung compliance is

b. less than in the presence of surfactant
18. If depolarization of the ventricles occurs by a route outside the normal conducting system (i.e. outside the Bundle of His or Purkinje system) the duration of the QRS complex (compared to a normal EKG) will be
a. shortened
b. lengthened
c. unchanged
d. the duration can be shortened or lengthened depending upon whether the depolarization begins on the right or the left side of the heart
18. If depolarization of the ventricles occurs by a route outside the normal conducting system (i.e. outside the Bundle of His or Purkinje system) the duration of the QRS complex (compared to a normal EKG) will be

b. lengthened
19. If an individual has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute with a normal EKG, the rate of depolarization of the SA node is
a. 100 per min
b. 75 per min
c. 50 per min
d. 25 per min
19. If an individual has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute with a normal EKG, the rate of depolarization of the SA node is

c. 50 per min
20. Which of the following changes in ion conductance contribute to phase 3?

d. increase in potassium conductance
20. Which of the following changes in ion conductance contribute to phase 3?
a. increase in calcium conductance
b. increase in sodium conductance
c. decrease in potassium conductance
d. increase in potassium conductance
21. Opening of so-called fast sodium channels are most responsible for
a. Phase 0
21. Opening of so-called fast sodium channels are most responsible for
a. Phase 0
b. Phase1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3
e. Phase 4
22. Increases in calcium conductance are most responsible for

c. Phase 2
22. Increases in calcium conductance are most responsible for
a. Phase 0
b. Phase1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3
e. Phase 4
23. The above action potential is most likely a recording from the

c. ventricular muscle
23. The above action potential is most likely a recording from the
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. ventricular muscle
d. skeletal muscle
e. postganglionic parasympathetic neuron in the heart
24. Spontaneous depolarizaton of cells within the SA node is due to
a. ‘leaky’ sodium channels
b. ‘leaky’ potassium channels
c. ‘leaky’ calcium channels
d. ‘leaky’ chloride channels
24. Spontaneous depolarizaton of cells within the SA node is due to
a. ‘leaky’ sodium channels
25. Severe liver disease can lead to an increase in the net filtration of fluid at the capillary due to
a. increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. increase in plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure
c. decrease in plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure
d. decrease in interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
e. increase in interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
25. Severe liver disease can lead to an increase in the net filtration of fluid at the capillary due to

c. decrease in plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure
26. Which of the following anatomical structures of the lung contribute to anatomical dead space
a. trachea
b. bronchi
c. respiratory bronchioles
d. a and b are both true
e. a, b, and c are all true
26. Which of the following anatomical structures of the lung contribute to anatomical dead space

d. a and b are both true
27. Which of the following best approximates the total alveolar surface area of the lung?
a. the surface area of legal-size sheet of paper
b. the surface area of a typical office desk
c. the surface area of table tennis (ping-pong) table
d. the surface area of a tennis court
27. Which of the following best approximates the total alveolar surface area of the lung?

d. the surface area of a tennis court
28. At the end of a normal expiration, intrapleural pressure is
a. equal to atmospheric pressure
b. less than atmospheric pressure
c. greater than atmospheric pressure
28. At the end of a normal expiration, intrapleural pressure is

b. less than atmospheric pressure
29. Which of the following events would lead to apnea (cessation of breathing)
a. severing the spinal cord between C1 and C2
b. severing the spinal cord between C7 and T1
c. severing the spinal cord between T12 and L1
d. severing all intercostal nerves
e. severing both phrenic nerves
29. Which of the following events would lead to apnea (cessation of breathing)
a. severing the spinal cord between C1 and C2
30. During a forced, maximal expiration
a. the phrenic nerve is stimulated
b. the diaphragm contracts
c. the external intercostals muscles contact to elevate the ribs
d. muscles in the abdominal wall contract
30. During a forced, maximal expiration

d. muscles in the abdominal wall contract
31. Which of the following associations is FALSE?
a. diaphragm: skeletal muscle
b. intercostals muscle: skeletal muscle
c. muscle in the wall of the airway: smooth muscle
d. alveolar wall: smooth muscle
31. Which of the following associations is FALSE?

d. alveolar wall: smooth muscle
32. Which of the following therapies would have the best chance of relieving the bronchoconstriction of an asthmatic attack?
a. inhalation of a drug that stimulates nicotinic cholinergic receptors in the smooth muscles of the airways
b. inhalaton of a drug that stimulates β-adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscles of the airways
c. inhalation of a drug that stimulates -adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscle of the airways
d. inhalation of a drug that stimulates muscarinic cholinergic receptors in the smooth muscle of the airways
32. Which of the following therapies would have the best chance of relieving the bronchoconstriction of an asthmatic attack?

b. inhalaton of a drug that stimulates β-adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscles of the airways
33. Alveolar ventilation is
a. equal to tidal volume multiplied by respiratory frequency
b. always less than total ventilation or minute volume
c. typically reported in units of liters per breath
d. equal to dead space volume multiplied by respiratory frequency
33. Alveolar ventilation is

b. always less than total ventilation or minute volume
34. The barometric pressure at the top of Mt Evans, Colorado is 450 Torr. What is the approximate value of the partial pressure of oxygen in the air at the summit of this mountain?
a. 150 Torr
b. 100 Torr
c. 50 Torr
34. The barometric pressure at the top of Mt Evans, Colorado is 450 Torr. What is the approximate value of the partial pressure of oxygen in the air at the summit of this mountain?

b. 100 Torr
35. Regions of the lung with abnormally low V/Q ratios contribute to
a. shunt
b. physiological dead space
35. Regions of the lung with abnormally low V/Q ratios contribute to
a. shunt
36. Assuming normal V/Q ratios and no diffusion impairments, the PO2 of the blood at the end of pulmonary capillary is
a. equal to the alveolar PO2
b. greater than the alveolar PO2
c. less than the alveolar PO2
36. Assuming normal V/Q ratios and no diffusion impairments, the PO2 of the blood at the end of pulmonary capillary is
a. equal to the alveolar PO2
37. Erythropoietin
a. is a hormone that is released by the spleen and stimulates clot formation
b. stimulates the production of leucocytes
c. is hormone when over secreted leads to anemia
d. may lead to polycythemia
e. leads to a reduction in the hematocrit
37. Erythropoietin

d. may lead to polycythemia
38. Prothrombin
a. results from the enzymatic action of fibrin on thrombin
b. is released by blood platelets and stimulates vasoconstriction of blood vessels
c. stimulates the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin monomers
d. is a clotting factor that is synthesized by the liver
38. Prothrombin

d. is a clotting factor that is synthesized by the liver
39. Plasmin
a. is a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin
b. dissolves clots by preventing the formation of fibrin
c. is an enzyme that destroys or degrades fibrin
d. is needed for the formation of prothrombin activator complex
39. Plasmin

c. is an enzyme that destroys or degrades fibrin
40. Compared to the axon for a neuron, the absolute refractory period for cardiac muscle cells
a. is longer
b. is shorter
c. is the same
d. one cannot predict the duration of the refractory period of any excitable tissue
40. Compared to the axon for a neuron, the absolute refractory period for cardiac muscle cells
a. is longer
41. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart would be expected to
a. reduce the frequency of cardiac impulses arising from the SA node
b. increase the contractility of ventricular muscle
c. decrease the length of each cardiac cycle
d. both a and b are true
e. both b and c are true
41. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart would be expected to

e. both b and c are true
42. An increase in the length of the PR interval represents a reduction in the velocity of the conduction of the cardiac impulse through the
a. Purkinje system
b. AV node
c. Ventricular muscle
d. Bundle of His
42. An increase in the length of the PR interval represents a reduction in the velocity of the conduction of the cardiac impulse through the

b. AV node
43. Stimulation of the vagus (parasympathetic nerves) at a constant left ventricular end disastolic volume
a. will increase cardiac output
b. will lower heart rate
c. will increase heart rate
d. increase stroke volume
43. Stimulation of the vagus (parasympathetic nerves) at a constant left ventricular end disastolic volume

b. will lower heart rate
44. Which of the following events could lower the stroke volume of the heart (assume that the event listed occurs without a change in any other variable that could influence stroke volume)
a. increase in sympathetic stimulation to the heart
b. application of a negative chronotropic drug the heart
c. decrease in ventricular end diastolic volume
d. both a and c are true
e. both b and c are true
44. Which of the following events could lower the stroke volume of the heart (assume that the event listed occurs without a change in any other variable that could influence stroke volume)

c. decrease in ventricular end diastolic volume
45. Indicate which of the following events would have the largest effect on increasing vascular resistance
a. a two fold increase in the viscosity of the blood
b. increasing the diameter of the vessel by 2X
c. reducing the radius of the vessel by 2X
d. increasing the length of the vessel by 4X
45. Indicate which of the following events would have the largest effect on increasing vascular resistance

c. reducing the radius of the vessel by 2X
46. Fibrinogen
a. is a protein that is present in the plasma
b. is produced from fibrin under the enzymatic action of thrombin
c. is converted to thrombin in the presence of prothrombin
46. Fibrinogen
a. is a protein that is present in the plasma
47. Heparin
a. is a clotting factor and participates in the clotting cascade
b. is an anticoagulant
c. is required for the formation of prothrombin activator complex
d. stimulates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
47. Heparin

b. is an anticoagulant
48. If a positive inotropic agent is administered to an animal, one would expect
a. an increase in the contractility of heart muscle
b. an increase in stroke volume (assuming no change in end diastolic volume)
c. an increase in cardiac output if end diastolic volume and heart rate are unchanged
d. all of the above statements are true
48. If a positive inotropic agent is administered to an animal, one would expect

d. all of the above statements are true
49. Reynold’s number is normally higher in the aorta than in medium sized arteries because
a. the aorta contains more elastic tissue than medium sized arteries
b. the aorta is closer to the heart and has a high blood flow
c. the aorta has a larger diameter and velocity of blood flow is greater than in medium sized arteries
49. Reynold’s number is normally higher in the aorta than in medium sized arteries because

c. the aorta has a larger diameter and velocity of blood flow is greater than in medium sized arteries
50. If a patient’s arterial blood pressure is reported as 110/70 then
a. pulse pressure is 70 mmHg
b. mean arterial blood pressure can be estimated as 100 mmHg
c. diastolic blood pressure is 70 mmHg
d. the patient is hypertensive
50. If a patient’s arterial blood pressure is reported as 110/70 then

c. diastolic blood pressure is 70 mmHg
51. Which of the following statements correctly describes characteristics of the pulmonary circulation?
a. pulmonary blood flow is less than blood flow through the systemic circulation
b. mean pulmonary arterial blood pressure is less than mean systemic arterial blood pressure
c. pulmonary vascular resistance is greater than total peripheral resistance in the systemic circulation
d. the pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to the lung
51. Which of the following statements correctly describes characteristics of the pulmonary circulation?

b. mean pulmonary arterial blood pressure is less than mean systemic arterial blood pressure
52. Which of the following events would likely lead to decreases in the systolic arterial blood pressure of the systemic circulation?
a. decreases in stroke volume
b. decreased elasticity of the arterial blood vessels
c. increases in total peripheral resistance
52. Which of the following events would likely lead to decreases in the systolic arterial blood pressure of the systemic circulation?
a. decreases in stroke volume
53. Blood is sampled from the end of the pulmonary capillary from a unit of the lung that has abnormally high VA / Q ratios (Unit A) and a second unit (Unit B) that has abnormally low VA / Q ratios. Which of the following statements is true?
a. the PO2 of the blood entering the pulmonary capillary of Unit A is higher than the PO2 of blood entering the pulmonary capillary of Unit B
b. the PO2 of blood exiting the pulmonary capillary of unit A is higher than the PO2 of blood exiting the pulmonary capillary from Unit B
c. the PO2 of blood exiting the pulmonary capillary of unit A is lower than the PO2 of blood exiting the pulmonary capillary from Unit B
d. the PO2 of blood entering the pulmonary capillary of Unit A is lower than the PO2 of blood entering the pulmonary capillary of Unit B
53. Blood is sampled from the end of the pulmonary capillary from a unit of the lung that has abnormally high VA / Q ratios (Unit A) and a second unit (Unit B) that has abnormally low VA / Q ratios. Which of the following statements is true?
b. the PO2 of blood exiting the pulmonary capillary of unit A is higher than the PO2 of blood exiting the pulmonary capillary from Unit B
54. Which of the following associations is FALSE?
a. high VA / Q ratios: physiological dead space
b. low VA / Q ratios: shunt
c. low VA / Q ratios: apex of the lung (upright human lung)
d. normal A – a gradient for PO2 : 4 - 6 Torr
54. Which of the following associations is FALSE?

c. low VA / Q ratios: apex of the lung (upright human lung)
55. Vagal tone (modest steady state stimulation of the vagus) often lowers heart rate slightly in a resting individual. If vagal tone is present, which of the following drugs would eliminate vagal tone and elevate heart rate slightly?
a. muscarinic receptor agonist
b. muscarinic receptor antagonist
c. nicotinic receptor agonist
d. nicotinic receptor antagonist
55. Vagal tone (modest steady state stimulation of the vagus) often lowers heart rate slightly in a resting individual. If vagal tone is present, which of the following drugs would eliminate vagal tone and elevate heart rate slightly?

b. muscarinic receptor antagonist
OR
d. nicotinic receptor antagonist
56. The parasympathetic postganglionic neuron
a. is an adrenergic neuron
b. stimulates nicotinic receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of the effector organ
c. is a cholinergic neuron
d. is a sensory neuron
e. originates from the medulla of the brainstem
56. The parasympathetic postganglionic neuron

c. is a cholinergic neuron
57. Which of the following events would lower mean arterial blood pressure?
a. increase in cardiac output; no change in total peripheral resistance
b. increase in total peripheral resistance; no change in cardiac output
c. increase in heart rate, no change in stroke volume, increase in total peripheral resistance
d. reduction in heart rate, reduction in stroke volume, no change in total peripheral resistance
57. Which of the following events would lower mean arterial blood pressure?

d. reduction in heart rate, reduction in stroke volume, no change in total peripheral resistance
58. The ventricles fill most rapidly
a. early in diastole
b. late in diastole
c. during atrial systole
58. The ventricles fill most rapidly
a. early in diastole
59. If one wanted to dissolve a blood clot within a blood vessel, which of the following agents would be most useful as a therapeutic agent to inject into the vessel?
a. thrombin
b. plasminogen
c. TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
d. fibrinogen
59. If one wanted to dissolve a blood clot within a blood vessel, which of the following agents would be most useful as a therapeutic agent to inject into the vessel?

c. TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
60. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart would alter the membrane properties of cells within the SA node such that
a. the slope of phase 4 within cells of the SA node would be increased
b. the slope of phase 4 within cells of the SA node would be lowered or reduced
c. the membrane potential of SA node cells would move closer to threshold but would have no effect on the slope of phase 4 within cells of the SA node
60. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart would alter the membrane properties of cells within the SA node such that
a. the slope of phase 4 within cells of the SA node would be increased